agency-173•Ohio Administrative Code 173 — Department of Aging
Ohio Administrative Code 173 — Department of Aging
agency-173Ohio Adm.Code 173Regulation
Chapter 173-1 General Provisions
Ohio Adm.Code 173-1-01 Public meetings, public hearings, and public comments.
Any person may learn the time and place of any public meeting held by the Ohio department of aging (ODA) and any public comment period and public hearing on ODA administrative rules by any of the following methods:
(A) View the notice on https://aging.ohio.gov/news-and-events for public meetings or https://aging.ohio.gov/rule-development for rules.
(B) Subscribe to receive email notices of news and events for public meetings or rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/subscribe.
(C) Call 1-800-266-4346 or 1-614-466-5500.
Last updated November 1, 2022 at 12:22 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-2 Area Agency on Aging (AAA)
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-01 AAAs: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs planning and service area designations and changes to designations; an intrastate funding formula; AGE's area agency on aging designations and changes to designations; area plans; monitoring and corrective actions; and withdrawal of an AAA designation.
(B) Definitions for this chapter and Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code:
"AAA-provider agreement" (agreement) means a contract or grant agreement between an AAA and a provider for the provision of services to consumers.
"Activities of daily living" (ADLs) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a provider hiring persons to provide services to consumers.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) means an entity that AGE designates as an area agency on aging under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.19.
"Assessment" means a gathering of information about a person's strengths, problems, financial resources, and care needs in the following major functional areas: physical health, use of medical care, ADLs, IADLs, mental and social functioning, physical environment, and use of services and supports.
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Caregiver" and "family caregiver" have the same meaning as "family caregiver" in 42 U.S.C. 3022.
"Case management" has the same meaning as "case management service" in 42 U.S.C. 3002.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (which may include written testing) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the consumer to be served.
"Congregate dining project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
"Congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
"Consumer" means, for the purposes of services paid for, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, any person sixty years of age or older, unless a different age is required by a state or federal law.
"Contract" has the same meaning as "AAA-provider agreement," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Coordination" means the development and implementation of an integrated service delivery system to ensure appropriate care, service levels, and continuity for consumers. This includes integration with other federal, state, and local programs and services to promote synchronization of planning, policy development, priority setting, and evaluation of activities related to the objectives of the Older Americans Act without, to the extent possible, duplicating services and/or compromising the consumer's goals and objectives.
"Day" means a twenty-four-hour period beginning and ending at midnight.
"Dietary Guidelines for Americans" means the version of the dietary guidelines in effect on a day of service as published by the United States departments of agriculture and health and human services on https://www.dietaryguidelines.gov/.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code or an unencumbered license from another state with compact privilege under section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Greatest economic need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Greatest social need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Groceries" mean foods for a household to eat, such as breads and cereals; fruits and vegetables; meats, fish, and poultry; and dairy products.
"Grocery store" has the same meaning as "retail food establishment" in rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"Home-delivered meals project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
"Incident" means an event that is inconsistent with the routine care or routine provision of services to a consumer. An incident may involve a consumer, caregiver (to the extent it impacts a consumer), provider, provider's staff or facility, another facility, an AAA's staff, AGE's staff, or other administrative authorities. Examples of an incident are abuse, neglect, abandonment, an accident, or an unusual situation resulting in an injury to a person or damage to the person's property or equipment.
"Instrumental activities of daily living" (IADLs) means preparing meals, shopping for personal items, medication management, managing money, using the telephone, doing heavy housework, doing light housework, and the ability to get and use available transportation without assistance.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code. "Licensed healthcare professional" also includes an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Licensed practical nurse" also includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Limited basis" in context of a Title III-E supplemental service means the extent to which a service compliments a family caregiver's care. "Limited basis" means that the services are not universally available or provided continuously. Services are typically provided to address a specific, temporary need or gap in the caregiving situation.
"Nutrition project" means a congregate dining project, home-delivered meals project, or a congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(b), a nutrition project also considers the availability of resources and the community's need for nutrition services described in state and area plans.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Older Americans Act funds" means the federal funds awarded to AGE through Title III of the Older Americans Act (42 U.S.C. Chapter 35, Subchapter III) and any state or local funds used to match those federal funds, regardless of whether the local funds are public or private funds. For the purposes of this chapter and Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code, "Older Americans Act funds" does not mean funds for an ombudsman program.
"Older Americans Act nutrition program" means the program created under 42 U.S.C. 3030d-21 to 3030g-23 (2020).
"Older relative caregiver" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3030s.
"Participant-directed provider " means a provider (e.g., relative, friend, neighbor, or other person) a consumer hired and directs to provide services to the consumer.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Planning and service area" (PSA) means a multi-county region that AGE designates as a planning and service area under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.13.
"Provider" means a person or entity entering into an AAA-provider agreement with an AAA to provide services to consumers. The three categories of providers are agency providers, self-employed providers, and participant-directed providers.
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" also includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Restaurant" has the same meaning as "food service operation" in rule 3717-1-0 1 of the Administrative Code.
"RFP" means "request for proposal."
"Rural area" means any area not designated as urban by the United States census bureau.
"Self-employed provider" means a provider who provides services to consumers and who does not hire, or contract with, other persons to provide those services.
"Shelf-stable meal" means a meal that is non-perishable, ready-to-eat, stored at room temperature, and eaten without heating.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor that identifies only that consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. A consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver or instructor offers their unique identifier as an attestation that a provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service or as an authorization for a plan or agreement.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-05
(A) For purposes of determining an individual's nursing-facility (NF) based level of care, the following definitions apply unless a term is otherwise defined in a specific rule:
(1) "Activity of daily living (ADL)" means a personal or self-care task that enables an individual to meet basic life needs. "ADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Bathing" means the ability of an individual to cleanse one's body by showering, tub, or sponge bath, or any other generally accepted method.
(b) "Dressing" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to dress oneself and includes the following two components:
(i) Putting on and taking off an item of clothing or prosthesis; and
(ii) Fastening and unfastening an item of clothing or prosthesis.
(c) "Eating" means the ability of an individual to feed oneself. Eating includes the processes of getting food into one's mouth, chewing, and swallowing, or the ability to use and self-manage a feeding tube.
(d) "Grooming" means the ability of an individual to care for one's appearance and includes the following three components:
(i) Oral hygiene;
(ii) Hair care; and
(iii) Nail care.
(e) "Mobility" means the ability of an individual to use fine and gross motor skills to reposition or move oneself from place to place and includes the following three components:
(i) "Bed mobility" means the ability of an individual to move to or from a lying position, turn from side to side, or otherwise position the body while in bed or alternative sleep furniture;
(ii) "Locomotion" means the ability of an individual to move between locations by ambulation or by other means; and
(iii) "Transfer" means the ability of an individual to move between surfaces, including but not limited to, to and from a bed, chair, wheelchair, or standing position.
(f) "Toileting" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to eliminate and dispose of bodily waste and includes the following four components:
(i) Using a commode, bedpan, or urinal;
(ii) Changing incontinence supplies or feminine hygiene products;
(iii) Cleansing self; and
(iv) Managing an ostomy or catheter.
(2) "Adverse level of care determination" means a determination that an individual does not meet the criteria for a specific level of care.
(3) "Alternative form" means a form that is used in place of and contains all of the data elements of, the ODM 03697, "Level of Care Assessment" to request a level of care determination from the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee.
(4) "Assistance" means the hands-on provision of help in the initiation or completion of a task.
(5) "Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(6) "Current diagnoses" means a written medical determination by the individual's attending physician, whose scope of practice includes diagnosis, listing those diagnosed conditions that currently impact the individual's health and functional abilities.
(7) "Delayed in-person visit" means an in-person visit that occurs within a specified period of time after a desk review has been conducted that includes the elements of a long-term care consultation, in accordance with Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code, for the purposes of exploring home and community-based services (HCBS) options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate.
(8) "Desk review" means a level of care determination process that is not conducted in person.
(9) "Developmental disabilities level of care" means the level of care as described in rule 5123-8-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "ICF-IID" means an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Immediate need" means an individual has a need that may result in substantial harm or decline in functioning if waiver services and supports are not received within thirty calendar days.
(12) "In-person" means a level of care assessment and determination process conducted in the physical presence of the individual for the purposes of exploring nursing facility services or HCBS options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate, that is not conducted by a desk review only.
(13) "Individual" means a medicaid recipient or person applying for medicaid eligibility.
(14) "Instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)" means the ability of an individual to complete community living skills. "IADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Community access" means the ability of an individual to use available community services and supports to meet one's needs and includes the following three components:
(i) "Accessing transportation" means the ability to get and use transportation.
(ii) "Handling finances" means the ability of an individual to manage one's money. Handling finances includes all of the following:
(a) Knowing where money is;
(b) Knowing how to get money;
(c) Paying bills; and
(d) Knowing how to get and use benefits and services, including but not limited to:
(i) Health benefits and insurance;
(ii) Social benefits; and
(iii) Home utilities.
(iii) "Telephoning" means the ability to make and answer telephone calls or use technology to connect to community services and supports.
(b) "Environmental management" means the ability of an individual to maintain the living arrangement in a manner that ensures the health and safety of the individual and includes the following three components:
(i) "Heavy chores" means the ability to move heavy furniture and appliances for cleaning, turn mattresses, and wash windows and walls; and
(ii) "House cleaning" means the ability to make beds, clean the bathroom, sweep and mop floors, dust, clean and store dishes, pick up clutter, and take out trash;
(iii) "Yard work and maintenance" means the ability to care for the lawn, rake leaves, shovel snow, complete minor home repairs, and paint.
(c) "Meal preparation" means the ability of an individual to prepare or cook food for oneself.
(d) "Personal laundry" means the ability of an individual to wash and dry one's clothing and household items by machine or by hand.
(e) "Shopping" means the ability to obtain or purchase one's necessary items. Necessary items include, but are not limited to, groceries, clothing, and household items. Shopping does not include handling finances or accessing transportation.
(15) "Less than twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the presence of another person, or the presence of a remote monitoring device that does not need the individual to initiate a response, during a portion of a twenty-four hour period of time.
(16) "Level of care determination" means an assessment and evaluation by ODM or its designee of an individual's physical, mental, social, and emotional status, using the processes described in rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code, to compare the criteria for all of the possible levels of care as described in rules 5160-3-06 to 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, and make a decision about whether an individual meets the criteria for a level of care.
(17) "Level of care validation" means the verification process for ODM or its designee that includes verifying the preadmission screening and resident review criteria have been met for an individual as well as reviewing and entering an individual's current level of care in the electronic records that are maintained by ODM.
(18) "Long-term services and supports" means institutional or community-based medical, health, psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care services that may be provided to medicaid-eligible individuals.
(19) "Medication administration" means the ability of an individual to prepare and self-administer all forms of over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription medication. Intravenous medication administration will be considered a skilled nursing service for the purposes of determining NF-based level of care, OTC and all other self-administered prescription medication will not be considered a skilled nursing service.
(20) "Need" means the inability of an individual to complete a necessary and applicable task independently, safely, and consistently. An individual does not have a need when:
(a) The individual is not willing to complete a task or does not have the choice to complete a task.
(b) The task can be completed with the use of available assistive devices and accommodations.
(21) "Nursing facility (NF)" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code. A facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of health is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification and will be treated as a NF for the purposes of this rule.
(22) "NF-based level of care" means the intermediate and skilled levels of care, as described in rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.
(23) "NF-based level of care program" means a NF, a home and community-based services medicaid waiver that uses a NF-based level of care, or other medicaid program that uses a NF-based level of care.
(24) "PASRR" means the preadmission screening and resident review requirements mandated by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act and implemented in accordance with rules 5160-3-14, 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03, and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(25) "Physician" means a person licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or licensed in another state as defined by applicable law, to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(26) "Skilled nursing services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, provided by a licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of a registered nurse or by a registered nurse directly.
(27) "Skilled rehabilitation services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Title 47 of the Revised Code, provided directly by a licensed or other appropriately certified technical or professional health care personnel.
(28) "Supervision" means either of the following:
(a) Reminding an individual to perform or complete an activity; or
(b) Observing while an individual performs an activity to ensure the individual's health and safety.
(29) "Twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the continuous presence of another person throughout the course of the entire day and night during a twenty-four hour period of time.
(30) "Unstable medical condition" means clinical signs and symptoms are present in an individual and a physician has determined that:
(a) The individual's signs and symptoms need extensive monitoring and ongoing evaluation of the individual's status and care and there are supporting diagnostic or ancillary testing reports that justify the need for frequent monitoring or adjustment of the treatment regimen; and
(b) Changes in the individual's medical condition are uncontrollable or unpredictable and may need immediate interventions.
Last updated July 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4723-13-02
(A) A nursing task may be delegated to an unlicensed person only by a licensed nurse who shall delegate in accordance with this chapter.
(B) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent any person registered, certified, licensed, or otherwise legally authorized in this state under any law from engaging in the practice for which such person is registered, certified, licensed, or authorized.
"Otherwise legally authorized" may include, but is not limited to, authorization for medication administration pursuant to section 3313.713 of the Revised Code, DODD personnel authorized to perform tasks or activities pursuant to sections 5123.41 to 5123.47 of the Revised Code, and individuals authorized to administer medications or perform tasks pursuant to Title 47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an unlicensed person from assisting an individual who can safely self direct his or her own care, including, helping the individual with self-administration of medications in a facility where the substantial purpose of the setting is other than the provision of health care. An unlicensed person assisting with self-administration of medications may do only the following:
(1) Remind an individual when to take the medication and observe to ensure that the individual follows the directions on the container;
(2) Assist an individual in the self-administration of medication by taking the medication in its container from the area where it is stored and handing the container with the medication in it to the individual. If the individual is physically unable to open the container, the unlicensed person may open the container for the individual;
(3) Assist upon request by or with the consent of, a physically impaired but mentally alert individual, in removing oral or topical medication from the container and in taking or applying the medication. If an individual is physically unable to place a dose of medicine in the individual's mouth without spilling or dropping it, an unlicensed person may place the dose in another container and place that container to the mouth of the individual; or
(4) Assisting an individual with self-administration does not mean that an unlicensed person can administer medication to an individual, whether orally, by injection, or by any other route.
(D) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an unlicensed person from administering medication under the following circumstances:
(1) The giving of oral or the applying of topical medication in accordance with sections 5123.41 to 5123.47 of the Revised Code and in accordance with rules 5123-6-01 and 5123-6-07 of the Administrative Code;
(2) When medication is administered by an individual employed by a board of education, or a school charted by the state board of education, who has been designated according to section 3313.713 of the Revised Code to administer to a student a drug prescribed by an authorized prescriber; or
(3) In accordance with any other law or rule that authorizes an unlicensed person to administer medications.
Last updated February 1, 2022 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.1
The following are the requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Availability:
(1) The provider shall keep at least one congregate dining location in its nutrition project open for business to provide meals for at least one mealtime (i.e., a breakfast, lunch, or dinner) per day to consumers on five or more days per week, within a reasonable distance to older adult target populations. An AAA may obtain AGE's approval to enter into an AAA-provider agreement that allows fewer days per week or during a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency.
(2) The provider has flexibility to offer meals in different congregate dining locations on different days rather than have every congregate dining location open for at least five days per week.
(C) Carry-out meals: Older Americans Act Title III-C1 funds do not pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals (also known as "grab-and-go meals") provided at congregate dining locations unless all of the following apply:
(1) AGE approved an AAA's area plan or an amendment to the area plan to allow Title III C-1 funds to pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(i), subject to any limitations in the approved area plan or area plan amendment.
(2) The meals provided on a carry-out basis do not exceed the twenty-five per-cent limits in 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(ii).
(3) Each carry-out meal is provided to a consumer in one of the scenarios under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(iii).
(D) Emergency closings:
(1) The provider shall give those consumers enrolled in its congregate dining project reasonable notice, to the extent practicable, before a scheduled mealtime when a congregate dining location will be closed due to weather-related emergencies, loss of power, kitchen malfunctions, natural disasters, a state of emergency declared by the governor, or a federal public health emergency by using broadcast media, its website, telephone, or by any combination of the three.
(2) The provider shall distribute information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf to prepare for emergency closings.
(E) Quality assurance: Each year, the provider shall implement a plan to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the project's operations and services to ensure continuous improvement by reviewing the existing project and the changing needs or interests of consumers, staff, or volunteers.
(F) Meal verification:
(1) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of meal provision.
(c) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the meal.
(2) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each meal provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
Last updated November 3, 2025 at 7:43 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.3
The following are the requirements to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project based in restaurants or grocery stores paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Eligibility verification: The provider shall use one of the following three methods to verify consumers' eligibility when complying with the eligibility-verification requirements in rule 173-4-03 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Identification card method (whether or not electronically verified): The provider that uses this method registers each consumer that it serves and issues the consumer an identification card. When the consumer visits the restaurant or grocery store, the consumer provides the identification card to the designated staff person at the restaurant or grocery store to receive a prepared meal. The provider may use an electronic verification system to validate the identification card.
(2) Voucher method (whether or not electronically verified): The provider that uses this method registers each consumer that it serves and issues the consumer a voucher. When the consumer visits the restaurant or grocery store, the consumer provides a voucher to the designated staff person at the restaurant or grocery store to receive a prepared meal. The provider may use an electronic verification system to validate the voucher.
(3) Handwritten verification method: Before providing a consumer the first meal, the provider that uses this method collects information required by the AAA and obtains a unique identifier from the consumer.
(C) Consumer contributions: The provider shall use one of the following two methods for soliciting consumer contributions when complying with the consumer-contribution requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code:
(1) The provider that uses the consumer identification method in paragraph (B)(1) or (B)(3) of this rule solicits the consumer to voluntarily contribute to the cost of the meals when the provider provides the meals.
(2) The provider that uses the method in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule solicits the consumer to voluntarily contribute to the cost of the meals when the provider provides the vouchers.
(D) Emergency closings: The provider shall distribute information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf.
(E) Quality assurance: The provider shall elicit consumer's comments on dining environments, food appearance, type of food, food temperatures, and staff professionalism.
(F) Meal verification:
(1) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of meal provision.
(c) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the meal.
(2) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each meal provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
Last updated November 8, 2023 at 8:20 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3717-1-01
[Comment: For publication dates of the Code of Federal Regulations (C.F.R.) referenced in this rule, see paragraph (B)(15)(b) of rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.]
(A) Chapter 3717-1 of the Administrative Code will also be known as "The State of Ohio Uniform Food Safety Code."
(B) Definitions for the purposes of Chapter 3717-1 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Additive.
(a) "Color additive" has the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, section 201(t) (as amended on December 29, 2022) and 21 C.F.R. 70.3 (f).
(b) "Food additive" has the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, section 201(s) (as amended on December 29, 2022) and 21 C.F.R. 170.3 (e)(1).
(2) "Adulterated" has the meaning stated in section 3715.59 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Approved" means acceptable to the appropriate regulatory authority based on a determination of conformity with principles, practices, and generally recognized standards that protect public health.
(4) "Approved source" means a food is from:
(a) A processor that is inspected by a federal food safety regulatory agency or equivalent, the Ohio department of agriculture under Chapter 3715., 911., 913., 915., 917., 918. whether mandatory or voluntary, or 925. of the Revised Code, or other recognized food regulatory agency of another state responsible for food safety; or
(b) A cottage food production operation as defined in division (A) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or an exempt processor of tree syrup, honey, sorghum, apple syrup, or apple butter as specified in division (A) of section 3715.021 of the Revised Code; and that is in compliance with the provisions of Chapter 3715. of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted thereunder; or
(c) Provided the processing is not subject to regulations as stated in paragraphs (B)(4)(a) and (B)(4)(b) of this rule, a food service operation or retail food establishment as defined and licensed in accordance with Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code.
(d) Except for mushrooms and sprouts, the term "approved source" is not applicable to fresh unprocessed fruits and vegetables.
(5) "ANSI" means the American national standards institute.
(6) "Asymptomatic" means without obvious symptoms; not showing or producing indications of a disease or other medical condition, such as an individual infected with a pathogen but not exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, or jaundice. It includes not showing symptoms because symptoms have resolved or subsided.
(7) "aw" means water activity, which is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature.
(8) "Balut" means an embryo inside a fertile egg that has been incubated for a period sufficient for the embryo to reach a specific stage of development after which it is removed from incubation before hatching.
(9) "Beverage" means a liquid for drinking, including water.
(10) "Board of health" means the board of health of any city or general health district, or the authority having the duties of a board of health as authorized by section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Bottled drinking water" means water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human consumption, including bottled mineral water.
(12) "Bulk water machine" means a self-service device used for the filling of containers with water. The device includes a water treatment process which is not replenished after each use and does not need prior payment by the user for activation of the machine.
(13) "Casing" means a tubular container for sausage products made of either natural or artificial (synthetic) material.
(14) "Certification number" means the unique identification number issued by the shellfish control authority to each dealer for each location.
(15) "C.F.R." means Code of Federal Regulations which is the compilation of the general and permanent rules published in the federal register by the executive departments and agencies of the federal government which:
(a) Is published annually by the United States government printing office;
(b) Contains FDA rules in 21 C.F.R. (as amended on March 21, 2023), USDA rules in 7 C.F.R. and 9 C.F.R. (as amended on January 1, 2018), EPA rules in 40 C.F.R. (as amended on March 20, 2023), and wildlife and fisheries rules in 50 C.F.R. (as amended on March 16, 2023); and
(c) Citations in this chapter to the C.F.R. refer sequentially to the title, part, and section numbers, such as 40 C.F.R. 180.194 refers to Title 40, Part 180, Section 194.
(16) "CIP" means cleaned in place by the circulation or flowing by mechanical means through a piping system of a detergent solution, water rinse, and sanitizing solution onto or over equipment surfaces that are to be cleaned, such as the method used, in part, to clean and sanitize a frozen dessert machine. "CIP" does not include the cleaning of equipment such as band saws, slicers, or mixers that are subjected to in-place manual cleaning without the use of a CIP system.
(17) "Commingle" means the act of combining different lots of shellfish.
(18) "Comminuted":
(a) Means reduced in size by methods including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing; and
(b) Includes fish or meat products that are reduced in size and restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, and sausage; and a mixture of two or more types of meat that have been reduced in size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more meats.
(19) "Conditional employee" means a potential food employee to whom a job offer is made, conditional on responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations designed to identify potential food employees who may be suffering from a disease that can be transmitted through food and done in compliance with Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
(20) "Confirmed disease outbreak" means a foodborne disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens identifies a causative agent and epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness.
(21) "Consumer" means a person who is a member of the public, takes possession of food, is not functioning in the capacity of an operator of a food service operation, retail food establishment or food processing plant, and does not offer the food for resale.
(22) "Corrosion-resistant material" means a material that maintains acceptable surface cleanability characteristics under prolonged influence of the food to be contacted, the normal use of cleaning compounds and sanitizing solutions, and other conditions of the use environment.
(23) "Cottage food production operation" means a person who, in the person's home, produces food items that are not potentially hazardous foods, including bakery products, jams, jellies, candy, fruit butter, and similar products specified in rules adopted pursuant to section 3715.025 of the Revised Code.
(24) "Counter-mounted equipment" means equipment that is not portable and is designed to be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
(25) "Critical control point" means a point or procedure in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable health risk.
(26) "Critical limit" means the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter is to be controlled at a critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety hazard may occur.
(27) "Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. The term "leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce, romaine lettuce, leaf lettuce, butter lettuce, baby leaf lettuce (i.e., immature lettuce or leafy greens), escarole, endive, spring mix, spinach, cabbage, kale, arugula and chard. The term "leafy greens" does not include herbs such as cilantro or parsley.
(28) "Dealer" means a person who is authorized by a shellfish control authority for the activities of shellstock shipper, shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or depuration processor of molluscan shellfish according to the provisions of the national shellfish sanitation program.
(29) "Disclosure" means a written statement that clearly identifies the animal-derived foods which are, or can be ordered, raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens, or items that contain an ingredient that is raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
(30) "Drinking water" means water that meets criteria as specified in 40 C.F.R. 141. "Drinking water" is traditionally known as "potable water." "Drinking water" includes the term "water" except where the term used connotes that the water is not potable, such as "boiler water," "mop water," "rainwater," "wastewater," and "nondrinking" water.
(31) "Dry storage area" means a room or area designated for the storage of packaged or containerized bulk food that is not time/temperature controlled for safety and dry goods such as single-service items.
(32) "Easily cleanable":
(a) Means a characteristic of a surface that:
(i) Allows effective removal of soil by normal cleaning methods;
(ii) Is dependent on the material, design, construction, and installation of the surface; and
(iii) Varies with the likelihood of the surface's role in introducing pathogenic or toxigenic agents or other contaminants into food based on the surface's approved placement, purpose, and use.
(b) Includes a tiered application of the criteria that qualify the surface as easily cleanable as specified under paragraph (B)(32)(a) of this rule to different situations in which varying degrees of cleanability are needed such as:
(i) The appropriateness of stainless steel for a food preparation surface as opposed to the lack of need for stainless steel to be used for floors or for tables used for consumer dining; or
(ii) The need for a different degree of cleanability for a utilitarian attachment or accessory in the kitchen as opposed to a decorative attachment or accessory in the consumer dining area.
(33) "Easily movable" means:
(a) Portable; mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or provided with a mechanical means to safely tilt a unit of equipment for cleaning; and
(b) Having no utility connection, a utility connection that disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection line of sufficient length to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of the equipment and adjacent area.
(34) "Egg" means the shell egg of avian species such as chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratites or turkey. It does not include a balut; the egg of reptile species such as alligator; or an egg product.
(35) "Egg product" means all, or a portion of, the contents found inside eggs separated from the shell and pasteurized in a food processing plant, with or without added ingredients, intended for human consumption, such as dried, frozen or liquid eggs. It does not include food which contains eggs only in a relatively small proportion such as cake mixes.
(36) "Employee" means the license holder, person in charge, food employee, person having supervisory or management duties, person on the payroll, family member, volunteer, person performing work under contractual agreement, or other person working in a food service operation or retail food establishment.
(37) "EPA" means the United States environmental protection agency.
(38) "Equipment" means an article that is used in the operation of a food service operation or retail food establishment such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice maker, meat block, mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, scale, sink, slicer, stove, table, temperature measuring device for ambient air, vending machine, bulk water machine, or warewashing machine. "Equipment" does not include apparatuses used for handling or storing large quantities of packaged foods that are received from a supplier in a cased or overwrapped lot, such as hand trucks, forklifts, dollies, pallets, racks, or skids.
(39) "Exclude" means to prevent a person from working as an employee in a food service operation or retail food establishment, or entering a food service operation or retail food establishment as an employee.
(40) "FDA" means the United States food and drug administration.
(41) "Fish":
(a) Means fresh or saltwater finfish, crustaceans and other forms of aquatic life (including alligator, frog, aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and the roe of such animals) other than birds or mammals, and all mollusks, if such animal life is intended for human consumption.
(b) Includes an edible human food product derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish that have been processed in any manner.
(42) "Food" means a raw, cooked, or processed edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption, or chewing gum.
(43) "Foodborne disease outbreak" means the occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a common food.
(44) "Food-contact surface" means:
(a) A surface of equipment or a utensil with which food normally comes into contact; or
(b) A surface of equipment or a utensil from which food may drain, drip, or splash:
(i) Into a food; or
(ii) Onto a surface normally in contact with food.
(45) "Food employee" means an individual working with unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food-contact surfaces.
(46) "Food monitoring device" means a digital pH meter, aw meter, or other device such as a relative humidity meter or wet bulb thermometer, that are used to ensure a critical limit is being met as indicated in a HACCP plan or a variance as specified in paragraph (B)(129) of this rule.
(47) "Food processing plant" means a commercial business or that portion of a business that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human consumption, and is under regulation of the federal government or the Ohio department of agriculture under Chapter 3715., 911., 913., 915., 917., 918., or 925. of the Revised Code.
(48) "Food service operation":
(a) Means a place, location, site, or separate area where food intended to be served in individual portions is prepared or served for a charge or mandatory donation. As used in this definition, "served" means a response made to an order for one or more individual portions of food in a form that is edible without washing, cooking, or additional preparation and "prepared" means any action that affects a food other than receiving or maintaining it at the temperature at which it was received;
(b) Includes a catering food service operation, a food delivery sales operation, a mobile food service operation, temporary food service operation, seasonal food service operation, and a vending machine location; and
(c) Does not include those operations exempted in section 3717.42 of the Revised Code.
(49) "Food service operation sales volume" means the annual sales, minus sales tax, for individual portions of food that are prepared or served by the operation for on premise consumption or individual portions of food served for carry-out or delivery and that are edible without further washing, cooking, or additional preparation.
(50) "Game animal":
(a) Means an animal, the products of which are food, that is not classified as cattle, sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule or other equine in 9 C.F.R. 301.2, or as poultry, or fish.
(b) Includes mammals such as reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, bison, rabbit, squirrel, opossum, raccoon, nutria, or muskrat, and nonaquatic reptiles such as land snakes.
(c) Does not include ratites.
(51) "General use pesticide" means a pesticide that is not classified as a restricted use pesticide under the federal act which, except as provided to avoid immediate harm, may only be applied in a food service operation or retail food establishment under the direct supervision of a commercial applicator licensed as specified under section 921.06 of the Revised Code.
(52) "Grade A standards" means the requirements of the United States public health service/FDA "Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance" with which certain fluid and dry milk and milk products comply.
(53) "HACCP plan" means a written document that delineates the formal procedures for following the hazard analysis and critical control point (HACCP) principles developed by the national advisory committee on microbiological criteria for foods.
(54) "Handwashing sink" means a lavatory, a basin or vessel for washing, a wash basin, or a plumbing fixture especially placed for use in personal hygiene and designed for the washing of the hands. The term includes an automatic handwashing facility.
(55) "Hazard" means a biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk.
(56) "Hermetically sealed container" means a container that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms and, in the case of low acid canned foods, to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing.
(57) "Highly susceptible population" means persons who are more likely than other people in the general population to experience foodborne disease because they are:
(a) Immunocompromised; preschool age children, or older adults; and
(b) Obtaining food at a facility that provides services such as custodial care, health care, or assisted living, such as a child or adult day care center, kidney dialysis center, hospital or nursing home, or nutritional or socialization services such as a senior center.
(58) "Injected" means manipulating meat to which a solution has been introduced into its interior by processes that are referred to as "injecting," "pump marinating," or "stitch pumping."
(59) "In-shell product" means non-living, processed shellfish with one or both shells present.
(60) "Intact meat" means a cut of whole muscle(s) meat that has not undergone comminution, mechanical tenderization, vacuum tumbling with solutions, reconstruction, cubing, or pounding.
(61) "Juice" means the aqueous liquid expressed or extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purees of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrates of such liquid or puree. Juice includes juice as a whole beverage, an ingredient of a beverage and a puree as an ingredient of a beverage.
(62) "Kitchenware" means food preparation and storage utensils.
(63) "Law" means applicable local, state, and federal statutes, regulations, and ordinances.
(64) "License" means the document issued by the licensor that authorizes a person to operate a food service operation or retail food establishment.
(65) "License holder" means the entity that:
(a) Is legally responsible for the operation of the food service operation or retail food establishment such as the owner, the owner's agent, or other person; and
(b) Possesses a valid license to operate a food service operation or retail food establishment.
(66) "Licensor" means one of the following:
(a) A board of health or the authority having the duties of a board of health approved under section 3717.11 of the Revised Code;
(b) The director of agriculture acting under section 3717.11 of the Revised Code or 3717.111 of the Revised Code with respect to licensing retail food establishments; or
(c) The director of health acting under section 3717.11 of the Revised Code or 3717.111 of the Revised Code with respect to licensing food service operations.
(67) "Linens" means fabric items such as cloth hampers, cloth napkins, table cloths, wiping cloths, and work garments including cloth gloves.
(68) "Major food allergen" means:
(a) Milk, egg, fish (such as bass, flounder, cod, and including crustacean shellfish such as crab, lobster, or shrimp), tree nuts (such as almonds, pecans, or walnuts), wheat, peanuts, soybeans, and sesame; or
(b) A food ingredient that contains protein derived from a food, as specified in paragraph (B)(68)(a) of this rule.
(c) The term does not include:
(i) Any highly refined oil derived from a food specified in paragraph (B)(68)(a) of this rule and any ingredient derived from such highly refined oil; or
(ii) Any ingredient that is exempt under the petition or notification process specified in the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-282).
(69) "Meat" means the flesh of animals used as food including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or goats and other edible animals, except fish and poultry.
(70) "Mechanically tenderized" means manipulating meat by piercing with a set of needles, pins, blades, or any mechanical device, which breaks up muscle fiber and tough connective tissue, to increase tenderness. This includes injection, scoring, and processes which may be referred to as "blade tenderizing," "jaccarding," "pinning," or "needling."
(71) "mg/L" means milligrams per liter, which is the metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).
(72) "Micro market" means a retail food establishment that offers for sale food items that are allowable in a risk level one operation in displays not more than two hundred and fifty linear feet. All commercially prepackaged refrigerated or frozen time/temperature controlled for safety foods are to be stored in equipment that complies with paragraph (H) of rule 3717-1-03.4, paragraphs (MM) and (NN) of rule 3717-1-04.1 of the Administrative Code.
(73) "Mobile food service operation" means a food service operation that is operated from a movable vehicle, portable structure, or watercraft and that routinely changes location, except that if the operation remains at any one location for more than forty consecutive days, the operation is no longer a mobile food service operation. "Mobile food service operation" includes a food service operation that does not remain at any one location for more than forty consecutive days and serves, in a manner consistent with division (F) of section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.
(74) "Mobile retail food establishment" means a retail food establishment that is operated from a movable vehicle or other portable structure, and that routinely changes location, except that if the establishment operates from any one location for more than forty consecutive days, the establishment is no longer a mobile retail food establishment.
(75) "Molluscan shellfish" means any edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions thereof, except when the scallop product consists only of the shucked adductor muscle. Molluscan shellfish includes shellstock, shucked shellfish, and in-shell products.
(76) "Non-continuous cooking":
(a) Means the cooking of food in a food service operation or retail food establishment using a process in which the initial heating of the food is intentionally halted so that it may be cooled and held for complete cooking at a later time prior to sale or service.
(b) Does not include cooking procedures that only involve temporarily interrupting or slowing an otherwise continuous cooking process.
(77) "NSF" means the national sanitation foundation or NSF international which contains standard 61, "Drinking Water System Components - Health Effects" (2020).
(78) "Packaged":
(a) Means bottled, canned, cartoned, bagged, or wrapped, whether packaged in a food service operation, retail food establishment, or a food processing plant; and
(b) Does not include wrapped or placed in a carry-out container to protect the food during service or delivery to the consumer, by a food employee, upon consumer request.
(79) "Person" means an association, corporation, individual, partnership, other legal entity, government, or governmental subdivision or agency.
(80) "Person in charge" means the individual present at a food service operation or retail food establishment who is responsible for the operation at any given time .
(81) "Personal care items" means items or substances that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of contamination and are used to maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene, or appearance. Personal care items include items such as medicines; first aid supplies; and other items such as cosmetics, and toiletries such as toothpaste and mouthwash.
(82) "pH" is the symbol for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution. Values between zero and seven indicate acidity and values between seven and fourteen indicate alkalinity. The value for pure distilled water is seven, which is considered neutral.
(83) "Physical facilities" means the structure and interior surfaces of a food service operation or retail food establishment including accessories such as soap and towel dispensers and attachments such as light fixtures and heating or air conditioning system vents.
(84) "Plumbing fixture" means a receptacle or device that:
(a) Is permanently or temporarily connected to the water distribution system of the premises and demands a supply of water from the system; or
(b) Discharges used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or indirectly to the drainage system of the premises.
(85) "Plumbing system" means the water supply and distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil, waste, and vent pipes; sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including their respective connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises; and water-treating equipment.
(86) "Poisonous or toxic materials" means substances that are not intended for ingestion and are included in four categories:
(a) Cleaners and sanitizers, which include cleaning and sanitizing agents and agents such as caustics, acids, drying agents, polishes, and other chemicals;
(b) Pesticides, except sanitizers, which include substances such as insecticides and rodenticides;
(c) Substances necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment such as nonfood grade lubricants and personal care items that may be deleterious to health; and
(d) Substances that are not necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for retail sale, such as petroleum products and paints.
(87) "Potentially hazardous food" means time/temperature controlled for safety food as defined in paragraph (B)(125) of this rule.
(88) "Poultry" means:
(a) Any domesticated bird (chickens, ducks, geese, guineas, ratites, squabs or turkeys), whether live or dead, as defined in 9 C.F.R. 381.1; and
(b) Any migratory waterfowl or game bird, pheasant, partridge, quail, grouse, or pigeon, whether live or dead, as defined in 9 C.F.R. 362.1.
(89) "Premises" means:
(a) The physical facility, its contents, and the contiguous land or property under the control of the license holder; or
(b) The physical facility, its contents, and the land or property not described under paragraph (B)(89)(a) of this rule if its facilities and contents are under the control of the license holder and may impact food service operation or retail food establishment personnel, facilities, or operations, and a food service operation or retail food establishment is only one component of a larger operation such as a health care facility, hotel, motel, school, recreational camp, or prison.
(90) "Primal cut" means a basic major cut into which carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a beef round, pork loin, lamb flank, or veal breast.
(91) "Public water system" has the meaning stated in Chapter 3745-81 of the Administrative Code.
(92) "Ratite" means a flightless bird such as an emu, ostrich, or rhea.
(93) "Ready-to-eat food":
(a) Means food that:
(i) Is in a form that is edible without additional preparation to achieve food safety, as specified under one of the following paragraph (A)(1) or (A)(4), (B), or (F) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code or as specified in paragraph (A)(2) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code; or
(ii) Is a raw or partially cooked animal food and the consumer is advised as specified in paragraphs (A)(3)(a) and (A)(3)(b) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code; or
(iii) Is prepared in accordance with a variance that is granted as specified in paragraph (A)(3)(c) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code; and
(iv) May receive additional preparation for palatability or aesthetic, epicurean, gastronomic, or culinary purposes.
(b) Includes:
(i) Raw animal food that is cooked as specified under paragraph (A) or (B) or frozen as specified under paragraph (F) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code;
(ii) Raw, fruits and vegetables that are washed as specified under paragraph (G) of rule 3717-1-03.2 of the Administrative Code;
(iii) Plant foods that are cooked for hot holding, as specified under paragraph (C) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code;
(iv) All time/temperature controlled for safety food that is cooked to the temperature and time requirements for the specific food under paragraphs (A) to (D) of rule 3717-1-03.3 of the Administrative Code and cooled as specified under paragraph (D) of rule 3717-1-03.4 of the Administrative Code;
(v) Plant food for which further washing, cooking, or other processing is not necessary for food safety, and from which rinds, peels, husks, or shells, if naturally present are removed;
(vi) Substances derived from plants such as spices, seasonings, and sugar;
(vii) A bakery item such as bread, cakes, pies, fillings, or icing for which further cooking is not necessary for food safety;
(viii) The following products that are produced in accordance with USDA guidelines and that have received a lethality treatment for pathogens: dry fermented sausages, such as dry salami or pepperoni; salt-cured meat and poultry products, such as prosciutto ham, country cured ham, and Parma ham; and dried meat and poultry products, such as jerky or beef sticks; and
(ix) Foods manufactured as specified in 21 C.F.R. 113, thermally processed low-acid foods packaged in hermetically sealed containers.
(c) Does not include:
(i) Commercially packaged food that bears a manufacturer's cooking instructions; and
(ii) Food for which the manufacturer has provided information that it has not been processed to control pathogens.
(94) "Reduced oxygen packaging":
(a) Means the reduction of the amount of oxygen in a package by removing oxygen; displacing oxygen and replacing it with another gas or combination of gases; or otherwise controlling the oxygen content to a level below that normally found in the surrounding atmosphere, which is approximately twenty-one per cent at sea level; and
(b) Is a process as specified in paragraph (B)(94)(a) of this rule that involves a food for which the hazards Clostridium botulinum or Listeria monocytogenes warrant control in the final packaged form.
(c) Includes:
(i) Vacuum packaging, in which air is removed from a package of food and the package is hermetically sealed so that a vacuum remains inside the package;
(ii) Modified atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that its composition is different from air but the atmosphere may change over time due to the permeability of the packaging material or the respiration of the food. Modified atmosphere packaging includes: reduction in the proportion of oxygen, total replacement of oxygen, or an increase in the proportion of other gases such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen;
(iii) Controlled atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that until the package is opened, its composition is different from air, and continuous control of that atmosphere is maintained, such as by using oxygen scavengers or a combination of total replacement of oxygen, nonrespiring food, and impermeable packaging material;
(iv) Cook chill packaging, in which cooked food is hot filled into impermeable bags that are then sealed or crimped closed. The bagged food is rapidly chilled and refrigerated at temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens; or
(v) Sous vide packaging, in which raw or partially cooked food is vacuum packaged in an impermeable bag, cooked in the bag, rapidly chilled, and refrigerated at temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens.
(95) "Refuse" means solid waste not carried by water through the sewage system.
(96) "Regulatory authority" means the local, state, or federal enforcement body or authorized representative having jurisdiction over the process or facility.
(97) "Reminder" means a written statement concerning the health risk of consuming animal foods raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
(98) "Re-service" means the transfer of food that is unused and returned by a consumer after being served or sold and in the possession of the consumer, to another person.
(99) "Restrict" means to limit the activities of a food employee so that there is no risk of transmitting a disease that is transmissible through food and the food employee does not work with exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, linens; or unwrapped single-service or single-use articles.
(100) "Restricted egg" means any check, dirty egg, incubator reject, inedible, leaker, or loss as defined in 9 C.F.R. 590.
(101) "Restricted use pesticide" means any pesticide or pesticide use classified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency for use only by a certified applicator or by an individual working under the direct supervision of a certified applicator.
(102) "Retail food establishment" means a premises or part of a premises where food is stored, processed, prepared, manufactured, or otherwise held or handled for retail sale. Except when expressly provided otherwise, retail food establishment includes a mobile retail food establishment, seasonal retail food establishment and temporary retail food establishment. It does not include those operations exempted in section 3717.22 of the Revised Code. As used in this definition:
(a) "Retail" means the sale of food to a person who is the ultimate consumer of the food.
(b) "Prepared" means any action that affects a food, including receiving and maintaining it at the temperature at which it was received.
(103) "Retail food establishment sales volume" means the annual sales, minus sales tax, for food, that is sold in bulk or multiple portions by the establishment for off premise consumption that may need further washing, cooking, or additional preparation; or in individual portions that are not consumed on the premise and that either need further washing, cooking or additional preparation before consumption or are ingredient labeled for self service.
(104) "Risk" means the likelihood that an adverse health effect will occur within a population as a result of a hazard in a food.
(105) "Safe material" means:
(a) An article manufactured from or composed of materials that is not expected to result, directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food;
(b) An additive that is used as specified in section 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (as amended on August 14, 2018); or
(c) Other materials that are not additives and that are used in conformity with applicable regulations of the food and drug administration.
(106) "Sanitization" means the application of cumulative heat or chemicals on cleaned food-contact surfaces that, when evaluated for efficacy, is sufficient to yield a reduction of five logs, which is equal to a 99.999 per cent reduction, of representative disease microorganisms of public health importance.
(107) "Sealed" means free of cracks or other openings that allow the entry or passage of moisture.
(108) "Seasonal food service operation" means a food service operation, other than a mobile food service operation, that is operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.
(109) "Seasonal retail food establishment" means a retail food establishment, other than a mobile retail food establishment, that is operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.
(110) "Service animal" means an animal such as a guide dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained to provide assistance to an individual with a disability.
(111) "Servicing area" means an operating base location to which a mobile food service operation, mobile retail food establishment or transportation vehicle returns regularly for such things as vehicle and equipment cleaning, discharging liquid or solid wastes, refilling water tanks and ice bins, and boarding food.
(112) "Sewage" means liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may include liquids containing chemicals in solution.
(113) "Shellfish control authority" means a state, federal, foreign, tribal, or other government entity legally responsible for administering a program that includes certification of molluscan shellfish harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce.
(114) "Shellstock" means live molluscan shellfish in the shell.
(115) "Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli" or STEC means any E. coli capable of producing Shiga toxins (also called verocytotoxins). STEC infections can be asymptomatic or may result in a spectrum of illness ranging from mild non-bloody diarrhea, to hemorrhagic colitis (i.e., bloody diarrhea), to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS - a type of kidney failure). Examples of serotypes of STEC include : E. coli 0157:H7; E.coli 0157:NM; E.coli 026:H11; E. coli 0145:NM; E. coli 0103:H2; and E. coli 0111:NM. STEC are sometimes referred to as verocytotoxigenic E. coli (VTEC) or as Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC). EHEC are a subset of STEC which can cause hemorrhagic colitis or HUS.
(116) "Shucked shellfish" means molluscan shellfish that have both shells removed.
(117) "Single-service articles" means tableware, carry-out utensils, and other items such as bags, containers, placemats, stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers that are designed and constructed for one time, one person use after which they are intended for discard.
(118) "Single-use articles":
(a) Means utensils and bulk food containers designed and constructed to be used once and discarded; and
(b) Includes, but are not limited to, items such as wax paper, butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed aluminum food containers, jars, plastic tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle barrels, ketchup bottles, and number ten cans which do not meet the materials, durability, strength, and cleanability specifications under paragraph (A) of rule 3717-1-04 of the Administrative Code, and paragraphs (A) and (C) of rule 3717-1-04.1 of the Administrative Code for multiuse utensils.
(119) "Slacking" means the process of moderating the temperature of a food such as allowing a food to gradually increase from a temperature of minus ten degrees Fahrenheit (minus twenty-three degrees Celsius) to twenty-five degrees Fahrenheit (minus four degrees Celsius) in preparation for deep-fat frying or to facilitate even heat penetration during the cooking of previously block-frozen food such as shrimp.
(120) "Smooth" means:
(a) A food-contact surface having a surface free of pits and inclusions with a cleanability equal to or exceeding that of (one hundred grit) number three stainless steel;
(b) A nonfood-contact surface of equipment having a surface equal to that of commercial grade hot-rolled steel free of visible scale; or
(c) A floor, wall, or ceiling having an even or level surface with no roughness or projections that render it difficult to clean.
(121) "Tableware" means eating, drinking, and serving utensils for table use such as plates; flatware including forks, knives, and spoons; and hollowware including bowls, cups, serving dishes, and tumblers.
(122) "Temperature measuring device" means a thermometer, thermocouple, thermistor, or other device that indicates the temperature of food, air, or water.
(123) "Temporary food service operation" means a food service operation that is operated at an event for no more than five consecutive days, except when operated for more than five consecutive days under division (E)(2) of section 3717.43 of the Revised Code.
(124) "Temporary retail food establishment" means a retail food establishment that is operated at an event for not more than five consecutive days, except when operated for more than five consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.23 of the Revised Code.
(125) "Time/temperature controlled for safety food" or "TCS food" means a food that needs time/temperature control for safety to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation.
(a) TCS food includes:
(i) An animal food that is raw or heat-treated; a plant food that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed sprouts, cut melons, cut leafy greens, cut tomatoes or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation; and
(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (B)(125)(b)(iv) of this rule, a food that because of the interaction of its aw and pH values is designated as product assessment needed (PA) in table A or B of this rule.
Table A. Interaction of pH and aw for control of spores in food heat-treated to destroy vegetative cells and subsequently packaged.
| | pH 4.6 or less | pH greater than 4.6 to 5.6 | pH greater than 5.6 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | aw less than or equal to 0.92 | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | | aw greater than 0.92 to 0.95 | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | PA | | aw greater than 0.95 | non-TCS food | PA | PA |
Table B. Interaction of pH and aw for control of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat-treated or heat-treated but not packaged.
| | pH less than 4.2 | pH 4.2 to 4.6 | pH greater than 4.6 to 5.0 | pH greater than 5.0 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | aw less than 0.88 | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | | aw 0.88 to 0.90 | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | PA | | aw greater than 0.90 to 0.92 | non-TCS food | non-TCS food | PA | PA | | aw greater than 0.92 | non-TCS food | PA | PA | PA |
(b) TCS food does not include:
(i) An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an egg with shell intact that is not hard-boiled, but has been pasteurized to destroy all viable salmonellae;
(ii) A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under conditions of non-refrigerated storage and distribution;
(iii) A food that because of its pH or aw value, or interaction of aw and pH values, is designated as a non-TCS food in table A or B of paragraph (B)(125)(a) of this rule;
(iv) A food that is designated as product assessment needed (PA) in table A or B of paragraph (B)(125)(a) of this rule and has undergone a product assessment showing that the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that are reasonably likely to occur in that food is precluded due to:
(a) Intrinsic factors including added or natural characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants, acidulants, or nutrients,
(b) Extrinsic factors including environmental or operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf life and use, or temperature range of storage and use, or
(c) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or
(v) A food that does not support the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with either paragraph (B)(125)(b)(i), (B)(125)(b)(ii), (B)(125)(b)(iii), or (B)(125)(b)(iv) of this rule even though the food may contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
(126) "Tobacco product" has the meaning specified in Chapter 2927. of the Revised Code.
(127) "USDA" means the United States department of agriculture.
(128) "Utensil" means a food-contact implement or container used in the storage, preparation, transportation, dispensing, sale, or service of food, such as kitchenware or tableware that is multiuse, single-service, or single-use; gloves used in contact with food; temperature sensing probes of food temperature measuring devices; and probe-type price or identification tags used in contact with food.
(129) "Variance" means a written document issued by the Ohio department of agriculture or the Ohio department of health that authorizes a modification or waiver of one or more requirements of this chapter if, in the opinion of the Ohio department of agriculture or the Ohio department of health, a health hazard or nuisance will not result from the modification or waiver.
(130) "Vending machine" means a self-service device that automatically dispenses on the insertion of currency, token, card, key, by electronic transaction, or similar means a predetermined unit serving of food, either in bulk or in package, without having to be replenished after each use.
(131) "Vending machine location" means an area or room where one or more vending machines are installed and operated, except that if the machines within an area are separated by more than one hundred fifty feet, each area separated by that distance constitutes a separate vending machine location.
(132) "Warewashing" means the cleaning and sanitizing of utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment.
(133) "Whole-muscle, intact beef" means whole muscle beef that is not injected, mechanically tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and marinated, from which beef steaks may be cut.
Last updated September 5, 2024 at 11:02 AM
History
- Effective: September 5, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.2
The following are the requirements to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a home-delivered meals project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Delivery:
(1) Availability:
(a) Per-meal delivery:
(i) To a consumer who chooses to receive per-meal deliveries and needs meals on five or more days per week, the provider shall deliver at least one meal per day for five or more days per week.
(ii) To a consumer who chooses to receive per-meal deliveries, but does not need meals on five or more days per week, the provider shall deliver at least one meal per day on days that the consumer needs meals.
(b) Periodic delivery: The provider has flexibility to deliver meals to cover multiple mealtimes in one delivery to consumers who choose periodic deliveries.
(c) State of emergency: During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider has flexibility to, in one delivery, deliver meals to cover multiple mealtimes for consumers who received meals before the state of emergency (or federal public health emergency) by per-meal delivery or periodic delivery.
(2) Successful deliveries: The provider may deliver meals to the consumer's home only when the consumer or the consumer's caregiver is home, unless otherwise authorized by the AAA.
(3) Delivery method: 45 C.F.R. 1321.87 allows the provider to deliver meals by home delivery, pick-up, carry-out, drive-through, or similar methods.
(C) Emergency closings: The provider shall develop and implement emergency preparedness plans for emergency closings due to short-term weather-related emergencies, loss of power, kitchen malfunctions, natural disasters, a state of emergency declared by the governor (or a federal public health emergency), etc. that include both of the following:
(1) Providing timely notification of emergency situations to consumers.
(2) Distributing either of the following:
(a) Information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf.
(b) Shelf-stable meals to consumers for an emergency food shelf.
(D) Quality assurance: Each year, the provider shall implement a plan to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the project's operations and services to ensure continuous improvement by reviewing the existing project and the needs or interest of consumers, staff, or volunteers.
(E) Delivery verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal delivery that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Consumer's name.
(2) Delivery date.
(3) Number of meals delivered.
(4) A unique identifier of the consumer, the consumer's caregiver, or the delivery person to attest to the delivery.
(F) Health and wellness: 45 C.F.R. 1321.87 allows the provider to encourage consumers of home-delivered meals to participate in congregate dining and other health-and-wellness activities, as feasible, based on a person-centered approach and local availability.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-02 AAAs: planning and service areas.
(A) ODA publishes the list of PSA designations on its website. The existing PSA designations as of July 1, 2024 are retained unless changed through the process listed in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(B) ODA designates and make changes to designated PSAs according to 45 C.F.R. 1321.13 and section 173.011 of the Revised Code.
(C) Any person may submit an application to ODA requesting a change to one or more PSA designations, with supporting documentation addressing the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d), by emailing legal@age.ohio.gov and copying elderconnections@age.ohio.gov.
(D) ODA may initiate a change to one or more PSA designations by publishing a proposed order that includes consideration of the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d).
(E) ODA uses the following process on receipt of a complete application, or issuance of an ODA-proposed order, to change one or more PSA designations:
(1) Publish a notice of public hearing on ODA's website that includes instructions on ways to participate in the hearing, along with the ODA-proposed order or application, as applicable.
(2) Provide an email notice directly to affected AAAs, and interested parties who have subscribed to ODA's announcements on rules review that announces the publication of the public notice on ODA's website.
(3) Conduct a public hearing on the ODA-proposed order or application, as applicable, no fewer than thirty days after issuing the notice of public hearing.
(4) Prepare or revise the ODA-proposed order, as applicable, after considering all public testimony, then publish the proposed order or revised order on ODA's website.
(5) Comply with the adjudication hearing procedures in sections 119.05 to 119.09 of the Revised Code.
(6) Provide a notice of opportunity for hearing, with a proposed order that considers the factors in 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d) and any other relevant factor identified by ODA, to any applicant and each affected AAA.
(F) Any applicant or affected AAA may appeal an adverse ODA final order pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.17.
(G) ODA may issue a provisional designation of a PSA if circumstances exist in which a provisional designation is needed to maintain service to consumers and comply with the Older Americans Act. The following standards apply to a provisional designation:
(1) The ODA order of provisional designation includes consideration of the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d) and identifies the geographic boundaries of the provisional PSA.
(2) ODA may divide a PSA into one or more provisional PSAs.
(3) The provisional order remains in effect until ODA issues a final order of PSA designation, but not longer than one hundred eighty days, unless ODA extends the provisional order for an additional ninety days for good cause.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:17 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-03 AAAs: fiscal standards and intrastate funding formula (IFF).
(A) The IFF determines how AGE distributes the state's Title III and Title VII Older Americans Act funds to each PSA, unless federal or state laws instruct AGE to distribute the funds in another manner. The standards to prepare, develop, and publish the IFF are established by 45 C.F.R. 1321.49 and 42 U.S.C. 3025(a) and (d), using the best available data.
(B) AGE publishes a notice on AGE's website, along with the proposed IFF, and provides an announcement of the notice by e-mail to the AAAs and interested parties who have subscribed to AGE announcements on rules review to obtain public comment from older individuals, family caregivers, other appropriate agencies and organizations, and the general public.
(C) AGE conducts a review, update, and submission of the IFF for approval to the assistant secretary for aging through the state plan process, as required by 45 C.F.R. 1321.33.
(D) The appendix to this rule lists applicable fiscal standards for Older Americans Act funds.
View Appendix
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:04 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-04 AAAs: designation of and designation changes to area agencies.
(A) ODA publishes the list of AAA designations on its website. The existing AAA designations as of July 1, 2024 are retained unless changed through the process in this rule.
(B) ODA shall designate and change AAA designations in compliance with 45 C.F.R. 1321.19. All designated AAAs shall enter into an operations agreement with ODA.
(C) ODA may change an AAA's designation when ODA changes one or more PSA designations, the AAA voluntarily relinquishes a designation and ODA provides a written acceptance, ODA withdraws the AAA's designation pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.21 and rule 173-2-08 of the Administrative Code, or for any other permissible reason.
(D) ODA shall comply with the following standards for designation and designation changes to an AAA:
(1) Publish a public notice on ODA's website soliciting applications and input from interested parties, and provide an email notice directly to interested parties who have subscribed to ODA announcements on rules review, the units of general purpose local governments within the PSA, and the designated AAAs that announces the publication of the public notice on ODA's website.
(2) Any entity may apply to ODA for consideration:
(3) The following are the minimum standards for consideration of an application:
(a) The applicant is one of the types of agencies listed under 45 C.F.R. 1321.19(c).
(b) Not more than one AAA is designated per PSA.
(c) The application includes endorsements from units of local governments.
(d) The application describes the entity's relevant experience and ability to be designated an AAA.
(e) The applicant has not had an AAA designation withdrawn for cause within the past twelve months.
(f) The application includes a draft area plan.
(4) 45 C.F.R. 1321.19 gives a unit of general-purpose local government the right of first refusal if the unit meets both of the following qualifications:
(a) The unit demonstrates the ability to meet the requirements of this chapter and Chapters 173-3, 173-4, and 173-9 of the Administrative Code, the Older Americans Act, 2 C.F.R. Parts 200 and 300, and 45 C.F.R. Parts 75 and 1321.
(b) The unit's boundaries are reasonably contiguous to the PSA's boundaries.
(5) 45 C.F.R. 1321.19 gives an established office on aging the right of second refusal if a unit of general-purpose local government does not apply or does not meet the minimum standards or qualifications.
(6) ODA provides a notice of the selected entity and an opportunity for hearing to each applicant pursuant to the adjudication hearing procedures found in sections 119.05 to 119.09 of the Revised Code.
(7) An applicant may appeal any adverse ODA final order pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.23.
(E) A selected entity's designation is conditioned on compliance with rule 173-2-06 of the Administrative Code and executing an operations agreement with ODA.
(F) ODA may assume temporary AAA responsibilities or delegate those responsibilities to one or more general purpose unit(s) of local government, established office(s) on aging pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 3026(f) or 45 C.F.R. 1321.19(a) if no entity applied or qualified.
(G) ODA may withhold funds from a designated AAA pursuant to 42 U.S.C 3026(f) after issuing a notice and an opportunity for hearing pursuant to sections 119.05 to 119.09 of the Revised Code
(H) Definition for this rule: "Unit of general-purpose local government" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3022(4).
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:17 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-08
(A) AGE establishes requirements for AAA commercial relationships in compliance with 42 U.S.C. 3020c and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiv).
(1) For purposes of this rule, a "commercial relationship" means any AAA legal agreement or contract, for the AAA to provide or facilitate a service that is also available under the Older Americans Act (OAA), to an individual or entity not otherwise receiving OAA services, regardless of the source of funding. A "commercial relationship" includes contracts with health care payers, private pay programs, and other arrangements with entities or individuals that increase the availability of home- and community-based services and supports. The following types of agreements are explicitly excluded from this definition:
(a) An agreement in which an AAA uses OAA funding to pay another entity to provide OAA services to consumers in accordance with the approved AAA area plan.
(b) An agreement in which an AAA uses OAA funding to pay an entity to meet the administrative needs necessary to enable the AAA to fulfill its obligations under the OAA.
(c) An agreement in which no monies are exchanged or contemplated by the commercial relationship.
(d) An agreement in which an AAA pays another entity to provide services pursuant to an AGE pre-approved or approved commercial relationship.
(2) Commercial relationships that are pre-approved by AGE, unless the AAA has received an audit report with financial findings within the previous twelve months, include the following:
(a) An agreement solely with a governmental entity.
(b) An agreement solely with another designated AAA.
(c) A renewal or extension of a commercial relationship previously approved by AGE that has substantially the same terms and conditions as the previously approved commercial relationship, if any renewal or extension occurs no later than three years after the expiration of the initial AGE-approved commercial relationship.
(B) An AAA may establish a commercial relationship with any entity if the AAA:
(1) Develops policies and procedures, and ensures that service providers develop policies and procedures, that comply with 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiv)(B).
(2) Obtains AGE's approval of the commercial relationship in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 3020c, 42 U.S.C. 3025(a)(1)(C), 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(13) to (a)(15), and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiv), which includes the following:
(a) Submit a completed application for approval of any commercial relationship on an AGE-approved form by e-mail to legal@age.ohio.gov. The timing of the submission may occur before or after obtaining the signatures of the parties if no term of the agreement is substantially altered.
(b) Unless the commercial relationship is pre-approved, engage in an interactive process with AGE by providing any information, documentation, or assurances as requested by AGE to ensure the prompt and efficient processing of a completed application within fifteen business days, plus any time an AAA may need to respond to AGE inquiries.
(c) Provide for an exception in any non-disclosure provision or commercial relationship to allow AGE to obtain information concerning, and a copy of, the commercial relationship on request. AAAs may redact trade secret information with any submission.
(d) Ensure the proposed commercial relationship complies with 42 U.S.C. 3020c(a) and (b), and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiv).
(3) An amendment to a commercial relationship which substantially alters a term or condition of an AGE-approved commercial relationship is subject to the approval standards in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule, unless paragraph (A)(2) of this rule applies.
Last updated April 1, 2026 at 7:28 AM
History
- Effective: April 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-06
(A) Monitoring: ODA shall monitor each AAA to ensure grant awards are used for authorized purposes and in compliance with state and federal statutes, regulations, and the terms and conditions of each award.
(B) Reporting and corrective-action plans (CAPs):
(1) ODA shall notify an AAA of the results of the monitoring review, including any instance of non-compliance ("deficiency"). In the notice, ODA shall require the AAA to develop a CAP and to correct the deficiency.
(2) In response to ODA's notice, the AAA shall provide ODA with a proposed CAP. In the CAP, the AAA shall include all of the following:
(a) The manner in which the AAA will correct the deficiency.
(b) The correction deadline.
(c) The actions to ensure the deficiency does not recur.
(3) ODA shall review the AAA's proposed CAP and shall inform the AAA of its decision to either approve the AAA's CAP or impose the corrective action in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule.
(C) Remedies for non-compliance:
(1) ODA shall impose corrective action on an AAA in any of the following three situations:
(a) The AAA's CAP failed to comply with paragraph (B)(2) of this rule.
(b) The AAA failed to fully implement the ODA-approved CAP.
(c) ODA immediately imposes corrective action without first requiring the AAA to develop a proposed CAP due to one or more of the following situations:
(i) Laws or agreements necessitate immediate corrective action.
(ii) The consumers' health, safety, or welfare necessitates immediate corrective action.
(iii) Protecting state or federal dollars necessitates immediate corrective action.
(2) ODA shall consider the AAA's history of deficiencies, the impact of the present deficiency or other unrelated deficiencies, and the cause of the deficiency or other unrelated deficiencies when determining the nature and extent of corrective action to impose on the AAA.
(3) ODA shall impose one or more of the following corrective actions upon an AAA to comply with paragraph (C)(1) of this rule:
(a) ODA may require the AAA to fully implement the AAA's self-imposed, but not yet fully-implemented, CAP.
(b) ODA may develop new corrective actions to impose upon the AAA.
(c) ODA may disallow all or a part of the cost of an activity or action that does not comply.
(d) ODA may terminate all or part of the AAA's present grants and contracts. If ODA terminates all or part of an AAA's grants or contracts, ODA shall take all actions necessary to ensure the continuation of any services directly provided by the AAA that were authorized for consumers in the PSA. The actions that ODA takes to ensure the continuation of services may include directly administering the AAA's grants and contracts or contracting with another AAA to administer the deficient AAA's grants and contracts on ODA's behalf.
(e) ODA may withhold one or more future grant awards to the AAA under 42 U.S.C. 3026(f).
(f) ODA may withdraw the designation according to rule 173-2-07 of the Administrative Code.
(g) ODA may impose any other corrective action that laws authorize.
(h) ODA shall inform the AAA of ODA's acceptance of the AAA's response to an ODA-imposed CAP.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:18 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-05 AAAs: standards for AAAs.
(A) Each AAA shall comply with all the following standards:
(1) All requirements for an AAA in this chapter and Chapters 173-3, 173-4, and 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The requirements under 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(1) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.55 to establish a comprehensive and coordinated system.
(3) The requirement under 45 C.F.R. 1321.55(b)(10) for a board of directors.
(4) The standards under 45 C.F.R. 1321.57, section 173.38 of the Revised Code, Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, and paragraph (A)(9) of this rule on staffing and staff qualifications.
(5) The requirements under 45 C.F.R. 1321.47(a)(5) and 1321.59 for policies and procedures.
(6) The requirements under 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(6)(B) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.61 on advocacy.
(7) The requirement under 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(6)(D) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.63 to establish an advisory council.
(8) The following area-plan standards and procedures, pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.65:
(a) AGE notifies each AAA before its current area plan expires of the upcoming need to prepare and submit a new four-year area plan in the format described in the notice, and to submit that area plan according to the instructions in the notice with the following:
(i) The AAA's plan for a comprehensive and coordinated service delivery system for services to older individuals in its PSA.
(ii) Assurances, an operational budget, and the AAA's plan to distribute funds in the PSA to address populations identified as in greatest social need and greatest economic need within the parameters listed in the appendix to rule 173-2-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Any funds transfer requests that the AAA wants, within the parameters listed in the appendix to rule 173-2-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) Any waiver request under rule 173-2-09 of the Administrative Code that the AAA requests.
(v) A description of the populations in the PSA at greatest economic and greatest social need.
(vi) An assessment of the needs of older individuals, including an assessment and evaluation of unmet need, in the PSA through various mechanisms including community forums, questionnaires, reputable data sources, and surveys.
(vii) The AAA's response to the findings of the needs assessment.
(viii) The input provided through the public participation in paragraph (A)(8)(b) of this rule.
(ix) A description of the AAA's compliance with 45 C.F.R. 1321.65(d).
(x) Any other information listed in the notice as a requirement for an area plan.
(b) The requirement under 45 C.F.R. 1321.65(b)(4) for each AAA to incorporate public participation in the development of its area plan according to AGE's standards for the public participation, which are to conduct a public hearing on its area plan by notifying providers, older individuals, other stakeholders, and the general public in the PSA of the date, time, and place of the public hearing.
(c) The AAA shall fully implement the duties outlined in its approved area plan, whether it does so directly or through contractual or other arrangements.
(d) An AAA may appeal a denied area plan by emailing elderconnections@age.ohio.gov and including any of the following type of information that apply in, or attached to, the email:
(i) The information required under paragraph (A)(8)(a) of this rule, if the denial was based on incomplete or incorrect information in the AAA's original submission.
(ii) A defense of compliance with federal laws and rules and state laws and rules, if the denial was based on non-compliance with those laws and rules.
(iii) Any other information noted in the denial as missing.
(e) An AAA may request AGE's approval to amend an approved area plan by emailing elderconnections@age.ohio.gov including all of the following information in, or attached to, the email:
(i) An explanation of the need to amend.
(ii) A correction to the information the AAA originally submitted to AGE under paragraph (A)(8)(a) of this rule, that is the basis for the proposed amendment.
(iii) An explanation of how the amended area plan will comply with federal laws and rules and state laws and rules.
(f) AGE may request additional information from the AAA before deciding whether to approve an appeal under paragraph (A)(8)(d) of this rule or an amendment under paragraph (A)(8)(e) of this rule.
(9) The conflict-of-interest standards under 45 C.F.R. 1321.67, which include the following standards adopted pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.47;
(a) An organizational conflict of interest is subject to an AGE-approved remedy.
(b) An individual conflict of interest is subject to an AGE-approved remedy.
(c) The requirement under 45 C.F.R. 1321.67(a)(5) to periodically review the Title III program to identify, avoid, and remove individual or organizational conflicts of interest.
(d) The requirement under 2 C.F.R. 200.112 for the AAA to report any potential organizational or individual conflict of interest to AGE.
(e) An AAA may email AGE at legal@age.ohio.gov with a proposed remedy to a conflict of interest for AGE's approval.
(10) The requirement in 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(13)(A) and 2 C.F.R. 200.303 for the AAA to monitor each provider with whom it enters into an AAA-provider agreement under rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Conflict of interest" has the same meaning as defined or described by all of the following:
(a) Chapter 102. of the Revised Code, as that chapter applies to an instrumentality of the state.
(b) Section 2921.42 of the Revised Code, as that section applies to an instrumentality of the state.
(c) 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(7)(B).
(d) 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(8)(C)(iii).
(e) 2 C.F.R. 200.318 and 200.319 regarding procurement and competition.
(f) 45 C.F.R. 1321.3, 1321.55(d), 1321.63(d), and 1321.67.
(g) The United States department of health and human services policies issued pursuant to 2 C.F.R. 300.112.
(2) "Individual conflict of interest" means a conflict of interest held by an AAA's employee, board member, advisory council member, or volunteer, or provider and contractor. "Individual conflict of interest" includes any conflict listed under 45 C.F.R. 1321.47(b). If the AAA directly provides case management, then "individual conflict of interest" also includes the conflict described in 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(8)(C)(iii).
(3) "Organizational conflict of interest" means a conflict of interest held by an AAA or its advisory council. "Organizational conflict of interest" includes any conflict listed under 45 C.F.R. 1321.47(c).
(4) "Remedy" means an action, restriction of action, restriction of contact, or other means to neutralize a conflict of interest. Examples of remedies to an organizational conflict of interest are a firewall between the organization's conflicting functions or the termination of one or more of the organization's conflicting functions. Examples of remedies to an individual conflict of interest are the recusal, reassignment, or termination of the employee, board member, advisory council member, or volunteer with the conflict.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 8:27 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-09
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Direct service waiver" means permission for an AAA to directly provide a service paid with Title III-B, III-C, III-D, or III-E Older Americans Act funds or senior community service funds in lieu of procuring for a provider(s) to provide the service in its PSA.
(2) "Title III-B required funding allocation waiver" means permission for an AAA to allocate less than the percentage of funding designated in Ohio's state plan on aging for services paid with Title III-B Older Americans Act funds as required by 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(2) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(v) and 1321.27(i).
(3) "Cost sharing waiver" means permission for an AAA to not comply with the requirements paragraph (C)(2) of rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Competitive procurement waiver" means permission for an AAA to use non-competitive procurement in paragraph (B) of rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Waiver requests:
(1) An AAA may request a waiver concurrent with the AAA's area plan cycle as defined in its area plan, as part of any of the following submissions:
(a) Area plan.
(b) Annual area plan update.
(c) Emergency request.
(2) Determinations:
(a) Waiver requests submitted with the area plan or annual update receive a response as part of the area plan approval process.
(b) Waiver requests submitted as an emergency request receive a response within thirty days after AGE's receipt of a complete waiver request. If AGE determines that it needs clarification on the request or supporting documentation, AGE's response time may be extended.
(3) Duration: A waiver does not extend beyond the AAA's area plan cycle.
(4) Direct service waiver:
(a) In accordance with 45 U.S.C. 1321.65(b)(7)(ii) and Ohio's state plan on aging, an AAA may directly provide case management, information and assistance, and outreach without first requesting and obtaining a waiver.
(b) A request qualifies for approval only if it meets the following standards:
(i) The request meets the standards in 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(8)(A) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.65(b)(7).
(ii) The request is submitted on form ODA3002.
(iii) The request includes the following:
(a) A copy of the RFP.
(b) The list of prospective and current providers notified of the RFP.
(c) The methods used to notify potential providers of the RFP.
(d) The names of those that submitted a proposal.
(e) The reason(s) why the proposals received were not acceptable.
(c) Emergency request:
(i) An AAA may request an emergency direct service waiver under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(a) A current service provider is unable to continue to meet its timely provision of service to consumers.
(b) An established service provider's contract is suddenly terminated by the provider or AAA.
(c) A service not presently funded by the AAA is needed due to the existence of a major disaster.
(ii) A request qualifies for approval only if it meets the following standards:
(a) The request is submitted on form ODA3003.
(b) The request states the circumstance(s) that constitute an emergency.
(c) The request includes correspondence from the provider indicating when the AAA became aware of the emergency.
(d) The request includes a precise explanation of the applicable service and the number of consumers and counties impacted.
(e) The request includes a detailed action plan for the AAA and timelines indicating when a provider will be in place for the services identified in the emergency request.
(f) The request includes a detailed explanation indicating the AAA's efforts to identify providers to offer services using a competitive procurement process under rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Title III-B required funding allocation waiver: A request qualifies for approval only if it meets the following standards:
(a) The request meets the requirements in 42 U.S.C. 3026(c).
(b) The request is submitted on form ODA3001.
(c) If requested by any person, the AAA conducted a public hearing, including the following:
(i) A specific review of the waiver request.
(ii) A public hearing notice was provided to the public, providers, older individuals in the PSA, and other stakeholders at least ten business days before the public hearing.
(iii) The public hearing notice was provided by:
(a) Publishing through external publicly available digital and/or print media that reaches all geographic regions of the PSA.
(b) Posting on the AAA's website, social media outlets, media channels, and other city or local governmental websites where notices of local public hearings are posted.
(iv) The public hearing notice included the following:
(a) The date, time, and location of the public hearing.
(b) The specific reason for the public hearing, including the type of waiver the AAA intends to seek from AGE.
(c) The specific service(s) affected.
(d) The amount and source of funds involved.
(e) The AAA's reason(s) for requesting to reallocate funds.
(f) Instructions for reviewing the waiver request documents before the public hearing.
(g) The deadline for submitting written comments and the address to which written comments may be directed.
(h) A contact name for more information.
(v) A copy of the public hearing notice was sent to the service providers within the PSA and anyone who requested notification of such public hearings.
(vi) Evidence of the AAA's active effort to notify potential providers and encourage their participation in the process.
(6) Cost sharing waiver: A request qualifies for approval only if it meets the following standards:
(a) The AAA demonstrates that its request meets the requirements in 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2(a)(6) and 45 C.F.R 1321.9(c)(2)(xi)(A). To meet the requirement in 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2(a)(6)(A), at least eighty per cent of consumers receiving services subject to cost sharing in the PSA have incomes below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.
(b) The request is submitted on form ODA3004.
(7) Waiver of competitive procurement: A request for waiver of competitive procurement, which is separate from an emergency waiver request, qualifies for approval only if it meets the standards in paragraph (B) of rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 8:26 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06
(A) Federal requirements for every AAA-provider agreement (agreement) for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The Older Americans Act.
(2) Subparts C and D of 45 C.F.R. Part 1321.
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.327 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(4) 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 regarding individually identifiable health information and protected health information.
(5) Any additional federal law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement.
(B) State requirements for every agreement for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Program and funding identification:
(a) The agreement shall identify the names of the federal and state programs that are sources for the Older Americans Act funding being used to pay for the services procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall contain the following statement:
"This agreement is for the provision of services paid with federal funds that the United States Department of Health and Human Services appropriated to the Ohio Department of Aging (AGE). AGE, in turn, allocated the federal funds to the area agency on aging. The agreement is subject to federal and state laws, rules, and executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement."
(2) Additional state laws:
(a) The agreement is subject to any rule in this chapter or Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code regulating agreements in general or the provision of any service being procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement is subject to any additional state law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over agreements in general or the provision of any service procured through the agreement.
(3) Safety:
(a) Disasters: The agreement shall require the provider to cooperate with the AAA and AGE to assess disaster impact on consumers and to coordinate with public and private resources in the field of aging to assist consumers when the president of the United States declares that the provider's service area is a disaster area.
(b) Significant changes: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service as part of care coordination, then the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA of any significant change that may necessitate a reassessment the case-managed consumer's need for the service no later than one day after the provider is aware of a repeated refusal to receive the service; changes in the consumer's physical, mental, or emotional status; documented changes in the consumer's environmental conditions; or, other significant, documented changes to the consumer's health and safety. If "one day after" falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(c) APS: The agreement shall require the provider to immediately report any reasonable cause to believe a consumer is the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program in accordance with section 5101.63 of the Revised Code.
(d) Discontinuing the provision of services: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service with the AAA as part of care coordination, the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer in writing of the anticipated last day the provider will provide the service to the case-managed consumer no later than thirty days before the anticipated last day, unless the reason for discontinuing the service is the hospitalization, institutionalization, or death of the consumer; serious risk to the health or safety of the provider; the consumer's decision to discontinue the service; or a similar reason why the provider is unable to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer thirty days before the anticipated last day. The provider shall also notify the case-managed consumer on how to reach a long-term care ombudsman. If the thirtieth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(4) Confidentiality: In addition to the federal requirements in 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.75 the agreement shall require the provider to store each consumer's electronic records in a password-protected file and physical records in a designated, locked storage space.
(5) Provider qualifications: In the agreement, the AAA shall include the following requirements:
(a) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position, the provider is subject to section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, or if self-employed, section 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a federal, state, or local government regulatory authority prohibits the provider from providing a service required by the agreement, the provider shall notify the AAA of the disciplinary action and the AAA shall, simultaneous to the date of the regulatory authority's disciplinary action, deem the provider to be ineligible to be paid with Older Americans Act funds for providing that service to consumers.
(6) Subcontracting: The agreement shall require the provider to obtain authorization from the AAA before subcontracting any of its duties under the agreement to another provider.
(7) Modification:
(a) The agreement shall describe the grounds (and the process) for modifying the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall state that if an amendment, repeal, or rescission of any law, rule, or regulation cited in the agreement would change the responsibilities of the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider, then the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider shall comply with the amendment, repeal, or rescission of the law, rule, or regulation even if the agreement is not updated before the amendment, repeal, or rescission takes effect.
(c) Every new agreement shall require the provider to sign up for email updates on AGE's rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/wps/portal/gov/aging/see-news-and-events/subscribe/subscribe.
(8) Renewable and multi-year agreements: If the agreement is renewable or covers a multi-year term, the agreement is subject to the requirements for renewable or multi-year agreements under rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(9) Records: The agreement shall include the following permissions and requirements:
(a) Permission to use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) A requirement to retain any record relating to services provided, including activity plans (if required), assessments (if required), permits (if required), evaluations (if required), and mandatory reporting items to verify a unit of service, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider receives payment for the services.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(c) A requirement to retain all records regarding an employee's background checks and qualifications, including records on initial qualifications, successful completion of orientation and subsequent training (if required), and performance reviews (if required) until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider no longer retains the employee.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(d) A requirement to participate in good faith in the monitoring of the provider's provision of services. To participate in good faith includes assisting the AAA and AGE with the scheduling of announced or unannounced monitoring and providing the AAA and AGE with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies and records for each unit of service billed.
(10) Payment:
(a) The agreement shall describe how the AAA pays the provider, including the amount and payment method.
(b) The agreement shall include the following requirements:
(i) The requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The requirement to return any Older Americans Act funds payments for its services, if the provider's provision of the services did not comply with the laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the provision of the service.
(11) Administrative hearings:
(a) The agreement shall state that the provider may appeal an action the AAA takes against the provider according to rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code and state the procedures by which the provider may appeal the adverse action.
(b) If the AAA intends to redistribute unearned funds to other providers, the agreement shall state that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not, in a timely manner, earning the funds it was awarded and if the AAA determines the provider is not, in a timely manner earning the funds it was awarded in the agreement.
(C) An AAA may add requirements to an agreement in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule if the additional requirements do not conflict with any federal laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or state laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement.
(D) Any reference in this rule to a consumer includes a caregiver if the caregiver is the service recipient.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:54 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-07
(A) ODA shall withdraw an AAA's designation in compliance with 45 C.F.R. 1321.21.
(B) ODA shall accept any voluntary withdrawal of designation in writing pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.19(a)(2) which acts as ODA's withdrawal of designation without any right of appeal.
(C) ODA shall provide to the affected AAA a notice and an opportunity for a hearing according to sections 119.05 to 119.09 of the Revised Code.
(D) The AAA may appeal any adverse ODA final order pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.23.
(E) ODA shall comply with 45 C.F.R. 1321.21(b) on issuing a final order of withdrawal.
(F) ODA may assume temporary AAA responsibilities or delegate those responsibilities to one or more general purpose unit(s) of local government, established office(s) on aging, pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.21(c) if necessary to ensure the continuity of services for consumers.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:18 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-07
(A) Introduction: All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to voluntary contributions. All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for services excluded by paragraph (C)(1) of this rule. All voluntary contributions and cost sharing for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to the requirements contained in 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2.
(B) Voluntary contributions: Each AAA is subject to the federal mandate under 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 to consult with relevant service providers and older individuals in the AAA's PSA to determine the best method for accepting voluntary contributions.
(1) A provider may do the following:
(a) Solicit service recipients to contribute toward the cost of the services received and encourage any service recipient to contribute if the service recipient's self-declared income is at, or above, one hundred eighty-five per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, which the United States department of health and human services establishes annually according to 42 U.S.C. 9902 and publishes on https://aspe.hhs.gov/poverty-guidelines.
(b) Develop a suggested contributions schedule for voluntary contributions based on the actual cost of services, but not use the schedule or any other means test to determine if a service recipient is eligible to receive a service.
(2) A provider shall do the following:
(a) Clearly inform each service recipient in written materials, in alternative formats, and in languages other than English in compliance with federal civil rights laws, that contributions are purely voluntary. 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 does not allow means testing or denial of a service to a service recipient who does not contribute of the cost of the service.
(b) Protect the privacy and confidentiality of each service recipient with respect to the service recipient's contribution or lack of contribution.
(c) Safeguard and account for all voluntary contributions.
(d) Use collected voluntary contributions to expand the services for which service recipients contributed, and supplement Older Americans Act funds for those services and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(e) Conduct voluntary contributions in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(C) Cost sharing:
(1) All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for the following services:
(a) Information and assistance, outreach, benefits counseling, case management, disease preventionand health promotion, or volunteer management.
(b) Education, training, or a support group provided through the national family caregiver support program.
(c) Congregate and home-delivered meals.
(d) Ombudsman, elder abuse prevention, legal assistance, or another consumer-protection service.
(2) Each AAA shall implement and administer a cost-sharing policy that includes all of the following:
(a) The following sliding-fee schedule, which determines the service recipient's suggested cost-share percentage of the actual (or partial) contracted cost of a unit of a service based upon the service recipient's individual income as a percentage of the federal poverty guideline. Under no circumstances may an AAA permit or obligate a service recipient to participate in cost sharing when the service recipient's income is below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.
Sliding-fee Schedule
| INCOME | SUGGESTED COST SHARE | | --- | --- | | 149% and below | 0% | | 150-174% | 10% | | 175-199% | 20% | | 200-224% | 30% | | 225-249% | 40% | | 250-274% | 50% | | 275-299% | 60% | | 300-324% | 70% | | 325-349% | 80% | | 350-374% | 90% | | 375%and above | 100% |
(b) A requirement to determine the service recipient's income solely by the service recipient's self-declaration of income with no requirement for verification, and no consideration or means testing of the service recipient's assets, savings, or other property.
(c) A procedure for collecting cost-sharing payments from service recipients, including from service recipients receiving participant-directed services.
(d) A prohibition against denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(e) A requirement to widely distribute written materials to service recipients that describe the requirements for cost sharing, the services subject to cost sharing, the procedure for cost sharing, the sliding-fee schedule published in this rule, and a statement that a provider is prohibited from denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(f) A requirement to provide a receipt to a service recipient or caregiver who makes a payment.
(g) A procedure for safeguarding and accounting for all cost-sharing funds collected.
(h) A requirement to retain records of all cost-sharing funds collected.
(i) A requirement to keep the service recipient's declaration or non-declaration of income and cost-sharing payment history confidential.
(j) A requirement to use the funds collected from cost sharing to expand the capacity to provide the service for which the funds were given, unless the funds are used to expand the pool of funds from which a coordinated service is paid and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(k) A requirement to conduct cost sharing in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(3) The AAA may request a waiver of the requirement in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule to implement and administer a cost-sharing policy. AGE shall approve the request if the AAA demonstrates to AGE, by a preponderance of the evidence, one of the following:
(a) At least eighty per cent of the service recipients in the PSA have incomes below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.
(b) Cost sharing would be an unreasonable administrative or financial burden on the AAA.
(D) All program income:
(1) "Program income" has the same meaning as in 2 C.F.R. 200.1. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), "program income" includes voluntary contributions and cost sharing.
(2) Program income is subject to all of the following standards:
(a) 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), which establishes the following:
(i) A limit on spending program income on only the service to which the income was originally collected.
(a) For program income received through a congregate dining project or home-delivered meals project, this means using the program income to increase the number of meals provided or to increase the nutrition counseling, nutrition education, or nutrition health screening to consumers who receive meals through the project.
(b) For program income received for a Title III-B service, this means using the program income to provide the same service to either of the following:
(i) Service recipients on waiting lists.
(ii) Service recipients in areas of the PSA in which the service has not been available or is underserved.
(ii) The addition alternative in 2 C.F.R. 200.307(e)(2).
(iii) A requirement to use program income during the grant period in which the income was originally collected.
(b) Requirements to report program income to AGE as it is earned.
(c) Requirements to report program income expenditures in AGE's designated reporting system.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 1:54 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-05
(A) General procurement standards:
(1) When an AAA procures services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, the AAA is subject to the requirements in 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.3270 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(2) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the micro-purchase threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use micro-purchase procurement for AAA-provider agreements (agreements) worth more than the micro-purchase threshold, unless the threshold is increased according to 2 C.F.R. 200.320(a)(1)(iv) or (a)(1)(v)..
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the simplified acquisition threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use small-purchase procurement for agreements worth more than the simplified acquisition threshold.
(B) Authorization for non-competitive procurement: An AAA may request authorization from AGE to use a non-competitive procurement process by complying with paragraph (A) of this rule and providing a written or electronic request to AGE that meets all of the following conditions:
(1) The AAA makes its request to AGE no fewer than thirty days before the AAA needs a decision from AGE.
(2) The AAA's request does not consider a public exigency or emergency to be a basis for non-competitive procurement if the AAA created the exigency or emergency.
(3) The AAA's request provides AGE with evidence to verify that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c) exist.
(4) If the AAA wants to procure services from a single source, the AAA's request verifies that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c)(2) exist by including the names of all known providers of the services located in, or willing to do business in, the planning and service area and includes emails or letters from each of those providers to document their inability to provide the services the AAA wants to procure. If the providers are unwilling to provide emails or letters to the AAA, the AAA's request includes records of the AAA's efforts to obtain information from the providers.
(C) Additional procurement standards for renewable and multi-year AAA-provider agreements:
(1) RFPs:
(a) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable or multi-year AAA-provider agreement (agreement) only if the RFP for the renewable or multi-year agreement clearly states all of the following:
(i) Whether the agreement would be renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA would determine the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement would not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable agreement only if the RFP for the renewable agreement clearly states the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew a renewable agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) An AAA may offer a provider a multi-year agreement only if the RFP for the multi-year agreement clearly states that the AAA may terminate a multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services the agreement covers.
(2) Agreements:
(a) Every agreement for a renewable agreement or agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state the following:
(i) Whether the agreement is renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA determines the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement does not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) Every agreement for a renewable agreement shall clearly state the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew the agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) Every agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state that the AAA may terminate the multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services that the agreement covers.
(3) Effective periods: No renewable or multi-year agreement (whether in its initial term or a renewed term) may remain in effect after the last day that the AAA's approved area plan is in effect unless the AAA makes a written or electronic request for authorization from AGE to extend the effective period no fewer than thirty days before the end of the effective period of the AAA's area plan and if AGE grants the requested extension to the AAA.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-3 Older Americans Act Programs
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-01 Older Americans Act: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates AAA-provider agreements for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds.
(B) Definitions: The definitions in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code apply to this chapter.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:19 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-01
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs planning and service area designations and changes to designations; an intrastate funding formula; AGE's area agency on aging designations and changes to designations; area plans; monitoring and corrective actions; and withdrawal of an AAA designation.
(B) Definitions for this chapter and Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code:
"AAA-provider agreement" (agreement) means a contract or grant agreement between an AAA and a provider for the provision of services to consumers.
"Activities of daily living" (ADLs) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a provider hiring persons to provide services to consumers.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) means an entity that AGE designates as an area agency on aging under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.19.
"Assessment" means a gathering of information about a person's strengths, problems, financial resources, and care needs in the following major functional areas: physical health, use of medical care, ADLs, IADLs, mental and social functioning, physical environment, and use of services and supports.
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Caregiver" and "family caregiver" have the same meaning as "family caregiver" in 42 U.S.C. 3022.
"Case management" has the same meaning as "case management service" in 42 U.S.C. 3002.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (which may include written testing) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the consumer to be served.
"Congregate dining project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
"Congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
"Consumer" means, for the purposes of services paid for, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, any person sixty years of age or older, unless a different age is required by a state or federal law.
"Contract" has the same meaning as "AAA-provider agreement," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Coordination" means the development and implementation of an integrated service delivery system to ensure appropriate care, service levels, and continuity for consumers. This includes integration with other federal, state, and local programs and services to promote synchronization of planning, policy development, priority setting, and evaluation of activities related to the objectives of the Older Americans Act without, to the extent possible, duplicating services and/or compromising the consumer's goals and objectives.
"Day" means a twenty-four-hour period beginning and ending at midnight.
"Dietary Guidelines for Americans" means the version of the dietary guidelines in effect on a day of service as published by the United States departments of agriculture and health and human services on https://www.dietaryguidelines.gov/.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code or an unencumbered license from another state with compact privilege under section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Greatest economic need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Greatest social need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Groceries" mean foods for a household to eat, such as breads and cereals; fruits and vegetables; meats, fish, and poultry; and dairy products.
"Grocery store" has the same meaning as "retail food establishment" in rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"Home-delivered meals project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
"Incident" means an event that is inconsistent with the routine care or routine provision of services to a consumer. An incident may involve a consumer, caregiver (to the extent it impacts a consumer), provider, provider's staff or facility, another facility, an AAA's staff, AGE's staff, or other administrative authorities. Examples of an incident are abuse, neglect, abandonment, an accident, or an unusual situation resulting in an injury to a person or damage to the person's property or equipment.
"Instrumental activities of daily living" (IADLs) means preparing meals, shopping for personal items, medication management, managing money, using the telephone, doing heavy housework, doing light housework, and the ability to get and use available transportation without assistance.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code. "Licensed healthcare professional" also includes an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Licensed practical nurse" also includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Limited basis" in context of a Title III-E supplemental service means the extent to which a service compliments a family caregiver's care. "Limited basis" means that the services are not universally available or provided continuously. Services are typically provided to address a specific, temporary need or gap in the caregiving situation.
"Nutrition project" means a congregate dining project, home-delivered meals project, or a congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(b), a nutrition project also considers the availability of resources and the community's need for nutrition services described in state and area plans.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Older Americans Act funds" means the federal funds awarded to AGE through Title III of the Older Americans Act (42 U.S.C. Chapter 35, Subchapter III) and any state or local funds used to match those federal funds, regardless of whether the local funds are public or private funds. For the purposes of this chapter and Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code, "Older Americans Act funds" does not mean funds for an ombudsman program.
"Older Americans Act nutrition program" means the program created under 42 U.S.C. 3030d-21 to 3030g-23 (2020).
"Older relative caregiver" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3030s.
"Participant-directed provider " means a provider (e.g., relative, friend, neighbor, or other person) a consumer hired and directs to provide services to the consumer.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Planning and service area" (PSA) means a multi-county region that AGE designates as a planning and service area under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.13.
"Provider" means a person or entity entering into an AAA-provider agreement with an AAA to provide services to consumers. The three categories of providers are agency providers, self-employed providers, and participant-directed providers.
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" also includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Restaurant" has the same meaning as "food service operation" in rule 3717-1-0 1 of the Administrative Code.
"RFP" means "request for proposal."
"Rural area" means any area not designated as urban by the United States census bureau.
"Self-employed provider" means a provider who provides services to consumers and who does not hire, or contract with, other persons to provide those services.
"Shelf-stable meal" means a meal that is non-perishable, ready-to-eat, stored at room temperature, and eaten without heating.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor that identifies only that consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. A consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver or instructor offers their unique identifier as an attestation that a provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service or as an authorization for a plan or agreement.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-04 Older Americans Act: general requirements for AAA-provider agreements.
(A) Authority: Each AAA shall enter into AAA-provider agreements ("agreements") to develop and implement a comprehensive and coordinated system of services for consumers and their caregivers. Each AAA is ultimately responsible to AGE for ensuring that all state and federal funds received from AGE are used in a manner that complies with this chapter and the uniform administrative requirements, cost principles, and audit requirements for federal awards under 2 C.F.R. Part 200 as adopted by 2 C.F.R. part 300.
(B) Purchase-of-service agreements:
(1) As used in this rule, "purchase-of-service agreements" means an agreement through which a provider is paid, wholly or in part, with Older Americans Act funds a pre-determined unit rate for only the services it actually provides in accordance with the agreement.
(2) The AAA shall only enter into purchase-of-service agreements, unless the requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule are met.
(C) Time-and-materials agreements:
(1) As used in this rule, "time-and-materials agreement" means an agreement through which a provider is paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds for the services it provides to consumers based on the provider's actual costs (i.e., time and materials) and not on a pre-determined unit rate.
(2) The AAA is not required to obtain authorization from AGE before entering into a time-and-materials agreement if the agreement only pertains to the provision of one or more of the following services: home maintenance and chores; client finding; home modification; information and assistance (referrals); mass outreach; socialization; telephoning; visiting; or services provided through the national family caregiver support program.
(3) The AAA may obtain authorization from AGE to enter into a time-and-materials agreement for the provision of a service not listed in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(D) Any agreement shall contain the following provisions:
(1) A dollar amount of the AAA's obligation under the agreement.
(2) A requirement for the provider to provide evidence to the AAA to verify its costs before the AAA pays the provider.
(3) The AAA monitors the agreement to ensure that provider expenses do not exceed the limits established in the agreement.
(E) Retroactive: The AAA may pay a provider for services only if there is a valid agreement is in place before the provider begins to provide the services. No agreement is valid unless, and until, it is signed by authorized representatives from both the AAA and the provider.
(F) Ineligible providers: The AAA is subject to 2 C.F.R. Part 180, as supplemented by 2 C.F.R. Part 376, which does not allow the AAA to enter into an agreement with any provider that the SAM database lists as excluded or disqualified from agreements involving federal funds. As used in this paragraph, "SAM database" means the general service administration's "System for Award Management," which is available to the general public for free on www.sam.gov.
(G) Not earning funds: An AAA may make a portion of the funds awarded to a provider available for use by one or more other existing providers by using a competitive procurement process listed under 2 C.F.R. 200.320 if the AAA stated in the agreement that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not earning the funds that the provider was awarded in a timely manner, and if the AAA determines that the provider is not earning the funds that it was awarded in a timely manner. A provider may appeal an AAA's decision to redistribute funds under rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-09
(A) Introduction:
(1) A provider may request an administrative hearing ("hearing") to appeal any adverse action that an AAA has taken against the provider.
(2) AAAs and ODA shall honor all written or electronic hearing requests subject to the conditions in this rule.
(3) A hearing under this rule is not an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(B) AAA-level hearings:
(1) Process: Each AAA shall publish on its website or in a document that is readily accessible by providers its process for any provider to appeal an adverse action related to an AAA-provider agreement (agreement) paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds.
(2) Final AAA decision: An AAA that conducts an administrative hearing shall forward the provider's request for the hearing and the AAA's final decision on the matter to ODA no later than five days after the date the AAA renders its final decision. If the fifth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the day immediately following the fifth day that is not on a weekend or legal holiday.
(C) ODA-level hearings:
(1) AAA first: A provider may request an administrative hearing before ODA only if the provider fully complied with the process for appealing an adverse action by the AAA that committed the adverse action and if that AAA has rendered its final decision on the appeal.
(2) Request a hearing: A provider may submit a written or electronic request to ODA if it does so no later than fifteen days after the date the AAA renders its final decision and if the request describes the adverse action the provider is appealing and why the provider believes the AAA's decision on the matter was inappropriate. If the fifteenth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the day immediately following the fifteenth day that is not on a weekend or legal holiday.
(3) Scheduling a hearing: After ODA receives the request for an administrative hearing, ODA shall, in a timely manner, schedule a hearing and select a hearing officer to preside over the hearing.
(4) Hearing process:
(a) The hearing officer shall afford an adequate opportunity for both the provider and the AAA to present their positions and provide evidence, but may limit or terminate the discussion/testimony under any one or more of the following conditions:
(i) The provider or the AAA is unruly or combative.
(ii) The provider's or AAA's discussion/testimony is unnecessarily redundant.
(iii) The provider and the AAA entered into a settlement that resolved the adverse action(s) that prompted the hearing.
(iv) The provider withdraws its request for the hearing in writing or email.
(b) The hearing officer shall make an audio recording of the hearing unless ODA pays for a court reporter to record the hearing.
(c) The hearing officer shall review the testimony or evidence collected at the hearing, then transmit the testimony, evidence, and the hearing officer's recommendations to ODA regardless of whether the AAA's action was appropriate.
(5) Final ODA decision: ODA shall render its final decision on the appeal no later than thirty days after the date of the hearing and shall issue the decision and the rationale for the decision to the provider and the AAA. If the thirtieth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the day immediately following the thirtieth day that is not on a weekend or legal holiday.
(D) Hearings vs. court cases:
(1) A provider may seek redress from a court without waiting for the final decision of an AAA-level hearing or ODA-level hearing.
(2) If a provider files a lawsuit against the AAA or ODA, the AAA or ODA may terminate any in-progress hearing that the provider requested from the AAA or ODA.
(E) As used in this rule, "adverse action" means an AAA's action concerning a particular provider to not award an agreement; to not renew a renewable agreement; to prematurely terminate an agreement; or to terminate a multi-year agreement for the agreement's second, third, or fourth year.
Last updated January 3, 2023 at 8:37 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-05 Older Americans Act: procurement standards.
(A) General procurement standards:
(1) When an AAA procures services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, the AAA is subject to the requirements in 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.3270 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(2) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the micro-purchase threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use micro-purchase procurement for AAA-provider agreements (agreements) worth more than the micro-purchase threshold, unless the threshold is increased according to 2 C.F.R. 200.320(a)(1)(iv) or (a)(1)(v)..
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the simplified acquisition threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use small-purchase procurement for agreements worth more than the simplified acquisition threshold.
(B) Authorization for non-competitive procurement: An AAA may request authorization from AGE to use a non-competitive procurement process by complying with paragraph (A) of this rule and providing a written or electronic request to AGE that meets all of the following conditions:
(1) The AAA makes its request to AGE no fewer than thirty days before the AAA needs a decision from AGE.
(2) The AAA's request does not consider a public exigency or emergency to be a basis for non-competitive procurement if the AAA created the exigency or emergency.
(3) The AAA's request provides AGE with evidence to verify that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c) exist.
(4) If the AAA wants to procure services from a single source, the AAA's request verifies that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c)(2) exist by including the names of all known providers of the services located in, or willing to do business in, the planning and service area and includes emails or letters from each of those providers to document their inability to provide the services the AAA wants to procure. If the providers are unwilling to provide emails or letters to the AAA, the AAA's request includes records of the AAA's efforts to obtain information from the providers.
(C) Additional procurement standards for renewable and multi-year AAA-provider agreements:
(1) RFPs:
(a) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable or multi-year AAA-provider agreement (agreement) only if the RFP for the renewable or multi-year agreement clearly states all of the following:
(i) Whether the agreement would be renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA would determine the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement would not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable agreement only if the RFP for the renewable agreement clearly states the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew a renewable agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) An AAA may offer a provider a multi-year agreement only if the RFP for the multi-year agreement clearly states that the AAA may terminate a multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services the agreement covers.
(2) Agreements:
(a) Every agreement for a renewable agreement or agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state the following:
(i) Whether the agreement is renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA determines the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement does not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) Every agreement for a renewable agreement shall clearly state the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew the agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) Every agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state that the AAA may terminate the multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services that the agreement covers.
(3) Effective periods: No renewable or multi-year agreement (whether in its initial term or a renewed term) may remain in effect after the last day that the AAA's approved area plan is in effect unless the AAA makes a written or electronic request for authorization from AGE to extend the effective period no fewer than thirty days before the end of the effective period of the AAA's area plan and if AGE grants the requested extension to the AAA.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06 Older Americans Act: requirements to include in every AAA-provider agreement.
(A) Federal requirements for every AAA-provider agreement (agreement) for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The Older Americans Act.
(2) Subparts C and D of 45 C.F.R. Part 1321.
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.327 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(4) 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 regarding individually identifiable health information and protected health information.
(5) Any additional federal law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement.
(B) State requirements for every agreement for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Program and funding identification:
(a) The agreement shall identify the names of the federal and state programs that are sources for the Older Americans Act funding being used to pay for the services procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall contain the following statement:
"This agreement is for the provision of services paid with federal funds that the United States Department of Health and Human Services appropriated to the Ohio Department of Aging (AGE). AGE, in turn, allocated the federal funds to the area agency on aging. The agreement is subject to federal and state laws, rules, and executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement."
(2) Additional state laws:
(a) The agreement is subject to any rule in this chapter or Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code regulating agreements in general or the provision of any service being procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement is subject to any additional state law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over agreements in general or the provision of any service procured through the agreement.
(3) Safety:
(a) Disasters: The agreement shall require the provider to cooperate with the AAA and AGE to assess disaster impact on consumers and to coordinate with public and private resources in the field of aging to assist consumers when the president of the United States declares that the provider's service area is a disaster area.
(b) Significant changes: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service as part of care coordination, then the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA of any significant change that may necessitate a reassessment the case-managed consumer's need for the service no later than one day after the provider is aware of a repeated refusal to receive the service; changes in the consumer's physical, mental, or emotional status; documented changes in the consumer's environmental conditions; or, other significant, documented changes to the consumer's health and safety. If "one day after" falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(c) APS: The agreement shall require the provider to immediately report any reasonable cause to believe a consumer is the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program in accordance with section 5101.63 of the Revised Code.
(d) Discontinuing the provision of services: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service with the AAA as part of care coordination, the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer in writing of the anticipated last day the provider will provide the service to the case-managed consumer no later than thirty days before the anticipated last day, unless the reason for discontinuing the service is the hospitalization, institutionalization, or death of the consumer; serious risk to the health or safety of the provider; the consumer's decision to discontinue the service; or a similar reason why the provider is unable to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer thirty days before the anticipated last day. The provider shall also notify the case-managed consumer on how to reach a long-term care ombudsman. If the thirtieth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(4) Confidentiality: In addition to the federal requirements in 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.75 the agreement shall require the provider to store each consumer's electronic records in a password-protected file and physical records in a designated, locked storage space.
(5) Provider qualifications: In the agreement, the AAA shall include the following requirements:
(a) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position, the provider is subject to section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, or if self-employed, section 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a federal, state, or local government regulatory authority prohibits the provider from providing a service required by the agreement, the provider shall notify the AAA of the disciplinary action and the AAA shall, simultaneous to the date of the regulatory authority's disciplinary action, deem the provider to be ineligible to be paid with Older Americans Act funds for providing that service to consumers.
(6) Subcontracting: The agreement shall require the provider to obtain authorization from the AAA before subcontracting any of its duties under the agreement to another provider.
(7) Modification:
(a) The agreement shall describe the grounds (and the process) for modifying the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall state that if an amendment, repeal, or rescission of any law, rule, or regulation cited in the agreement would change the responsibilities of the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider, then the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider shall comply with the amendment, repeal, or rescission of the law, rule, or regulation even if the agreement is not updated before the amendment, repeal, or rescission takes effect.
(c) Every new agreement shall require the provider to sign up for email updates on AGE's rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/wps/portal/gov/aging/see-news-and-events/subscribe/subscribe.
(8) Renewable and multi-year agreements: If the agreement is renewable or covers a multi-year term, the agreement is subject to the requirements for renewable or multi-year agreements under rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(9) Records: The agreement shall include the following permissions and requirements:
(a) Permission to use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) A requirement to retain any record relating to services provided, including activity plans (if required), assessments (if required), permits (if required), evaluations (if required), and mandatory reporting items to verify a unit of service, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider receives payment for the services.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(c) A requirement to retain all records regarding an employee's background checks and qualifications, including records on initial qualifications, successful completion of orientation and subsequent training (if required), and performance reviews (if required) until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider no longer retains the employee.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(d) A requirement to participate in good faith in the monitoring of the provider's provision of services. To participate in good faith includes assisting the AAA and AGE with the scheduling of announced or unannounced monitoring and providing the AAA and AGE with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies and records for each unit of service billed.
(10) Payment:
(a) The agreement shall describe how the AAA pays the provider, including the amount and payment method.
(b) The agreement shall include the following requirements:
(i) The requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The requirement to return any Older Americans Act funds payments for its services, if the provider's provision of the services did not comply with the laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the provision of the service.
(11) Administrative hearings:
(a) The agreement shall state that the provider may appeal an action the AAA takes against the provider according to rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code and state the procedures by which the provider may appeal the adverse action.
(b) If the AAA intends to redistribute unearned funds to other providers, the agreement shall state that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not, in a timely manner, earning the funds it was awarded and if the AAA determines the provider is not, in a timely manner earning the funds it was awarded in the agreement.
(C) An AAA may add requirements to an agreement in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule if the additional requirements do not conflict with any federal laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or state laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement.
(D) Any reference in this rule to a consumer includes a caregiver if the caregiver is the service recipient.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:54 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-07
(A) Introduction: All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to voluntary contributions. All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for services excluded by paragraph (C)(1) of this rule. All voluntary contributions and cost sharing for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to the requirements contained in 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2.
(B) Voluntary contributions: Each AAA is subject to the federal mandate under 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 to consult with relevant service providers and older individuals in the AAA's PSA to determine the best method for accepting voluntary contributions.
(1) A provider may do the following:
(a) Solicit service recipients to contribute toward the cost of the services received and encourage any service recipient to contribute if the service recipient's self-declared income is at, or above, one hundred eighty-five per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, which the United States department of health and human services establishes annually according to 42 U.S.C. 9902 and publishes on https://aspe.hhs.gov/poverty-guidelines.
(b) Develop a suggested contributions schedule for voluntary contributions based on the actual cost of services, but not use the schedule or any other means test to determine if a service recipient is eligible to receive a service.
(2) A provider shall do the following:
(a) Clearly inform each service recipient in written materials, in alternative formats, and in languages other than English in compliance with federal civil rights laws, that contributions are purely voluntary. 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 does not allow means testing or denial of a service to a service recipient who does not contribute of the cost of the service.
(b) Protect the privacy and confidentiality of each service recipient with respect to the service recipient's contribution or lack of contribution.
(c) Safeguard and account for all voluntary contributions.
(d) Use collected voluntary contributions to expand the services for which service recipients contributed, and supplement Older Americans Act funds for those services and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(e) Conduct voluntary contributions in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(C) Cost sharing:
(1) All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for the following services:
(a) Information and assistance, outreach, benefits counseling, case management, disease preventionand health promotion, or volunteer management.
(b) Education, training, or a support group provided through the national family caregiver support program.
(c) Congregate and home-delivered meals.
(d) Ombudsman, elder abuse prevention, legal assistance, or another consumer-protection service.
(2) Each AAA shall implement and administer a cost-sharing policy that includes all of the following:
(a) The following sliding-fee schedule, which determines the service recipient's suggested cost-share percentage of the actual (or partial) contracted cost of a unit of a service based upon the service recipient's individual income as a percentage of the federal poverty guideline. Under no circumstances may an AAA permit or obligate a service recipient to participate in cost sharing when the service recipient's income is below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.
Sliding-fee Schedule
| INCOME | SUGGESTED COST SHARE | | --- | --- | | 149% and below | 0% | | 150-174% | 10% | | 175-199% | 20% | | 200-224% | 30% | | 225-249% | 40% | | 250-274% | 50% | | 275-299% | 60% | | 300-324% | 70% | | 325-349% | 80% | | 350-374% | 90% | | 375%and above | 100% |
(b) A requirement to determine the service recipient's income solely by the service recipient's self-declaration of income with no requirement for verification, and no consideration or means testing of the service recipient's assets, savings, or other property.
(c) A procedure for collecting cost-sharing payments from service recipients, including from service recipients receiving participant-directed services.
(d) A prohibition against denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(e) A requirement to widely distribute written materials to service recipients that describe the requirements for cost sharing, the services subject to cost sharing, the procedure for cost sharing, the sliding-fee schedule published in this rule, and a statement that a provider is prohibited from denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(f) A requirement to provide a receipt to a service recipient or caregiver who makes a payment.
(g) A procedure for safeguarding and accounting for all cost-sharing funds collected.
(h) A requirement to retain records of all cost-sharing funds collected.
(i) A requirement to keep the service recipient's declaration or non-declaration of income and cost-sharing payment history confidential.
(j) A requirement to use the funds collected from cost sharing to expand the capacity to provide the service for which the funds were given, unless the funds are used to expand the pool of funds from which a coordinated service is paid and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(k) A requirement to conduct cost sharing in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(3) The AAA may request a waiver of the requirement in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule to implement and administer a cost-sharing policy. AGE shall approve the request if the AAA demonstrates to AGE, by a preponderance of the evidence, one of the following:
(a) At least eighty per cent of the service recipients in the PSA have incomes below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.
(b) Cost sharing would be an unreasonable administrative or financial burden on the AAA.
(D) All program income:
(1) "Program income" has the same meaning as in 2 C.F.R. 200.1. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), "program income" includes voluntary contributions and cost sharing.
(2) Program income is subject to all of the following standards:
(a) 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), which establishes the following:
(i) A limit on spending program income on only the service to which the income was originally collected.
(a) For program income received through a congregate dining project or home-delivered meals project, this means using the program income to increase the number of meals provided or to increase the nutrition counseling, nutrition education, or nutrition health screening to consumers who receive meals through the project.
(b) For program income received for a Title III-B service, this means using the program income to provide the same service to either of the following:
(i) Service recipients on waiting lists.
(ii) Service recipients in areas of the PSA in which the service has not been available or is underserved.
(ii) The addition alternative in 2 C.F.R. 200.307(e)(2).
(iii) A requirement to use program income during the grant period in which the income was originally collected.
(b) Requirements to report program income to AGE as it is earned.
(c) Requirements to report program income expenditures in AGE's designated reporting system.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 1:54 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.1 Older Americans Act: adult day service.
(A) "Adult day service" ("ADS") means a regularly-scheduled service delivered at an adult day center (center) in a non-institutional, community-based setting. ADS includes recreational and educational programming to support a consumer's health and independence goals; at least one meal, but no more than two meals per day; and, sometimes, health status monitoring, skilled therapy services, and transportation to and from the center. Table 1 to this rule defines the three levels of ADS.
Table 1: Levels and Activities of ADS
| | BASIC ADS | ENHANCED ADS | INTENSIVE ADS | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Structured activity programming | Yes | Yes | Yes | | Health assessments | Yes | Yes | Yes | | Supervision of ADLs | One or more ADL | One or more ADL | All ADLs | | Hands-on assistance with ADLs | No | Yes, one or more ADL (bathing excluded) | Yes, minimum of two ADLs (bathing included) | | Hands-on assistance with medication administration | No | Yes | Yes | | Comprehensive therapeutic activities | No | Yes | Yes | | Monitoring of health status | No | Intermittent | Regular | | Hands-on assistance with personal hygiene activities | No | Yes (bathing excluded) | Yes (bathing included, as needed) | | Social work services | No | No | Yes | | Skilled nursing services | No | No | Yes | | Rehabilitative services | No | No | Yes |
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for ADS that is paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Service requirements:
(a) Transportation: The provider shall transport each consumer to and from the center by performing transportation that complies with rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code, unless the provider enters into a contract with another provider who complies with rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code, or unless the caregiver transports or designates another person or non-provider, other than the center provider, to transport the consumer to and from the center.
(b) Case manager's assessment: If the consumer receives a case management service as part of care coordination:
(i) The case manager shall assess each consumer's needs and preferences then specify which service level will be approved for each consumer; and,
(ii) The provider shall retain records to show that it provides the service at the level that the case manager authorized.
(c) Provider's initial assessment:
(i) The provider shall assess the consumer before the end of the consumer's second day of attendance at the center. If the consumer is enrolled in care coordination, the provider may substitute a copy of the case manager's assessment of the consumer if the case manager assessed the consumer no more than thirty days before the consumer's first day of attendance at the center.
(ii) The initial assessment shall include both of the following components:
(a) Functional and cognitive profiles that identify the ADLs and IADLs that require attention or assistance of the provider's staff members.
(b) Social profile including social activity patterns, major life events, community services, caregiver data, formal and informal support systems, and behavior patterns.
(d) Health assessment: No later than thirty days after the consumer's initial attendance at the center or before the consumer receives the first ten units of service at the center, whichever comes first, the provider shall either obtain a health assessment of each consumer from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes health assessments or require a staff member who is such a licensed healthcare professional to perform a health assessment of each consumer. The health assessment shall include the consumer's psychosocial profile and identify the consumer's risk factors, diet, and medications. If the licensed healthcare professional who performs the health assessment is not a staff member of the provider, the provider shall retain a record of the professional's name and phone number.
(e) Activity plan: No later than thirty days after the consumer's initial attendance at the center or before the consumer receives the first ten units of service at the center, whichever comes first, the provider shall either obtain the services of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes developing activity plans to draft an activity plan for each consumer or require a staff member who is such a licensed healthcare professional to draft an activity plan for each consumer. The plan shall do all of the following:
(i) Identify the consumer's strengths, needs, problems or difficulties, and objectives.
(ii) Describe the consumer's interests, preferences, and social rehabilitative needs.
(iii) Describe the consumer's health needs.
(iv) Describe the consumer's specific goals, objectives, and planned interventions of ADS that meet the goals.
(v) Describe the consumer's level of involvement in the drafting of the plan, and if the consumer has a caregiver, the caregiver's level of involvement in the drafting of the plan.
(vi) Describe the consumer's ability to provide a unique identifier to verify receipt of service delivery.
(f) Plan of treatment: Before administering medication or meals with a therapeutic diet, and before providing a nursing service, nutrition counseling, physical therapy, or speech therapy, the provider shall obtain a plan of treatment from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment. The provider shall obtain the plan of treatment at least every ninety days for each consumer that receives medication, a nursing service, nutrition counseling, physical therapy, or speech therapy. For diet orders that may be part of a plan of treatment, a new diet order is not required every ninety days. Instead, the provider is subject to the diet-order requirements under rule 173-4-06 of the Administrative Code.
(g) Interdisciplinary care conference (conference):
(i) Frequency: The provider shall conduct a conference for each consumer at least once every six months.
(ii) Participants: The provider shall conduct the conference between the provider's staff members and invitees who choose to participate. At least seven days before the conference begins, the provider shall invite the following persons to participate in the conference and provide those persons with the date and time of the conference:
(a) The consumer.
(b) The consumer's case manager, if the consumer receives case management as part of care coordination.
(c) Any licensed healthcare profession who does not work for the provider, but who provided the provider with a health assessment of the consumer or an activity plan for the consumer.
(d) The consumer's caregiver, if the consumer has a caregiver.
(iii) Revise activity plan: If the conference participants identify changes in the consumer's health needs, condition, preferences, or responses to the service, the provider shall obtain the services of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes developing activity plans to revise the activity plan accordingly or require a staff member who is such a licensed healthcare professional to revise the activity plan accordingly.
(h) Activities: The provider shall announce daily and monthly planned activities through two or more of the following media:
(i) Posters in prominent locations throughout the center.
(ii) An electronic display (e.g., a television) in a prominent location in the center.
(iii) The center's website.
(iv) A direct communication sent to consumers (and others), such as email, text, mail, or another medium.
(i) Lunch and snacks:
(i) The provider shall provide lunch and snacks to each consumer who is present during lunchtime or snacktime.
(ii) The provision of lunch shall comply with paragraphs (A)(7) to (A)(12) of rule 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code and paragraph (E) of rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Center requirements: A provider may qualify for an AAA-provider agreement to provide ADS if the provider's center meets the following specifications:
(a) If the center is housed in a building with services or programs other than ADS, a separate, identifiable space and staff are available for ADS activities during all hours in which the provider provides ADS in the center.
(b) The center complies with the "ADA Accessibility Guidelines for Buildings and Facilities" in appendix A to 28 C.F.R. Part 36.
(c) The center has at least sixty square feet per individual that it serves, excluding hallways, offices, rest rooms, and storage areas.
(d) The provider stores consumers' medications in a locked area that the provider maintains at a temperature that meets the storage requirements of the medications.
(e) The provider stores toxic substances in an area that is inaccessible to consumers.
(f) The center has at least one toilet for every ten individuals present that it serves and at least one wheelchair-accessible toilet.
(g) If the center provides intensive ADS, the center has bathing facilities suitable to the needs of consumers who require intensive ADS.
(4) Staffing levels:
(a) The provider shall have at least two staff members present whenever more than one consumer is present, including one who is a paid PCA and one who is certified in CPR.
(b) The provider shall maintain a staff-to-consumer ratio of at least one staff member to every six consumers at all times.
(c) The provider shall have one RN, or LPN under the direction of an RN, available whenever a consumer who receives enhanced ADS or intensive ADS requires components of enhanced ADS or intensive ADS that fall within a nurse's scope of practice.
(d) The provider shall employ an activity director to direct consumer activities.
(5) Provider qualification:
(a) Type of provider: Only agency providers qualify to provide ADS.
(b) Staff qualifications:
(i) Every person who is an RN, LPN under the direction of an RN, social worker, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, speech therapist, dietitian, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, or other licensed professional qualifies to practice in the adult day center only if the person has a current and valid license to practice in their profession.
(ii) A person qualifies to be an activity director only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A baccalaureate or associate degree in recreational therapy or a related degree.
(b) At least two years of experience as an activity director, activity assistant or a related position.
(c) Compliance with the qualifications under rule 3701-17-07 of the Administrative Code for directing resident activities in a nursing home.
(d) A certification from the national certification council for activity professionals (NCCAP).
(iii) A person qualifies to be an activity assistant only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A high school diploma.
(b) A high school equivalence diploma as defined in section 5107.40 of the Revised Code.
(c) At least two years of employment in a supervised position to provide personal care, to provide activities, or to assist with activities.
(iv) A person qualifies to be a PCA only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A high school diploma.
(b) A high school equivalence diploma as defined in section 5107.40 of the Revised Code.
(c) At least two years of employment in a supervised position to provide personal care, to provide activities, or to assist with activities.
(d) The successful completion of a vocational program in a health or human services field.
(v) Each staff member who provides transportation to consumers shall comply with all requirements under rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Staff training:
(i) Orientation: The provider shall comply with the requirements for the orientation of PCAs in rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) Task-based training: Before each new PCA provides an ADS, the provider shall provide task-based training.
(iii) Continuing education: Each staff member shall successfully complete at least eight hours of in-service or continuing education on appropriate topics every twelve months. A staff member's successful completion of one to eight hours of continuing education or in-service training to maintain a professional license, certification, or registration used to provide ADS counts towards this eight-hour requirement if successfully completed during the same calendar year.
(iv) Verification of compliance: The provider shall comply with paragraph (B)(3)(f) of rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code regarding records of each PCA's successful completion of any training and competency evaluation program, orientation, and in-service training.
(d) Performance reviews: The provider shall complete a performance review of each staff member in relation to the staff member's job description.
(6) Service verification:
(a) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Consumer's name.
(ii) Service date.
(iii) Consumer's arrival and departure times.
(iv) Consumer's mode of transportation.
(v) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the service.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units of service:
(1) Attendance: Units of ADS are calculated as follows:
(a) One-half unit is less than four hours of ADS per day.
(b) One unit is four to eight hours of ADS per day.
(c) A fifteen-minute unit is each fifteen-minute period of time over eight hours up to, and including, a maximum of twelve hours of ADS per day.
(2) Transportation: A unit of ADS does not include transportation, as defined by rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code, even if the transportation is provided to transport the consumer to or from the center.
Last updated July 30, 2026 at 8:48 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.6
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Transportation" means a service that transports a consumer from one place to another through the use of a provider's vehicle and driver, and which may, or may not, include providing the consumer with assistance to safely enter and exit the vehicle. "Transportation" does not include the following:
(a) Trips otherwise available, or funded by, Ohio's medicaid program or another source.
(b) Trips provided through a similar service in this chapter or Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code.
(2) "Board of EMFTS" means the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services created under section 4765.02 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Bus" has the same meaning as in section 4513.50 of the Revised Code.
(4) "CLIA-certified laboratory" means a laboratory that ODH lists as a "CLIA Lab" in active status on the "Long-Term Care, Non Long-Term Care, & CLIA Health Care Provider Search" (http://publicapps.odh.ohio.gov/eid/Provider_Search.aspx).
(5) "First responder" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) "EMT" means any of the emergency medical technicians defined in division (A), (B), or (C) of section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for transportation paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) General requirements:
(a) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Availability: The provider shall possess a back-up plan that describes the process for transporting or notifying consumers when the driver or vehicle is unavailable.
(c) Assisted transportation: The AAA-provider agreement shall list situations when drivers need to provide consumers with assistance to safely enter and exit vehicles, pick-up locations, and drop-off locations.
(d) Two-way communication: Providers are subject to the requirement in division (A)(1) of section 4766.14 of the Revised Code to provide drivers with a means of two-way communication, using either ambulette vehicle radios or cellular telephones, while transporting consumers.
(2) Vehicle requirements:
(a) Maintenance: The provider shall maintain vehicles according to the manufacturer's maintenance schedule for each vehicle used to transport consumers. If the vehicle includes a wheelchair lift, the provider shall maintain the wheelchair lift according to the manufacturer's maintenance schedule for the wheelchair lift.
(b) Inspections: The provider shall conduct the following inspections on each vehicle used to transport consumers:
(i) An annual vehicle inspection on an ODA-approved form. The provider may use a vehicle for transporting consumers only if a mechanic who is certified by the national institute for automotive service excellence (i.e., "ASE-certified"), or another mechanic approved by the AAA, inspected the vehicle no more than twelve months before and answers all questions on the form in the affirmative.
(ii) A daily inspection of any vehicle that transports consumers in a wheelchair. The provider may use a vehicle to transport consumers in a wheelchair only if, before providing the first trip of the day, the provider inspected the vehicle to ensure that permanent fasteners, safety harnesses or belts, and access ramp or hydraulic lift are working and only if the provider retains a record of this inspection.
(c) Vehicles deemed to comply:
(i) A vehicle possessing a current, valid ambulance or ambulette license is deemed to comply with paragraphs (B)(2)(a) and (B)(2)(b) of this rule by providing the AAA with evidence of the vehicle's current, valid ambulance or ambulette license.
(ii) A bus displaying a current, valid safety-inspection decal issued by the state highway patrol under Chapter 4501-52 of the Administrative Code is deemed to comply with paragraph (B)(2)(b)(i) of this rule. Providers using a vehicle with a current, valid safety-inspection decal issued under section 4513.52 of the Revised Code may demonstrate compliance with paragraph (B)(2)(b)(i) of this rule by providing the AAA with evidence of the vehicle's current, valid decal.
(3) Driver requirements:
(a) Statutory requirements to hire: The provider may hire a person to be a driver only if the person meets all the requirements for drivers under divisions (A)(3) and (B) of section 4766.14 of the Revised Code, as amplified in paragraph (A)(8) of rule 4766-3-13 of the Administrative Code, subject to the following conditions:
(i) The applicant's first-aid training and cardiopulmonary-resuscitation training came from a training organization approved by the board of EMFTS (https://ems.ohio.gov/medical-transportation-licensing/help/help).
(ii) The applicant's drug test results came from a CLIA-certified laboratory and declared the applicant to be free of alcohol, amphetamines, cannabinoids (THC), cocaine, opiates, or phencyclidine (PCP).
(iii) The provider complies with the background-check requirements in Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, which exempts an applicant for a volunteer driver position and an applicant for a position solely involving transporting consumers while working for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission.
(b) Additional requirements to hire: The provider may hire a person to be a driver only if the person meets all the following requirements:
(i) The applicant has held a current, valid driver's license for at least two years.
(ii) The applicant holds any driver's license endorsement necessary to operate the type of vehicle the applicant would drive.
(iii) The applicant has the ability to understand written, electronic, and oral instructions.
(iv) The applicant has the ability to provide transportation assistance.
(v) The applicant has the ability to comply with the trip-verification requirements in paragraph (B)(4)(a) of this rule.
(c) Passenger-assistance training: The provider may retain a driver only if the driver successfully completes a passenger-assistance training course approved by the board of EMFTS (https://ems.ohio.gov/medical-transportation-licensing/help/help) no later than six months after the provider hires the driver.
(d) Professionals deemed to comply: Providers hiring an applicant who is one or more of the following professionals may demonstrate compliance with paragraphs (B)(3)(a), (B)(3)(b), and (B)(3)(c) of this rule by providing the AAA with evidence the applicant is such a professional:
(i) An ambulette driver.
(ii) An EMT or first responder or a candidate to be an EMT or first responder who passed the board of EMFTS' curriculum for an EMT or first responder, but has not yet obtained a current, valid certification for either profession.
(iii) A driver for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission.
(4) Trip verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each trip provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Type of trip (transportation or assisted transportation).
(c) Date of trip.
(d) Pick-up location and time of pick-up.
(e) Destination location and time of drop-off.
(f) Driver's name.
(g) The unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the trip. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each trip provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver if the provider collects the unique identifier of the driver to attest to providing the trip.
(C) Unit and rate:
(1) A one-way trip is one unit of transportation.
(2) The unit rate in an AAA-provider agreement reflects the provider's fully-allocated costs, including administrative and training costs.
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-06
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Diet order" means an order for a therapeutic diet from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes ordering a therapeutic diet.
(2) "Therapeutic diet" means a calculated nutritive regimen including, the following regimens:
(a) Diabetic and other nutritive regimens requiring a daily specific calorie level.
(b) Renal nutritive regimens.
(c) Dysphagia nutritive regimens, excluding simple textural modifications.
(d) Any other nutritive regimen requiring a daily minimum or maximum level of one or more specific nutrients or a specific distribution of one or more nutrients.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for therapeutic diets paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to the requirements in rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Diet orders:
(a) The provider may provide a therapeutic diet to a consumer only if the provider received a diet order for the consumer or if it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet. If a therapeutic diet is a dysphagia nutritive regimen, the provider may provide the therapeutic diet only if the diet order indicates whether the consumer requires texture-modified foods and/or thickened liquids.
(b) The provider shall provide a therapeutic dietto the consumer identified in a diet order for the shorter of the following two durations:
(i) The length of time authorized by the diet order.
(ii) One year from the date the diet order indicates the diet should begin.
(c) The provider shall provide the therapeutic diet according to any updated diet order if the updated diet order is received before the expiration of the current diet order.
(d) The provider may use either nutrient analysis or a meal-pattern plan approved by a dietitian to assure that the therapeutic diet contains nutrients consistent with the diet order.
(e) The provider may provide a therapeutic diet only if the provider (or, if the consumer is in a care-coordination program, the AAA) retains a copy of the diet order unless it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet.
(3) Dietitians:
(a) The provider shall determine the need, feasibility, and cost-effectiveness of offering a therapeutic diet by consulting with a licensed dietitian.
(b) A provider may provide a therapeutic diet only if the provider relies upon the oversight of a dietitian when providing the therapeutic diet.
Last updated December 1, 2023 at 9:30 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05
(A) Requirements, flexibilities, and recommendations to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a nutrition project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Every AAA-provider agreement paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Project types:
(a) An AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project, is subject to rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) An AAA-provider agreement for a home-delivered meals project, is subject to rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
(c) An AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project based in restaurants and grocery stores, is subject to rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Separate project components: If the AAA procured for components of a nutrition project separately, the AAA shall identify in each provider's AAA-provider agreement, which requirements in Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code each provider is required to provide.
(4) Nutrition services in addition to providing meals:
(a) The AAA shall include a requirement for the provider to provide nutrition health screening to consumers at least every calendar year and strongly encourage providers to provide the nutrition health screening in person.
(b) The AAA shall indicate whether the provider is offering nutrition assessment, nutrition counseling, or nutrition education to consumers.
(c) The AAA shall indicate whether the provider is providing grocery shopping assistance or grocery ordering and delivery to consumers, and if so, include the requirements in rules 173-4-10 and 173-4-11 of the Administrative Code in the AAA-provider agreement.
(5) Eligibility verification: The provider shall determine the eligibility of each consumer before paying for their meals, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds and do so in person whenever possible.
(6) Consumer contributions: The provider is subject to rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(7) Person direction:
(a) The provider shall implement the person direction the provider pledged to provide when the provider bid for the AAA-provider agreement. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider is only responsible for providing the person direction that the provider pledged to provide to the extent practicable during the state of emergency or federal public health emergency.
(b) The provider shall offer consumers opportunities to give feedback on current and future menus.
(8) Menus:
(a) The provider shall only offer menus approved by a dietitian.
(b) The AAA shall indicate the method by which the provider offers ingredient information on the meals provided to consumers.
(c) The provider shall list the serving size for each food item on each production menu.
(9) Nutritional adequacy:
(a) The provider shall offer meals that satisfy at least one-third of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) for each mealtime by targeting nutrient levels on the predominant population and health characteristics of the consumers in the PSA. The federal government makes the DRIs available to the general public free of charge on https://www.nal.usda.gov/fnic/dietary-reference-intakes.
(b) For each mealtime, the provider shall offer meals that follow the "Dietary Guidelines for Americans."
(c) For each meal time, the provider shall offer meals that, to the maximum extent practicable, are adjusted to meet any special dietary needs of consumers, including meals adjusted for cultural considerations, and preferences, and medically-tailored meals.
(d) The provider has flexibility in designing meals that are appealing to consumers.
(e) The provider has flexibility to use either nutrient analysis or menu patterns to determine nutritional adequacy.
(f) The AAA shall encourage providers to use, where feasible, locally-grown foods and identify potential partnerships and contracts with local producers and providers of locally-grown foods.
(10) Diet orders: If the AAA-provider agreement requires the provider to offer consumers therapeutic diets, then the provider is subject to the additional requirements in rule 173-4-06 of the Administrative Code unless it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet.
(11) Dietary supplements: The provider shall not pay for supplements, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds unless the supplement is part of a meal with a therapeutic diet.
(12) Food safety:
(a) The AAA shall indicate whether the United States department of agriculture, Ohio department of agriculture, another state's department of agriculture, or a local health district has jurisdiction to monitor the provider's compliance with food-safety laws, including sanitation, food temperatures, thermometers, food-borne illnesses, packaging, and dating meals.
(b) The AAA shall state that the AAA is responsible for reporting any reasonable cause to believe a provider is out of compliance with food-safety laws to the government authority identified in the AAA-provider agreement to comply with paragraph (A)(12)(a) of this rule.
(13) Training:
(a) The provider shall develop a training plan that includes orientation and annual in-service training.
(i) Orientation: The provider shall ensure that each employee, including each volunteer, who participates in meal preparation, handling, storage, or delivery successfully completes orientation on topics relevant to the employee's job duties before the employee performs those duties.
(ii) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each employee, including a volunteer, who participates in meal preparation, handling, storage, or delivery successfully completes in-service training every twelve months on topics relevant to the employee's job duties.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider is not responsible for complying with paragraph (A)(13)(a)(i) or (A)(13)(a)(ii) of this rule.
(B) Units:
(1) Congregate dining project: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Home-delivered meals project: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Congregate dining project based in restaurants or grocery stores: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated December 1, 2023 at 9:30 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.1
The following are the requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Availability:
(1) The provider shall keep at least one congregate dining location in its nutrition project open for business to provide meals for at least one mealtime (i.e., a breakfast, lunch, or dinner) per day to consumers on five or more days per week, within a reasonable distance to older adult target populations. An AAA may obtain AGE's approval to enter into an AAA-provider agreement that allows fewer days per week or during a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency.
(2) The provider has flexibility to offer meals in different congregate dining locations on different days rather than have every congregate dining location open for at least five days per week.
(C) Carry-out meals: Older Americans Act Title III-C1 funds do not pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals (also known as "grab-and-go meals") provided at congregate dining locations unless all of the following apply:
(1) AGE approved an AAA's area plan or an amendment to the area plan to allow Title III C-1 funds to pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(i), subject to any limitations in the approved area plan or area plan amendment.
(2) The meals provided on a carry-out basis do not exceed the twenty-five per-cent limits in 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(ii).
(3) Each carry-out meal is provided to a consumer in one of the scenarios under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(iii).
(D) Emergency closings:
(1) The provider shall give those consumers enrolled in its congregate dining project reasonable notice, to the extent practicable, before a scheduled mealtime when a congregate dining location will be closed due to weather-related emergencies, loss of power, kitchen malfunctions, natural disasters, a state of emergency declared by the governor, or a federal public health emergency by using broadcast media, its website, telephone, or by any combination of the three.
(2) The provider shall distribute information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf to prepare for emergency closings.
(E) Quality assurance: Each year, the provider shall implement a plan to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the project's operations and services to ensure continuous improvement by reviewing the existing project and the changing needs or interests of consumers, staff, or volunteers.
(F) Meal verification:
(1) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of meal provision.
(c) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the meal.
(2) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each meal provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
Last updated November 3, 2025 at 7:43 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-17-07
(A) Every nursing home administrator will be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code, unless specifically exempted from licensing under that chapter.
(B) No person with a disease which may be transmitted in the performance of the person's job responsibilities will work in a nursing home during the stage of communicability unless the person is given duties that minimize the likelihood of transmission and follows infection control precautions and procedures.
(C) No person is allowed to work in a nursing home under either of the following circumstances:
(1) Under the influence of alcohol, intoxicants or illegal drugs; or
(2) When the person is using medications to the extent that the use adversely affects the performance of their duties or the health or safety of any resident of the home.
(D) No individual is allowed to work in a nursing home in any capacity for ten or more hours in any thirty-day period unless the individual has been examined within thirty days before commencing work, or on the first day of work, by a physician or other licensed health professional acting within their applicable scope of practice and certified as medically capable of performing their prescribed duties. Operators will retain documentation evidencing compliance with this paragraph and furnish such documentation to the director upon request. This paragraph does not apply to volunteers.
(E) Employees of temporary employment services or, to the extent applicable, paid consultants working in a nursing home, will have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule, except that a new medical certification is not obligated for each new assignment. Each nursing home in which such an individual works will obtain verification of the medical certification result, as applicable, from the employment agency or consultant before the individual begins work and maintain this documentation on file.
(F) Individuals used by an adult day care program provided by and on the same site as the nursing home will have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule if the adult day care program is located or shares space within the same building as the nursing home or if there is a sharing of staff between the nursing home and adult day care program.
(G) The individual responsible for the comprehensive activities program set forth inparagraph (A) of rule 3701-17-09 of the Administrative Code to direct the activities program will meet one of the following qualifications:
(1) Has two years of experience in a social or recreational program within the five years preceding the date of hire, one year of which was full-time in a resident activities program in a health care setting;
(2) Is licensed as an occupational therapist under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(3) Is licensed as an occupational therapy assistant under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(4) Is certified by a nationally recognized accrediting body as a therapeutic recreation specialist or activities professional; or
(5) Has successfully completed training covering activities programming from a technical or vocational school, college, university, or other educational institution, and has one year of experience in recreational or activities services. Training may also be provided by an out-of-state provider certified in the state in which the provider is located to offer technical or vocational programs or to offer degrees and college credits. For individuals hired after April 18, 2002, the minimum amount of training needed to meet this requirement is ninety hours.
(H) A food service manager designated pursuant to paragraph (J) of rule 3701-17-18 of the Administrative Code who has supervisory and management responsibility and the authority to direct and control food preparation and service will obtain the level two certification in food protection according to rule 3701-21-25 of the Administrative Code.
(I) All individuals used by the nursing home who function in a professional capacity will meet the standards applicable to that profession, including but not limited to, possessing a current Ohio license, registration, or certification, if mandated by law.
(J) The operator or administrator will ensure that each staff member, consultant and volunteer used by the nursing home receives orientation and training to the extent necessary to perform their job responsibilities prior to commencing such job responsibilities independently that includes orientation and training about residents rights, person-centered care, the physical layout of the nursing home, the applicable job responsibilities, the home's policies and procedures applicable to assuring safe and appropriate resident care, infection control, emergency assistance procedures, and the disaster preparedness plan.
(K) No nursing home is allowed to employ or continue to employ a person who applies for a position that involves the provision of direct care to an older adult, if the person:
(1) Has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed in division (C)(1) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code, unless the individual is hired under the personal character standards set forth in rule 3701-13-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Fails to complete the form(s) or provide fingerprint impressions in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code;
(3) Is the subject of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry, established pursuant to section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;
(4) Is the subject of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry established by another state where the home believes or has reason to believe the person resides or resided; or
(5) Has a disciplinary action that is currently in effect and has been taken out against a professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident.
Last updated July 17, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: July 17, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.5
(A) Definition for this rule: "Personal care" means a case-managed service comprised of activities to help a consumer achieve optimal functioning with ADLs and IADLs.
(1) "Personal care" includes the following activities:
(a) Assisting the consumer with ADLs, IADLs, household management, personal affairs, and self-administration of medications.
(b) Homemaker activities listed in rule 173-3-06.4 of the Administrative Code, if the activities are specified in the consumer's activities plan and are incidental to the activities provided, or are essential to the health and safety of the consumer, rather than the consumer's family. The homemaker activities include routine meal-related activities, routine household activities, and routine transportation activities.
(c) The activities described in paragraphs (A)(1)(a) to (A)(1)(b) of this rule when they assist the consumer as respite to the consumer's caregiver or are essential to the health and safety of the consumer as respite to the consumer's caregiver.
(2) "Personal care" does not include the following activities:
(a) Activities provided outside of the home except for routine transportation activities listed in paragraph (A)(1)(b) of this rule.
(b) Activities within the scope of home maintenance and chores.
(c) Activities available through third-party insurers, community supports, Ohio medicaid state plan, or a medicaid waiver program.
(d) Activities to administer or set-up medications.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for personal care paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) General requirements: The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Licensure: The provider is subject to the requirement under Chapter 3740. of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code for the provider to hold a current, valid license to provide skilled home health services or nonmedical home health services.
(3) Availability: The provider shall maintain the following:
(a) Adequate staffing levels to provide personal care at least five days per week.
(b) A back-up plan for providing personal care when the provider has no PCA available.
(c) The availability of a PCA supervisor during all hours when PCAs are scheduled to work.
(4) PCAs:
(a) Initial qualifications: The provider may allow a person to serve as a PCA only if the person meets at least one of the following qualifications and if the provider meets the verification requirements under paragraph (B)(4)(d) of this rule:
(i) STNA: The person successfully completed a nurse aide training and competency evaluation program approved by Ohio department of health (ODH) under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code.
(ii) Medicare: The person met the qualifications to be a medicare-certified home health aide according to one of the following sets of standards:
(a) The standards in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 and 484.36, if the person met those standards on or before January 12, 2018.
(b) The standards in 42 C.F.R. 484.80 and 484.115, if the person met those standards on or after January 13, 2018.
(iii) Previous experience: The person has at least one year of supervised employment experience as a home health aide or nurse aide and has successfully completed competency evaluation covering the topics listed under paragraph (B)(4)(a)(v)(b) of this rule.
(iv) Vocational programs: The person successfully completed the COALA home health training program or another vocational school program that included at least thirty hours of training and competency evaluation covering the topics listed under paragraph (B)(4)(a)(v)(b) of this rule.
(v) Other programs: The person successfully completed a training and competency evaluation program with the following characteristics:
(a) The training lasted at least thirty hours.
(b) All the following subjects were included in the program's training and its competency evaluation:
(i) Communications skills, including the ability to read, write, and make brief and accurate reports (oral, written, or electronic).
(ii) Observation, reporting, and retaining records of a consumer's status and activities provided to the consumer.
(iii) Reading and recording a consumer's temperature, pulse, and respiration.
(iv) Basic elements of bodily functioning and changes in body function that should be reported to a PCA supervisor.
(v) The homemaker activities listed in rule 173-3-06.4 of the Administrative Code.
(vi) Recognition of emergencies, and knowledge of emergency procedures.
(vii) Physical, emotional, and developmental needs of consumers, including the need for privacy and respect for consumers and their property.
(viii) Techniques in personal hygiene and grooming that include bed, tub, shower, and partial bath techniques; shampoo in sink, tub, or bed; nail and skin care; oral hygiene; toileting and elimination; safe transfer and ambulation; normal range of motion and positioning; and adequate nutrition and fluid intake.
(b) Orientation: Before allowing PCAs or other employees to meet consumers in person, the provider shall ensure that the PCAs or other employees successfully completed orientation that, at a minimum, addressed the following topics:
(i) The provider's expectations of employees.
(ii) Person-centered care.
(iii) The provider's ethical standards.
(iv) An overview of the provider's personnel policies.
(v) The organization and lines of communication of the provider's agency.
(vi) Incident reporting.
(vii) Emergency procedures.
(viii) Standard precautions for infection control, including hand washing and the disposal of bodily waste.
(c) Additional training: The provider shall ensure that each PCA successfully completes additional training and competency evaluation if the PCA is expected to perform activities for which the PCA did not receive training or undergo competency evaluation under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of this rule.
(d) In-service training: The provider shall retain records to show that each PCA successfully completes six hours of ODA-approved in-service training every twelve months. Agency- and program-specific orientation do not count toward the six hours. If the PCA is also a homemaker aide (aide) according to rule 173-3-06.4 of the Administrative Code, the provider may consider six hours of successfully-completed in-service training as an aide to count for the six hours required by this paragraph.
(e) Acceptable training, orientation, and competency evaluation.
(i) An organization other than the provider may provide the orientation and training required in paragraphs (B)(4)(b) to (B)(4)(d) of this rule. Any training successfully through https://mylearning.dodd.ohio.gov/ or https://collinslearnng.com/home-health-care/ is approved.
(ii) The portion of training that is not competency evaluation may occur online.
(iii) The portion of competency evaluation that involves return demonstration only qualifies as competency evaluation under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of this rule if it is conducted in person.
(f) Verification of compliance with PCA qualifications and requirements:
(i) The provider shall either retain copies of certificates of completion earned by each PCA after the PCA meets qualifications/requirements under paragraph (B)(4) of this rule for successfully completing any training and competency evaluation program, orientation, additional training, and in-service training under paragraph (B)(4) of this rule or record the following information for each PCA, and retain it, if it does not appear on the PCA's certificate of completion (or if the PCA did not receive a certificate of completion): name of the school or training organization, name of the course, training dates, and training hours successfully completed.
(ii) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of this rule by successfully completing a nurse aide training and competency evaluation program described in paragraph (B)(4)(a)(i) of this rule, the provider shall retain a copy of the search results from ODH's nurse aide registry (https://nurseaideregistry.odh.ohio.gov/Public/PublicNurseAideSearch) to verify the registry listed the person as "active," "in good standing," or "expired."
(iii) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of this rule only by the previous employment experience described in paragraph (B)(4)(a)(iii) of this rule, the provider shall also retain records to verify the person's name, the former employer's name and contact information, the former supervisor's name, the date the person began working for the former employer, and the date the person stopped working for the former employer.
(5) PCA supervisors, PCA trainers, and PCA testers:
(a) Qualifications: The provider may allow only an RN or LPN to be a PCA supervisor, PCA trainer, or PCA tester.
(b) PCA supervisor visits:
(i) Initial: The PCA supervisor shall visit each consumer in person at the consumer's home to define the expected activities of the PCA and develop a written or electronic activity plan with the consumer either before allowing a PCA to provide an episode of service to the consumer or during the PCA's initial episode of service to the consumer. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the PCA supervisor may conduct the visit by telephone, video conference, or in person at the consumer's home.
(ii) Subsequent: The PCA supervisor shall visit the consumer in person at the consumer's home at least once every sixty days after the PCA's initial episode of service with the consumer to evaluate compliance with the activities plan, the consumer's satisfaction, and the PCA's performance. The PCA supervisor may conduct subsequent visits with or without the presence of the PCA being evaluated. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the PCA supervisor may conduct subsequent visits by telephone or video conference, unless an emergency requires visiting the consumer in person at the consumer's home.
(iii) Verification: In the consumer's record, the PCA supervisor shall retain a record of the initial visit and each subsequent visit that includes either of the following:
(a) For an in-person visit, the date of the visit, an indication that the visit occurred in person at the consumer's home, the PCA supervisor's name, the PCA supervisor's unique identifier, the consumer's name, and a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify that the PCA supervisor provided the initial or subsequent visit without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(b) For a visit by telephone or video conference, the date of the visit, an indication of whether the visit was provided by telephone or video conference, the PCA supervisor's name, the consumer's name, and evidence that a visit occurred by telephone or video conference (e.g., a record automatically generated by telehealth software, a record showing that the PCA supervisor's phone called the consumer's phone, or clinical notes from the PCA supervisor).
(6) Provider's policies:
(a) The provider shall develop, implement, comply with, and maintain written or electronic policies on all the following topics:
(i) Job descriptions.
(ii) Qualifications to provide personal care.
(iii) Incident reporting.
(iv) Obtaining the consumer's written or electronic permission before releasing information concerning the consumer to anyone.
(v) The required content, handling, storage, and retention of consumer records.
(vi) The provider's ethical standards.
(vii) Assistance with self-administration of medication.
(b) The provider shall make its policies available to all employees and provide to ODA or the AAA upon request.
(7) Service verification:
(a) The provider is subject to section 121.36 of the Revised Code.
(b) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Consumer's name.
(ii) Service date.
(iii) PCA's arrival time.
(iv) PCA's departure time.
(v) Description of the activities provided.
(vi) Service units.
(vii) Name of each PCA in contact with the consumer.
(viii) The unique identifier of each PCA in contact with the consumer to attest to providing the service.
(ix) The unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the service.
(c) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Unit of service: A unit of personal care is one hour of personal care. Providers may report partial hours to two decimal places (e.g., "0.25 hours").
Last updated March 12, 2026 at 1:17 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.2 Older Americans Act: home maintenance and chores.
(A) "Home maintenance and chores" means a service providing critical cleaning, maintenance, or repair of elements in a consumer's home or surrounding property which are necessary to preserve the consumer's health and welfare.
(1) "Home maintenance and chores" includes the assessment, materials, and labor involved in any of the following activities:
(a) Heavy household cleaning, including washing walls and ceilings; washing the outside of windows, washing the inside of difficult-to-reach windows; removing, cleaning, and re-hanging curtains or drapery; and, shampooing carpets or furniture.
(b) Disposing garbage or recyclable materials.
(c) Seasonal outdoor maintenance, including cleaning gutters and downspouts; removing leaves, snow, or ice; trimming shrubs; cutting grass; or installing existing storm windows.
(d) Inspecting HVAC equipment, water heater, or water pump.
(e) Repairing damaged, malfunctioning, or unsafe HVAC equipment, plumbing, electrical systems, roofing, stairs, or floors.
(f) Household maintenance, including replacing light bulbs, unclogging a drain, lighting a pilot light, replacing an electrical fuse, replacing broken window panes, repairing/replacing damaged window or door screens, or changing a furnace filter.
(g) Pest control.
(2) "Home maintenance and chores" does not include any of the following activities:
(a) An activity that another person (e.g., a landlord) has a legal or contractual responsibility to provide.
(b) An activity that is available through third-party insurers, community supports, Ohio medicaid state plan, or a medicaid waiver program.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for home maintenance and chores paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to the requirements in rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Licensure or accreditation: If an activity needs a license or credential (e.g., pest control), only a provider who possesses the current, valid license or credential qualifies to provide the activity.
(3) Consent agreement: The provider shall not provide any of the activities described in paragraphs (A)(1)(e) to (A)(1)(g) of this rule without first obtaining a written or electronic consent agreement from the homeowner, which may be the consumer, the consumer's family, or a landlord.
(4) Health and safety: If the provider anticipates health or safety risks to the consumer during an activity, the provider shall inform the consumer and the AAA of the risks and provide the activity on dates and times that minimize those risks. The provider is subject to any and all applicable local codes or ordinances in the provision of each activity.
(5) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each activity that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date that the activity was provided.
(c) Description of the activity provided.
(d) Name of each employee providing the activity.
(e) The unique identifier of the provider to attest to providing the activity.
(f) The unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the activity. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify the activity provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units: One unit of home maintenance and chores is one activity reported in hours. Providers may report partial hours to two decimal places (e.g., "0.25 hours"). Material costs are part of the hourly rate. (For example, if a provider normally charges thirty dollars per hour and a three-hour service involves thirty dollars in materials, the provider would bill for three units at forty dollars per unit.)
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.3 Older Americans Act: home modification.
(A) "Home modification" means a service modifying elements of the interior or exterior of a consumer's home to increase accessibility and enable the consumer to function with greater independence in the home.
(1) "Home modification" includes the assessment, materials, and labor involved in any of the following:
(a) Installing grab bars or other devices to improve the consumer's ability to perform ADLs.
(b) Modifying the interior or exterior of the consumer's home to improve the consumer's health and safety.
(c) Installing a wheelchair ramp to a doorway or another modification to improve the consumer's accessibility.
(d) Repairing or replacing a home modification previously paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, if the previous modification cannot be repaired or replaced through another resource.
(2) "Home modification" does not include a service with any of the following characteristics:
(a) Another person (e.g., a landlord) has a legal or contractual responsibility to provide the service.
(b) The service is available through Ohio medicaid state plan, a medicaid waiver program, or another government program, pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
(c) The service is available through third-party insurers or a community support program.
(d) The service would add square footage to the home.
(e) The service would provide general utility and not direct medical or remedial benefit to the consumer.
(f) The service would repair or replace a home modification previously paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, that is damaged as a result of apparent abuse, misuse, or negligence.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for home modification paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) General requirements: The AAA-provider agreement is subject to requirements in rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Licensure or accreditation: If a modification requires a license or credential (e.g., an electrician, a HVAC specialist, a plumber), only a provider who possesses the current, valid license or credential qualifies to modify the home.
(3) Authorization: Before modifying a home, the provider shall do the following:
(a) Provide a written or electronic estimate to the AAA on the cost of the modification.
(b) Obtain the AAA's written or electronic authorization to begin the modification.
(4) Consent agreement: A provider shall not modify a home without first obtaining a written or electronic consent agreement from the homeowner (which may be the consumer, the consumer's family, or a landlord) authorizing the modification and acknowledging that the homeowner understands that the home will remain in the modified state until after the consumer leaves the home.
(5) Permits: Before modifying a home, the provider shall obtain any permit and pre-modification inspections required by federal, state, and local laws.
(6) Health and safety: If the provider anticipates health or safety risks to the consumer while modifying the home, the provider shall inform the consumer and the AAA of the risks and modify the home on dates and times that minimize those risks.
(7) Warranty: The provider shall provide a warranty to the AAA covering the workmanship and materials involved in the modification.
(8) Inspection: The provider is subject to any necessary inspection, inspection report, or permit required by federal, state, and local laws or a homeowners' association to verify that the modification was properly completed.
(9) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for this service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) One of the following dates:
(i) The date the provider completes the modification if the provider only makes one modification to the home.
(ii) The date the provider completes the last modification if the provider makes multiple, related modifications to the home.
(c) Description of the modification(s).
(d) Name of each employee modifying the home.
(e) The unique identifier of the provider to attest to the completion of the modification(s).
(f) The unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to the completion of the modification(s). During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify the completion of the modification(s) without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) A unit of home modification is one completed modification.
(2) The rate is negotiable and subject to the approval of the AAA before the home is modified. It includes assessment, materials, and labor.
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.4 Older Americans Act: homemaker service.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Homemaker service" (homemaker) means a case-managed service providing routine activities to help a consumer to achieve and maintain a clean, safe, and healthy living environment.
(a) "Homemaker service" includes the following activities:
(i) Routine meal-related activities: planning a meal, preparing a meal, and planning a grocery purchase.
(ii) Routine household activities: dusting furniture, sweeping, vacuuming, mopping floors, removing trash, and washing the inside of windows that are reachable from the floor, kitchen care (washing dishes, appliances, and counters), bedroom and bathroom care (changing bed linens and emptying and cleaning bedside commodes), and laundry care (washing, drying, folding, ironing, and putting the laundry away in the consumer's home and washing and drying at a laundromat if the consumer does not have a working washer and dryer).
(iii) Routine transportation activities: providing an errand outside of the presence of the consumer (e.g., picking up a prescription or groceries), or escort, but not transportation under rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) The activities described in paragraphs (A)(1)(a)(i) to (A)(1)(a)(iii) of this rule when they assist the consumer as respite to the consumer's caregiver or are essential to the health and safety of the consumer as respite to the consumer's caregiver.
(b) "Homemaker service" does not include the following activities:
(i) Activities provided outside of the home with the exceptions of the laundry activities in paragraph (A)(1)(a)(ii) of this rule and the routine transportation activities in paragraph (A)(1)(a)(iii) of this rule.
(ii) Activities within the scope of home maintenance and chores.
(iii) Activities available through third-party insurers, community supports, Ohio medicaid state plan, or a medicaid waiver program.
(iv) Activities to administer or set-up medications.
(2) "Aide" means the person who provides homemaker activities.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement with agency providers for homemaker activities paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Licensure: The provider is subject to the requirement under Chapter 3740. of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code for the provider to hold a current, valid license to provide skilled home health services or nonmedical home health services.
(3) Availability: The provider shall maintain the following:
(a) Adequate staffing levels to provide homemaker activities at least five days per week.
(b) A back-up plan for providing homemaker activities when the provider has no aide available.
(c) The availability of an aide supervisor during all hours when aides are scheduled to work.
(4) Aides:
(a) General standard: No aide may provide an activity under paragraph (A)(1)(a) of this rule unless the aide successfully completes training and competency evaluation on that activity
(b) Initial qualifications: The provider may allow a person to serve as an aide only if the person meets at least one of the following qualifications and the provider meets the verification requirements under paragraph (B)(4)(f) of this rule:
(i) The person meets at least one of the qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The person successfully completed training and competency evaluation on each activity listed under paragraph (A)(1)(a) of this rule that the person would provide as an aide. For example, a person who would provide only laundry activities as an aide would qualify to be an aide by successfully completing training and competency evaluation on laundry activities.
(c) Orientation: Before allowing aides or other employees to have direct, face-to-face contact with consumers, the provider shall provide the aides or other employees with orientation that, at a minimum, addresses the following topics:
(i) The provider's expectations of employees.
(ii) The provider's ethical standards.
(iii) An overview of the provider's personnel policies.
(iv) The organization and lines of communication of the provider's agency.
(v) Person-centered care.
(vi) Incident reporting.
(vii) Emergency procedures.
(viii) Standard precautions for infection control, including hand washing and the disposal of bodily waste.
(d) In-service training: The provider shall retain records to show that each aide successfully completes six hours of ODA-acceptable in-service training every twelve months. Agency- and program-specific orientation do not count toward the six hours. If the aide is also a PCA according to rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code, the provider may consider six hours of successfully-completed ODA-acceptable in-service training as a PCA to count for the six hours required as an aide by this paragraph.
(e) Acceptable training, orientation, and competency evaluation:
(i) An organization other than the provider may provide the orientation and training required in paragraphs (B)(4)(c) and (B)(4)(d) of this rule. Any training successfully completed through https://mylearning.dodd.ohio.gov/ or https://collinslearning.com/home-health-care/ is approved.
(ii) The portion of training that is not competency evaluation may occur online.
(iii) The portion of competency evaluation that involves return demonstration qualifies as competency evaluation under paragraph (B)(4)(b) of this rule only if it is conducted in person.
(f) Verification of compliance with aide qualifications and requirements:
(i) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be an aide under paragraph (B)(4)(b) of this rule by meeting the qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (B)(4)(a) of rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code, then the provider shall comply with the verification requirements under paragraph (B)(4)(f) of rule 173-3-06.5 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be an aide under paragraph (B)(4)(b) of this rule by completing the training and competency evaluation program under paragraph (B)(4)(b)(ii) of this rule, then the provider shall either retain copies of certificates of completion earned by each aide after the aide meets qualifications/requirements under paragraph (B)(4) of this rule for successfully completing any training and competency evaluation program, orientation, and in-service training under paragraph (B)(4) of this rule or record the following information for each aide, and retain it, if it does not appear on the aide's certificate of completion (or if the aide did not receive a certificate of completion): name of the school or training organization, name of the course, training dates, and training hours successfully completed.
(5) Aide supervisors, aide trainers, and aide testers:
(a) Qualifications: The provider may allow a person to serve as an aide supervisor, an aide trainer, or an aide tester only if the person meets one or more of the following qualifications:
(i) The person is an RN or LPN.
(ii) The person is a licensed independent social worker (LISW) or licensed social worker (LSW).
(iii) The person successfully completed a baccalaureate or associate degree in a health and human services field.
(iv) The person completed at least two years of work as an aide, as defined by this rule.
(b) Aide supervisor visits: The provider's aide supervisor shall do all of the following:
(i) Visit each consumer in person at the consumer's home to develop a written or electronic activity plan with the consumer either before allowing an aide to provide an episode of service to the consumer or during the aide's initial episode of service to the consumer. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the aide supervisor may conduct the visit by telephone, video conference, or in person at the consumer's home.
(ii) Visit each consumer in person at the consumer's home at least once every ninety-three days after the aide's initial episode of service with the consumer to evaluate compliance with the activity plan, the consumer's satisfaction, and the aide's performance. The aide supervisor may conduct each visit with or without the presence of the aide being evaluated. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the aide supervisor may conduct the visit by telephone, video conference, or in person at the consumer's home.
(iii) Retain a record of the initial visit and each subsequent visit that includes either of the following:
(a) For an in-person visit, the date of the visit, an indication that the visit occurred in person at the consumer's home, the supervisor's name, the supervisor's unique identifier, the consumer's name, and a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify that the supervisor provided the initial or subsequent visit without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(b) For a visit by telephone or video conference, the date of the visit, an indication of whether that the visit was provided by telephone or video conference, the supervisor's name, the consumer's name, and evidence that a visit occurred by telephone or video conference (e.g., a record automatically generated by telehealth software, a record showing that the supervisor's phone called the consumer's phone, or clinical notes from the supervisor).
(6) Employee policies:
(a) The provider shall develop, implement, comply with, and maintain written or electronic policies on all the following topics:
(i) Job descriptions.
(ii) Qualifications to provide homemaker activities.
(iii) Incident reporting.
(iv) Obtaining the consumer's written or electronic permission before releasing information concerning the consumer to anyone.
(v) The required content, handling, storage, and retention of consumer records.
(vi) The provider's ethical standards.
(b) The provider shall make its policies available to all employees and to ODA or the AAA upon request.
(7) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Service date.
(c) Arrival time.
(d) Departure time.
(e) Service description.
(f) Service units.
(g) Name of each aide in contact with the consumer.
(h) The unique identifier of each aide in contact with the consumer to attest to providing the service.
(i) The unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the service. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) The requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for homemaker paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds with participant-directed providers are the same as for agency providers, with the following differences:
(1) Availability: Paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule does not apply.
(2) Licensure: Paragraph (B)(2) of this rule applies only if the provider meets the definition of "nonagency provider" in rule 3701-60-01 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Initial qualifications, in-service training, and verification: Paragraphs (B)(4)(a), (B)(4)(b), (B)(4)(d), and (B)(4)(f) of this rule apply as if "provider" is the AAA and "aide" is either the self-employed or participant-directed provider.
(4) Orientation: Paragraph (B)(4)(c) of this rule does not apply.
(5) Supervision: Paragraph (B)(5) of this rule does not apply.
(6) Employee policies: Paragraphs (B)(6)(a)(iii) to (B)(6)(a)(vi) of this rule apply, but paragraphs (B)(6)(a)(i) to (B)(6)(a)(ii) do not apply.
(7) Service verification: Paragraph (B)(7) of this rule applies as if "aide" is either the self-employed or participant-directed provider.
(D) Unit of service: A unit of homemaker is one hour of homemaker. Providers may report partial hours to two decimal places (e.g., "0.25 hours").
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-60-01
(A) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment with a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home health agency by an employment service for such a position.
(B) "Applicant for licensure" means the individual or agency applying for a skilled home health services license or nonmedical home health services license.
(C) "Community-based long-term care provider" means a provider, as defined as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a subcontractor, as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Direct care" means any of the following:
(1) Any service identified in paragraphs (J)(1) to (J)(6) of this rule that is provided in a patient's place of residence used as the patient's home; or
(2) Any activity that requires the person performing the activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have access to a patient's personal property or financial documents regarding a patient; or
(3) For each home health agency individually, any other routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the home health agency designates as direct care.
(G) "Disqualifying information" means any information gathered from a database review that shows a conviction for or a plea of guilt to:
(1) Abuse, neglect, or misappropriation; or
(2) A disqualifying offense.
(H) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (A)(3)(e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a home health agency by an employment service.
(J) "Home health agency" means a person or government entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, or hospice care program, that has the primary function of providing any of the following services to a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:
(1) Skilled nursing care;
(2) Physical therapy;
(3) Speech-language pathology;
(4) Occupational therapy;
(5) Medical social services; or
(6) Home health aide services.
(K) "Home health aide services" means any of the following services provided by an employee of a home health agency:
(1) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;
(2) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;
(3) Catheter care but not insertion; or
(4) Meal preparation and feeding.
(L) "Hospice care program" has the same meaning as in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code.
(M) "Immediate family member" means a parent, stepparent, grandparent, legal guardian, grandchild, brother, sister, step sibling, spouse, son, daughter, stepchild, aunt, uncle, mother-in-law, father-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, and daughter-in-law.
(N) "Medical social services" means services provided by a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending physician.
(O) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(P) "Multiple disqualifying offenses" means two or more disqualifying offenses. Convictions or guilty pleas resulting from or connected with the same act, shall be counted as one conviction or guilty plea.
(Q) "Nonagency provider" means a person who provides direct care to an individual on a self-employed basis and does not employ, directly or through contract, another person to provide the services. "Nonagency provider" does not include any of the following:
(1) A caregiver who is an immediate family member of the individual receiving direct care;
(2) A person who provides direct care to not more than two individuals simultaneously who are not immediate family members of the care provider;
(3) A volunteer;
(4) A person who is certified under section 5104.12 of the Revised Code to provide publicly funded child care as an in-home aide;
(5) A person who provides privately funded child care;
(6) A caregiver who is certified by the department of developmental disabilities under Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code.
(R) "Nonmedical home health services" means any of the following:
(1) Home health aide services defined in paragraph (K) of this rule; and
(2) Personal care services as defined in paragraph (V) of this rule.
(S) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and "skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
(T) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.
(U) "Operating location" means the geographical location of the business and operations functions of a home health agency including, but not limited to, record keeping, central staffing, and general business operations. The term operating location may include branches of the home health agency that are under the direct supervision of the operating location.
(V) "Personal care services" means any of the following provided to an individual in the individual's home or community:
(1) Hands-on assistance with activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living, when incidental to assistance with activities of daily living;
(2) Assistance managing the individual's home and handling personal affairs;
(3) Assistance with self-administration of medications as defined in paragraph (Y) of this rule;
(4) Homemaker services when incidental to any of the services identified in paragraphs (V)(1) to (V)(3) of this rule or when essential to the health and welfare of the individual specifically, not the individual's family;
(5) Respite services for the individual's caregiver;
(6) Errands completed outside of the presence of the individual if needed to maintain the individual's health and safety, including picking up prescriptions and groceries.
(W) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.
(X) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.
(Y) "Self-administration of medication" means medication taken orally, by injection, nebulizer, insertion or is applied topically without the need for assistance. In assisting an individual with self-administration of medication, staff providing personal care services may do the following:
(1) Remind the individual when to take medication and watch to ensure that the individual follows the directions on the container;
(2) Assist th eindividual by taking the medication and handing it to the individual. If the individual is physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open the container for the individual; and
(3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert individual, in removing oral or topical medication from containers and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or with the consent of the individual or the individual's health care power of attorney (HCPOA) or legal guardian. If an individual is physically unable to place a dose of medicine to their mouth without spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and place the container to the mouth of the individual.
(Z) "Skilled home health services" means any service identified in paragraphs (J)(1) to (J)(5) of this rule.
(AA) "Social worker" means a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker or independent social worker.
(BB) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.
(CC) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 5164.342 of the Revised Code.
Last updated January 27, 2023 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: January 27, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4766-3-13
(A) The ambulette service shall maintain and provide adequate documentation of the following driver/operator requirements for each of its drivers:
(1) A copy of a valid driver/operator license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code or its equivalent if the applicant is a resident of another state:
(a) Driver/operator shall be at least eighteen years of age to operate an ambulette;
(b) Each ambulette driver shall have at least two years driving experience;
(2) A copy of a valid driver/operator's abstract obtained from the bureau of motor vehicles from the state in which the driver's license was issued at the time of the application for employment and annually thereafter;
(a) The date of the driving abstract submitted at the time of application shall be no more than fourteen calendar days prior to the date of application for employment;
(b) Driver/operators having six points or more on their driving abstract in accordance with section 4510.036 of the Revised Code cannot be an ambulette service driver;
(c) Ambulette service may use documentation from their commercial insurance carrier as proof the standard in this paragraph has been met. This document must include the names of all insured drivers verifying the eligibility of the driver.
(3) A copy of a current and valid certification in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and shall include hands on training from the "American Red Cross," "American Heart Association," or "American Safety and Health Institute," (ASHI) or equivalent certifying organization approved by the board;
(4) A copy of a current and valid certification in basic first aid and shall include hands on training from the "American Red Cross," "American Heart Association," or "American Safety and Health Institute," (ASHI) or equivalent certifying organization approved by the board; or a current and valid certification as a/an:
(a) Emergency medical responder;
(b) Emergency medical technician;
(c) Advanced emergency medical technician; or
(d) Paramedic.
(5) At least once every three years, satisfactory completion of a passenger assistance training course to include the following elements:
(a) Sensitivity to aging:
(b) Overview of diseases and functional factors commonly affecting older adults;
(c) Environmental considerations affecting consumers;
(d) Consumer assistance and transfer techniques;
(e) Management of a wheelchair, including the proper methods for securing a wheelchair in the vehicle and the client in the wheelchair;
(f) Inspection and operation of a wheelchair lift and other types of assistive equipment, and;
(g) Emergency procedures.
(6) Services can use commercially designed courses approved by the board or develop their own training course as long as required elements are met. All courses shall include hands on training for loading and unloading the client in the wheelchair, securing the client in the wheelchair, and securing the wheelchair in the vehicle.
(a) Services that use a commercially developed training course for their employees shall also show documentation of hands on training.
(b) Services that develop their own training course shall make available to the board, upon request, a written course outline documenting all course elements, all course training material used, and documentation of hands on training. Training course developed by the service is subject to prior approval by the board.
(7) A copy of a valid criminal background check:
(a) Conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code; or
(b) Conducted by the federal bureau of investigations (FBI) for an individual who has not lived in the state of Ohio for at least five years immediately prior to application.
(8) A copy of a valid signed statement from a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician's assistant acting within their scope of practice or a department of transportation (DOT) physical declaring that the driver/operator does not have a medical condition, physical condition, including vision impairment (not corrected), which could interfere with safe driving, passenger assistance, the provision of emergency treatment activity, or could jeopardize the health and welfare of client and/or general public;
(9) A copy of valid test results from an alcohol and controlled substances test to be conducted by a laboratory certified for such testing under "CLIA" and determined to be free of alcohol, amphetamines, cannabinoids (THC), cocaine, opiates, and phencyclidines (PCP).
(a) The tests shall be performed and the results placed in the employee's file as provided in paragraph (C) of this rule;
(b) Repeat drug and alcohol testing shall be performed at a minimum whenever the driver has been involved in a motor vehicle accident for which he/she was the driver.
(10) The ambulette service shall provide each driver/operator with an identification card visible to the client identifying their first name and last initial or a unique identifier and ambulette service affiliation.
(B) An ambulette service shall at all times maintain staffing of ambulette(s) by an ambulette driver who meets the requirements of division (A) of section 4766.15 of the Revised Code.
(C) An ambulette service may employ an applicant on a temporary provisional basis pending completion of the requirements of this rule pursuant to section 4766.15 of the Revised Code.
(1) The provisional period for completion of requirements set forth in paragraphs (A)(3) to (A)(7) of this rule shall be no more than sixty days.
(2) The provisional period for completion of requirements set forth in paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) and paragraphs (A)(8) to (A)(10) of this rule shall be no more than fourteen days.
(D) No ambulette service shall employ as an ambulette driver, any person who has been convicted of or plead guilty to violations as set forth in divisions (A)(1)(a), (A)(2)(a), (A)(4)(a), and/or (A)(5)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or their equivalent in any jurisdiction unless the exceptions set forth in paragraphs (A) and (B) of rule 3701-13-06 of the Administrative Code apply.
(E) No ambulette service shall employ as an ambulette driver any person who has six points or more on their driving abstract in accordance with section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.
(F) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless that person has a valid driver/operator license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. or Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code or its equivalent if the person is a resident of another state.
(G) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person is at least eighteen years of age and has at least two years driving experience.
(H) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person holds a current and valid certification in CPR and one of the following:
(1) Basic first aid;
(2) Emergency medical responder;
(3) Emergency medical technician;
(4) Advanced emergency medical technician;
(5) Paramedic.
(I) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person has successfully completed a program designed for transporting clients with special needs as set forth in paragraph (A)(5) of this rule.
Last updated June 15, 2022 at 9:52 AM
History
- Effective: June 15, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.10 Older Americans Act: legal assistance.
(A) "Legal assistance" means legal advice, counseling, or representation by an attorney to consumers with economic or social needs, and includes, to the extent feasible, counseling or other appropriate assistance by a paralegal or law student under the direct supervision of an attorney; and counseling or representation by a non-lawyer where permitted by law.
(1) "Legal assistance" includes advice, counseling, or representation on any of the following topics:
(a) Public benefits.
(b) Advance directives and designating surrogate decision makers who will effectuate consumers' wishes if they become incapacitated.
(c) Defense of guardianship.
(d) Available housing options, including low-income housing programs that allow independence in homes and communities.
(e) Foreclosure or eviction proceedings that jeopardize the ability to stay independent in homes and communities.
(f) The full benefit of appropriate long-term care private financing options.
(g) Long-term financial solvency and economic security.
(h) Consumers' rights when transferring from long-term care facilities to home and community-based services.
(i) Elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation.
(2) "Legal assistance" does not include any of the following activities or advice, counseling, or representation on any of the following activities:
(a) Fee-generating cases, unless other adequate representation is unavailable.
(b) Political activities.
(c) Lobbying.
(d) Public demonstration, picketing, boycott, strike, unless permitted by law in connection with employment.
(e) Encouraging or coercing others to demonstrate, picket, boycott, or strike.
(f) Criminal defense.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for legal assistance paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to the following standards for coordination:
(a) The requirement under 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(11) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.93(f)(2)(xi)(D) to coordinate with existing legal service corporation project grantees in the PSA to concentrate the use of funds provided on individuals with greatest need. Legal services corporation grantees in Ohio can be identified on https://www.lsc.gov/grants/our-grantees/ohio-state-profile.
(b) The requirement under 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(11) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.93(e)(2)(iv) to coordinate with the private bar over legal assistance that the private bar may provide on a pro bono or reduced-fee basis.
(c) The requirement under 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(11) and 3058j to coordinate with ODA's legal assistance developer.
(d) The requirement under 42 U.S.C. 3058(h)(8), 45 C.F.R. 1321.93(d)(4), 1324.13(h)(1)(i), and 1324.15(g), and rule 173-14-18 of the Administrative Code to coordinate with ombudsman programs.
(e) The requirement under section 5101.63 of the Revised Code for mandatory reporters of abuse, neglect, and exploitation.
(f) The opportunity to coordinate with adult protective services according to 45 C.F.R. 1324.406.
(g) The opportunity to coordinate with the Ohio state health insurance information program
(3) The provider is subject to the priorities for providing legal assistance in 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(11)(E) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.93(e)(2).
(4) A person may qualify to provide legal assistance only if the person meets all the qualifications in 45 C.F.R. 1321.93 and is authorized to practice law in Ohio.
(5) The legal assistance provider may ask about a consumer's financial circumstances only as a part of the process of providing legal advice, counseling, or representation, or to identify additional resources and benefits for which the consumer may be eligible.
(6) No provider may use Older Americans Act funds to pay bar association dues or supreme court registration fees.
(7) The provider and AAA are subject to the reporting requirements under 45 C.F.R. 1321.73(b). For the provider, this includes the requirement to collect and report de-identified, aggregated case-level data via the legal assistance reporting tool developed by ACL under 42 U.S.C. 3012(a)(23), as provided by the contracting AAA. For the AAA, this includes the requirement to collect data from contracted provider(s) and submit one comprehensive legal assistance reporting tool to ODA by December thirty-first of each year.
(8) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of legal assistance that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Service date.
(b) Type of legal assistance provided (advice, counseling, or representation).
(c) Units of legal assistance provided.
(d) Name of professional providing the legal assistance.
(C) Units: A unit of legal assistance is one hour of provision of legal assistance, which a provider reports in partial hours per day to two decimal places (e.g., "0.25 hours" or "1.50 hours").
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-18
(A) All referrals made by an ombudsman shall contain the pertinent facts known to the ombudsman and be subject to the confidentiality and consent requirements in rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code. Any confidential information transmitted shall be marked as confidential.
(B)
(1) An ombudsman may report any violation of provider licensing laws or standards, or medicare/medicaid certification laws or standards, discovered during the course of complaint handling to the agency responsible for enforcing those laws or standards.
(2) An ombudsman may report any violations of professional licensing laws or standards discovered during the course of complaint handling to the appropriate professional board or organization.
(3) An ombudsman may report any violation of the provider agreement, medicaid discrimination laws, nursing home waiting list requirements, personal needs allowance laws, medicaid covered services provisions, or facility transfer plans discovered during the course of complaint handling to the department of medicaid.
(4) To the extent permitted by federal law, an ombudsman may report to an appropriate authority any suspected violation of state law discovered during the course of an advocacy visit or investigation.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.12 Older Americans Act: outreach and public information.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Outreach" means a provider-initiated one-on-one intervention with a potential consumer or caregiver, in the consumer's or caregiver's preferred location, which is typically in their home, that may or may not have access to supports to identify a potential need for services and benefits, or denial of rights, and encourage the use of existing services and benefits.
(a) "Outreach" includes the following:
(i) Providing information and education about assistance, resources, or other services to potential consumers or caregivers who would not otherwise have access.
(ii) Initiating the identification of potential consumers or caregivers to inform them of existing services and benefits.
(iii) Tailoring an outreach strategy to the intended audience's needs in relation to information and access to human services and community resources.
(iv) Communication, training, and service for potential consumers that engage agencies.
(b) "Outreach" does not include any of the following:
(i) Contact with a consumer or caregiver who currently receives services or benefits.
(ii) Contact with multiple potential consumers or caregivers through publications, publicity campaigns, or other mass media activities.
(2) "Public information" means mass media or general communications campaigns that are broadly distributed with the intent to increase enrollment in available services. "Public information" includes an in-person interactive presentation to the public conducted at a fair booth/exhibit, conference, or other public event; and a radio, television, or website event.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for outreach that is paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is responsible for doing all of the following:
(a) Establishing a systematic method to identify potential consumers and caregivers in need of services.
(b) Educating potential consumers and caregivers on the availability of needed services through various forms of media.
(c) Referring potential consumers and caregivers to providers of information and assistance.
(d) Improving and networking with other providers or organizations to establish or strengthen partnerships to create more outreach opportunities.
(e) Conducting paragraphs (B)(2)(a) to (B)(2)(d) of this rule in a manner that satisfies the following requirements:
(i) 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(4)(B)(i) and 3026(a)(19), which require providing outreach with special emphasis on specific populations.
(ii) 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(15), which establishes additional requirements if a substantial number of the older individuals residing in the PSA are of limited English-speaking ability.
(3) Reporting: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Dates of service.
(b) Units of service.
(c) Number of consumers or caregivers served.
(C) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for public information that is paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds: The requirements in paragraphs (B)(1), (B)(2)(b), (B)(2)(c), (B)(3)(a), and (B)(3)(b) of this rule.
(D) Units:
(1) A unit of outreach is one contact with a potential consumer, caregiver, another provider, or organization.
(2) A unit of public information is one activity.
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.13 Older Americans Act: volunteer management.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Volunteer management" means coordination of the recruitment, screening, training, placement, and evaluation of volunteers to expand the provision of aging-related home and community-based services.
(a) "Volunteer management" may include any of the following:
(i) Ensuring that consumers have access to a full range of home and community-based services and civic-engagement programs through the management of existing volunteer opportunities and the development of new volunteer opportunities.
(ii) Coordination with organizations that have experience in providing training, placement, and stipends for volunteers or participants in community-based settings.
(iii) Collecting methods of success and best practices in recruiting volunteers, retaining volunteers, and resolving the rate of volunteer turnover.
(b) "Volunteer management" does not include any of the following:
(i) Paying a volunteer unless through an americorps senior program.
(ii) Fundraising, unless the requirements of 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(ii)(D) are met.
(2) "Volunteer" means a person who participates in a volunteer opportunity that supports consumers or family caregivers, or a person who is an older adult who participates in a volunteer opportunity, without compensation for their time and effort, unless the person participates through an americorps senior program.
(3) "Volunteer opportunity" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following activities when a volunteer provides them:
(a) Assistance at congregate dining locations and delivering meals to consumers.
(b) Routine transportation activities, or escort, but not transportation under rule 173-3-06.6 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Repair and weatherize the homes of low-income consumers with a disability.
(d) Counsel in a variety of areas including health, nutrition, legal, and financial.
(e) The senior medicare patrol program or another program through which volunteers empower and assist consumers to prevent, detect, and report health care fraud, errors, and abuse.
(f) Mentoring younger generations.
(g) Supporting families and caregivers.
(h) Addressing social isolation.
(i) Volunteer guardian program.
(j) Assistance with household tasks, but not home maintenance and chores under rule 173-3-06.2 of the Administrative Code.
(k) Ohio senior health insurance information program (OSHIIP) or other benefits information programs.
(4) "Volunteer opportunity" does not include any of the following:
(a) An ombudsman volunteer program.
(b) Fundraising, unless the requirements of 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(ii)(D) are met.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for volunteer management paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Chapter 173-9 of Administrative Code does not apply to volunteers.
(3) The provider is responsible for determining the number and kind of volunteers, volunteer opportunities, volunteer time required, and volunteer roles.
(4) The provider is responsible for completing all of the following activities:
(a) Recruiting and screening, including the following:
(i) Receiving specific requests for volunteers.
(ii) Advertising for volunteers.
(iii) Screening applicant volunteers, including screening to assure that no volunteer has an unremedied conflict of interest when participating in a volunteer opportunity.
(iv) Determining appropriate work assignments.
(b) Training, including the following:
(i) Determining training content for volunteers and staff, including program policies and procedures.
(ii) Training volunteers initially and ongoing.
(iii) Training staff in volunteer use.
(c) Placing and supervising, including the following:
(i) Developing policies and procedures for staff supervision of volunteers.
(ii) Developing a job description for volunteer responsibilities and tasks.
(iii) Placing volunteers in appropriate work assignments
(d) Evaluating, including the following:
(i) Evaluating volunteer performance in a volunteer opportunity.
(ii) Evaluating staff performance with volunteers.
(iii) Obtaining staff evaluations of volunteers.
(iv) Obtaining volunteer self-evaluations.
(v) Evaluating the volunteer opportunity.
(5) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each volunteer opportunity that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Type of volunteer opportunity.
(b) Date of volunteer opportunity.
(c) Number of volunteers placed to serve in the volunteer opportunity.
(d) Total volunteer service hours per volunteer opportunity.
(C) Units: A unit of volunteer management is an hour managing volunteers who provide services to consumers or older adults who participate in a volunteer opportunity.
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06.14 Older Americans Act: disease prevention and health promotion service.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Disease prevention and health promotion service" has the same meaning as in 42. U.S.C. 3002.
(2) "Evidence-based" means that a disease prevention and health promotion service complies with 42 U.S.C. 3030m and 45 C.F.R. 1321.89.
(3) "Non-evidence-based" means that a disease prevention and health promotion service does not comply with 42 U.S.C. 3030m and 45 C.F.R. 1321.89.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement (agreement) for a disease prevention and health promotion service paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The agreement stipulates that Title III-D Older Americans Act funds may pay for only an evidence-based disease prevention and health promotion service.
(3) The agreement stipulates that Title III-B and Title III-E Older Americans Act funds may pay for a non-evidence-based disease prevention and health promotion service.
(4) The provider is responsible for maintaining any license, permission, or other agreement necessary to provide the type of service, brand of service, or copyrighted or proprietary materials described in the provider's bid for the service and in the AAA-provider agreement.
(5) Service verification: The following is the mandatory reporting item for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code: service date.
(C) Units: A unit of a health promotion and disease prevention service is one session.
Last updated November 24, 2025 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-08 Older Americans Act: consumer and caregiver grievances.
(A) 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(5)(B) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(1)(viii) mandate AGE to establish standards for each AAA's grievance procedure under 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(10).
(B) 42 U.S.C. 3026(a)(10) requires each AAA to maintain a grievance procedure for consumers or caregivers who are dissatisfied with or denied services under the Older Americans Act which contains all of the following standards:
(1) A provision for any consumer or caregiver to make a grievance in person, in writing, by electronic mail, by telephone, or by other reasonable means and for retaining records on each grievance for the period required in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) A requirement that the AAA acknowledge receipt of each grievance in writing, including by email, within five business days after the AAA's receipt of the grievance.
(3) A process for the AAA to investigate the grievance and attempt to resolve the matter informally, if possible, including retaining records on the outcomes of both for the period required in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(4) A requirement that the person responsible for investigating or otherwise resolving the grievance was not involved in the events that gave rise to the grievance.
(5) A process for the AAA to issue a written or electronic mail response to the grievance within thirty days after receipt of the grievance, which includes all of the following:
(a) The date the grievance was received by the AAA.
(b) The nature of the consumer's or caregiver's grievance, including all relevant dates.
(c) Actions taken by the AAA to attempt to resolve the grievance informally, including the outcome.
(d) Notice of any reconsideration or further review that is available to the consumer or caregiver within the AAA.
(6) A provision prohibiting retaliation by the AAA or its providers against a consumer or caregiver for submitting a grievance.
(7) A process for notifying consumers and caregivers of the existence of the grievance process and for providing a copy of the AAA's grievance procedure at all of the following times:
(a) On request.
(b) When the consumer or caregiver applies to the AAA or a provider for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds (OAA services).
(c) When the AAA or a provider denies the consumer's or caregiver's request for OAA services.
(d) When the AAA or a provider reassesses the consumer's or caregiver's eligibility for OAA services.
(e) When the AAA or a provider reduces or discontinues providing the consumer's or caregiver's OAA services.
(8) A requirement that providers adopt a grievance procedure for attempting to resolve grievances informally, if possible, and referring the consumer to the AAA's grievance procedure if informal resolution is unsuccessful.
(9) A process for submitting the procedure for AGE approval as part of the AAA's area plan.
(C) The period for each provider and each AAA to retain a copy of each grievance, response, and outcome is ninety days after the first monitoring visit conducted by the AAA or AGE (respectively) following the date on which the provider's or AAA's response became final.
(D) A consumer or caregiver may choose to have another person represent the consumer or caregiver at any point in a grievance process and receive a copy of any notice due to the consumer or caregiver under this rule if the consumer or caregiver provides a valid signed authorization and release of information for the designated representative.
(E) A consumer or caregiver may seek assistance from the long-term care ombudsman program to file a grievance.
Last updated December 1, 2025 at 9:29 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-10 Older Americans Act: private pay programs.
(A) Definition for this rule: "Private pay programs" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
(B) 42 U.S.C. 3026(g) and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiii) allow AGE, AAAs, and providers to provide private pay programs, subject to compliance with the state requirements in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(C) The state requirements for private pay programs are the same as the standards under 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xiii), subject to presidential executive orders, including 14148, 14151, and 14173, and any applicable statute or rule.
Last updated December 1, 2025 at 9:29 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-11 Older Americans Act: state plans on aging.
(A) AGE publishes Ohio's current state plan on aging on https://aging.ohio.gov/reports-and-data.
(B) Each state plan on aging is subject to the standards for state-plan content in 42 U.S.C. 3025, 3027, and 3058d and 45 C.F.R. 1321.27 and 1324.15.
(C) AGE obtains input on the development of the state plan according to 42 U.S.C. 3025, 3027, and 3058d and 45 C.F.R. 1321.29 and 1324.15.
(D) Any person may learn the time and place of any public-comment period, public hearing, or other public meeting on the state plan on aging by any of the following methods:
(1) View the notice on https://aging.ohio.gov/reports-and-data.
(2) Subscribe to receive email notices of news and events for public meetings or rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/subscribe.
(3) Call 1-800-266-4346 or 1-614-466-5500.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-4 Older Americans Act Nutrition Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-01 Older Americans Act nutrition program: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs nutrition projects paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds.
(B) Definitions: The definitions in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code apply to this chapter.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:21 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-01
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs planning and service area designations and changes to designations; an intrastate funding formula; AGE's area agency on aging designations and changes to designations; area plans; monitoring and corrective actions; and withdrawal of an AAA designation.
(B) Definitions for this chapter and Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code:
"AAA-provider agreement" (agreement) means a contract or grant agreement between an AAA and a provider for the provision of services to consumers.
"Activities of daily living" (ADLs) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a provider hiring persons to provide services to consumers.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) means an entity that AGE designates as an area agency on aging under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.19.
"Assessment" means a gathering of information about a person's strengths, problems, financial resources, and care needs in the following major functional areas: physical health, use of medical care, ADLs, IADLs, mental and social functioning, physical environment, and use of services and supports.
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Caregiver" and "family caregiver" have the same meaning as "family caregiver" in 42 U.S.C. 3022.
"Case management" has the same meaning as "case management service" in 42 U.S.C. 3002.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (which may include written testing) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the consumer to be served.
"Congregate dining project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
"Congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
"Consumer" means, for the purposes of services paid for, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, any person sixty years of age or older, unless a different age is required by a state or federal law.
"Contract" has the same meaning as "AAA-provider agreement," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Coordination" means the development and implementation of an integrated service delivery system to ensure appropriate care, service levels, and continuity for consumers. This includes integration with other federal, state, and local programs and services to promote synchronization of planning, policy development, priority setting, and evaluation of activities related to the objectives of the Older Americans Act without, to the extent possible, duplicating services and/or compromising the consumer's goals and objectives.
"Day" means a twenty-four-hour period beginning and ending at midnight.
"Dietary Guidelines for Americans" means the version of the dietary guidelines in effect on a day of service as published by the United States departments of agriculture and health and human services on https://www.dietaryguidelines.gov/.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code or an unencumbered license from another state with compact privilege under section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Greatest economic need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Greatest social need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Groceries" mean foods for a household to eat, such as breads and cereals; fruits and vegetables; meats, fish, and poultry; and dairy products.
"Grocery store" has the same meaning as "retail food establishment" in rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"Home-delivered meals project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
"Incident" means an event that is inconsistent with the routine care or routine provision of services to a consumer. An incident may involve a consumer, caregiver (to the extent it impacts a consumer), provider, provider's staff or facility, another facility, an AAA's staff, AGE's staff, or other administrative authorities. Examples of an incident are abuse, neglect, abandonment, an accident, or an unusual situation resulting in an injury to a person or damage to the person's property or equipment.
"Instrumental activities of daily living" (IADLs) means preparing meals, shopping for personal items, medication management, managing money, using the telephone, doing heavy housework, doing light housework, and the ability to get and use available transportation without assistance.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code. "Licensed healthcare professional" also includes an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Licensed practical nurse" also includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Limited basis" in context of a Title III-E supplemental service means the extent to which a service compliments a family caregiver's care. "Limited basis" means that the services are not universally available or provided continuously. Services are typically provided to address a specific, temporary need or gap in the caregiving situation.
"Nutrition project" means a congregate dining project, home-delivered meals project, or a congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(b), a nutrition project also considers the availability of resources and the community's need for nutrition services described in state and area plans.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Older Americans Act funds" means the federal funds awarded to AGE through Title III of the Older Americans Act (42 U.S.C. Chapter 35, Subchapter III) and any state or local funds used to match those federal funds, regardless of whether the local funds are public or private funds. For the purposes of this chapter and Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code, "Older Americans Act funds" does not mean funds for an ombudsman program.
"Older Americans Act nutrition program" means the program created under 42 U.S.C. 3030d-21 to 3030g-23 (2020).
"Older relative caregiver" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3030s.
"Participant-directed provider " means a provider (e.g., relative, friend, neighbor, or other person) a consumer hired and directs to provide services to the consumer.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Planning and service area" (PSA) means a multi-county region that AGE designates as a planning and service area under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.13.
"Provider" means a person or entity entering into an AAA-provider agreement with an AAA to provide services to consumers. The three categories of providers are agency providers, self-employed providers, and participant-directed providers.
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" also includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Restaurant" has the same meaning as "food service operation" in rule 3717-1-0 1 of the Administrative Code.
"RFP" means "request for proposal."
"Rural area" means any area not designated as urban by the United States census bureau.
"Self-employed provider" means a provider who provides services to consumers and who does not hire, or contract with, other persons to provide those services.
"Shelf-stable meal" means a meal that is non-perishable, ready-to-eat, stored at room temperature, and eaten without heating.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor that identifies only that consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. A consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver or instructor offers their unique identifier as an attestation that a provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service or as an authorization for a plan or agreement.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-02 Older Americans Act nutrition program: meals eligible for payment.
(A) Congregate meals are eligible for payment with Older Americans Act funds if they meet the requirements for meals in this chapter and if the recipient is one of the following:
(1) A consumer who is sixty years of age or older.
(2) The spouse of the consumer in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule, if the spouse accompanies that consumer to the congregate dining location.
(3) A volunteer who provides volunteer services during meal hours.
(4) A person with disabilities who resides in the home of the consumer in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule.
(5) A person with disabilities who resides in a non-institutional residential building, but only if the building's residents are primarily sixty years of age or older and the meal is provided at a congregate dining location located in the person's building.
(B) Home-delivered meals are eligible for payment with Older Americans Act funds if they meet the requirements for meals in this chapter and if the recipient is one of the following:
(1) A consumer who meets all the following requirements qualifications:
(a) The consumer is sixty years of age or older.
(b) For each consumer, consideration is given to the following:
(i) The consumer's ability to shop for and prepare nutritious meals.
(ii) The consumer's degree of disability.
(iii) Other relevant factors pertaining to the consumer's need, including social need and economic need.
(2) The spouse of the consumer in paragraph (B)(1) of this rule.
(3) A volunteer who provides volunteer services to the consumer during meal hours.
(4) A person with disabilities who resides in the home of the consumer in paragraph (B)(1) of this rule.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 2:08 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-03 Older Americans Act nutrition program: consumer enrollment.
(A) Congregate dining:
(1) Initial verification: Before enrolling the consumer into a congregate dining project or congregate dining project based in restaurants or supermarkets, the provider shall verify that a consumer's congregate meals are eligible for payment, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds according to rule 173-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Annual verification: The provider may keep a consumer enrolled in a congregate dining project or congregate dining project based in restaurants or supermarkets project for more than one year only if, at least once every calendar year, the provider verifies that the consumer's congregate meals continue to be eligible for payment, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds according to rule 173-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Home-delivered meals:
(1) Initial verification: Before enrolling a consumer into a home-delivered meals project, the provider shall verify that the consumer's home-delivered meals are eligible for payment, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds according to rule 173-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Annual verification: The provider may keep a consumer enrolled in a home-delivered meals project for more than one year only if, at least once every calendar year, the provider verifies that the consumer's home-delivered meals continue to be eligible for payment, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds according to rule 173-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Temporary verification: A provider may deem a discharge order to be adequate verification to authorize temporary payment for home-delivered meals, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds until the provider conducts its own verification of eligibility, but only if the following conditions are met:
(a) The consumer requires meals before the provider can verify that the consumer's home-delivered meals are eligible for payment, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds.
(b) The consumer is sixty years of age or older.
(c) The discharge order indicates the consumer is unable to prepare his or her own meals, unable to consume meals at a congregate dining location due to physical or emotional difficulties, and lacking another meal support service in the home or community.
(d) The provider begins providing home-delivered meals no later than seven days after the discharge.
(e) The provider conducts the initial verification no later than thirty consecutive days after the discharge.
(C) Waiting lists: If a waiting list exists for enrolling into a congregate dining project, congregate dining project based in restaurants or supermarkets, or a home-delivered meals project, the provider or the AAA shall develop a prioritization system that distributes meals equitably by prioritizing consumers who have the highest nutritional risk, as determined by the following:
(1) The result of a nutritional health screening of the consumer conducted according to rule 173-4-09 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The nutritional risk status of the spouse (if any), if the spouse is determined to have a higher nutritional risk than the consumer.
Last updated January 3, 2023 at 8:38 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-09
(A) Definitions for this rule:
"High nutritional risk" means the status of a consumer whose score on the ODA form labeled "Determine Your Own Nutritional Health" (ODA0010, rev. May, 2009) is a six or above.
"Nutrition health screening" ("screening") means using the ODA form labeled "Determine Your Own Nutritional Health" (ODA0010, rev. May, 2009) to screen a consumer for nutritional risks and, if the screening determines the consumer to be at high nutritional risk, referring consumer to home and community-based services with potential for reducing the risk.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for nutrition health screening paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Stand-alone or part: The provider may screen consumers as a stand-alone service or as part of a nutrition project or nutrition counseling.
(3) Venue: The provider may screen consumers by telephone, video conference, or in person, but is strongly encouraged to screen consumers in person.
(4) Checklist: The provider shall use an ODA form labeled "Determine Your Own Nutritional Health" (ODA0010, rev. May, 2009) to screen consumers for nutritional risks at least once every calendar year.
(5) Referrals: If a screening determines a consumer to be at high nutritional risk, the provider shall refer the consumer to home and community-based services with potential for reducing the risk.
(6) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each screening that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of screening.
(c) Provider's name.
(d) An indication of whether the consumer is at high nutritional risk.
(C) Units:
(1) One unit of nutrition health screening provided as a stand-alone service is a single instance of screening one consumer.
(2) When a provider provides nutrition health screening as part of another service paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, the screening is part of the cost of providing a unit of a meal through the other service.
Last updated January 3, 2023 at 8:40 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-04 Older Americans Act nutrition program: procuring for person direction.
(A) When an AAA procures for congregate dining project(s) or home-delivered meals project(s), the AAA is subject to rules 173-3-04, 173-3-05, and 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code and this rule.
(B) When an AAA procures for congregate dining project(s) or home-delivered meal project(s), the AAA shall procure for person direction by one of the following competitive procurement methods:
(1) Procurement by a competitive proposal in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(b)(2) that does all of the following:
(a) Allows the highest level(s) of person direction that providers offer in bid(s) to determine what are responsive level(s) of person direction for its PSA.
(b) Indicates in the request for proposal (RFP) that a responsive bid is a bid in which the provider explains how it proposes to offer person direction.
(c) Awards the AAA-provider agreement(s) to the provider(s) offering the most-responsive bid(s) that is based on a score on the level of person direction that each provider's bid offers in the score determining the responsiveness of a bid.
(2) Procurement by a micro-purchase method under 2 C.F.R. 200.320(a)(1), small-purchase method under 2 C.F.R. 200.320(a)(2), or sealed-bid method in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(b)(1) that does all of the following:
(a) Determines the level of person direction that providers in the PSA can offer without basing the AAA's calculations of this level solely on the willingness of providers who are currently in AAA-provider agreements with the AAA.
(b) Indicates in the RFP that a responsive bid is a bid in which the provider explains how it proposes to meet or exceed the level of person direction that the AAA determined providers in the PSA are capable of offering.
(c) Awards the AAA-provider agreement(s) to the provider(s) offering the most-responsive bid(s) that is based on a score on the level of person direction that each provider's bid offers in the score determining the responsiveness of a bid.
(C) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, paragraph (B) of this rule does not apply to dining formats, location, delivery methods, times, and frequencies.
(D) Definition for this rule: "Person direction" means a subset of person-centered methodology. While person-centered methodology requires providers to work with consumers to determine what is best for the consumers, person direction allows consumers to decide what is best for themselves from a range of viable options. Person direction over congregate and home-delivered meals allows consumers to control the direction of their meals.
Giving consumers options between dining formats, locations, and times; allowing consumers to enjoy multi-generational dining; giving consumers options between entrées at each mealtime; and giving consumers options between one entrée and the sides that accompany it and at least one other entrée and the sides that accompany it (even if consumers exchange entrées or sides between two or more complete meal options) are examples of possible ways to offer person direction to consumers through congregate nutrition projects.
Giving consumers options between delivery formats (e.g., warm, frozen, chilled), options between delivery times (e.g., morning, afternoon), and options between delivery frequencies (e.g., per-meal delivery, periodic delivery); options between entrées at each mealtime; and options between one entrée and the sides that accompany it and at least one other entrée and the sides that accompany it (even if consumers exchange entrées or sides between two or more complete meal options) are examples of possible ways to offer person direction to consumers through home-delivered meals programs.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-04
(A) Authority: Each AAA shall enter into AAA-provider agreements ("agreements") to develop and implement a comprehensive and coordinated system of services for consumers and their caregivers. Each AAA is ultimately responsible to AGE for ensuring that all state and federal funds received from AGE are used in a manner that complies with this chapter and the uniform administrative requirements, cost principles, and audit requirements for federal awards under 2 C.F.R. Part 200 as adopted by 2 C.F.R. part 300.
(B) Purchase-of-service agreements:
(1) As used in this rule, "purchase-of-service agreements" means an agreement through which a provider is paid, wholly or in part, with Older Americans Act funds a pre-determined unit rate for only the services it actually provides in accordance with the agreement.
(2) The AAA shall only enter into purchase-of-service agreements, unless the requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule are met.
(C) Time-and-materials agreements:
(1) As used in this rule, "time-and-materials agreement" means an agreement through which a provider is paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds for the services it provides to consumers based on the provider's actual costs (i.e., time and materials) and not on a pre-determined unit rate.
(2) The AAA is not required to obtain authorization from AGE before entering into a time-and-materials agreement if the agreement only pertains to the provision of one or more of the following services: home maintenance and chores; client finding; home modification; information and assistance (referrals); mass outreach; socialization; telephoning; visiting; or services provided through the national family caregiver support program.
(3) The AAA may obtain authorization from AGE to enter into a time-and-materials agreement for the provision of a service not listed in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule.
(D) Any agreement shall contain the following provisions:
(1) A dollar amount of the AAA's obligation under the agreement.
(2) A requirement for the provider to provide evidence to the AAA to verify its costs before the AAA pays the provider.
(3) The AAA monitors the agreement to ensure that provider expenses do not exceed the limits established in the agreement.
(E) Retroactive: The AAA may pay a provider for services only if there is a valid agreement is in place before the provider begins to provide the services. No agreement is valid unless, and until, it is signed by authorized representatives from both the AAA and the provider.
(F) Ineligible providers: The AAA is subject to 2 C.F.R. Part 180, as supplemented by 2 C.F.R. Part 376, which does not allow the AAA to enter into an agreement with any provider that the SAM database lists as excluded or disqualified from agreements involving federal funds. As used in this paragraph, "SAM database" means the general service administration's "System for Award Management," which is available to the general public for free on www.sam.gov.
(G) Not earning funds: An AAA may make a portion of the funds awarded to a provider available for use by one or more other existing providers by using a competitive procurement process listed under 2 C.F.R. 200.320 if the AAA stated in the agreement that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not earning the funds that the provider was awarded in a timely manner, and if the AAA determines that the provider is not earning the funds that it was awarded in a timely manner. A provider may appeal an AAA's decision to redistribute funds under rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-05
(A) General procurement standards:
(1) When an AAA procures services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, the AAA is subject to the requirements in 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.3270 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(2) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the micro-purchase threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use micro-purchase procurement for AAA-provider agreements (agreements) worth more than the micro-purchase threshold, unless the threshold is increased according to 2 C.F.R. 200.320(a)(1)(iv) or (a)(1)(v)..
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.1 establishes the simplified acquisition threshold. 2 C.F.R. 200.320 does not allow an AAA to use small-purchase procurement for agreements worth more than the simplified acquisition threshold.
(B) Authorization for non-competitive procurement: An AAA may request authorization from AGE to use a non-competitive procurement process by complying with paragraph (A) of this rule and providing a written or electronic request to AGE that meets all of the following conditions:
(1) The AAA makes its request to AGE no fewer than thirty days before the AAA needs a decision from AGE.
(2) The AAA's request does not consider a public exigency or emergency to be a basis for non-competitive procurement if the AAA created the exigency or emergency.
(3) The AAA's request provides AGE with evidence to verify that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c) exist.
(4) If the AAA wants to procure services from a single source, the AAA's request verifies that the circumstances in 2 C.F.R. 200.320(c)(2) exist by including the names of all known providers of the services located in, or willing to do business in, the planning and service area and includes emails or letters from each of those providers to document their inability to provide the services the AAA wants to procure. If the providers are unwilling to provide emails or letters to the AAA, the AAA's request includes records of the AAA's efforts to obtain information from the providers.
(C) Additional procurement standards for renewable and multi-year AAA-provider agreements:
(1) RFPs:
(a) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable or multi-year AAA-provider agreement (agreement) only if the RFP for the renewable or multi-year agreement clearly states all of the following:
(i) Whether the agreement would be renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA would determine the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement would not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) An AAA may offer a provider a renewable agreement only if the RFP for the renewable agreement clearly states the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew a renewable agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) An AAA may offer a provider a multi-year agreement only if the RFP for the multi-year agreement clearly states that the AAA may terminate a multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services the agreement covers.
(2) Agreements:
(a) Every agreement for a renewable agreement or agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state the following:
(i) Whether the agreement is renewable after the first term or for a multi-year term.
(ii) One of the following:
(a) The methodology by which the AAA determines the amount, if any, of a rate increase upon renewal or during the multi-year term.
(b) A statement that the agreement does not include an opportunity for rate increases.
(b) Every agreement for a renewable agreement shall clearly state the following:
(i) The AAA retains the right to decline to renew the agreement.
(ii) The circumstances under which the AAA may terminate a renewed agreement.
(c) Every agreement with a multi-year term shall clearly state that the AAA may terminate the multi-year agreement, rather than fulfill all years of the multi-year term, under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(i) The provider does not demonstrate satisfactory performance.
(ii) The AAA does not have funds to pay for the services for a subsequent year.
(iii) A situation arises that was unforeseen at the time the AAA and the provider entered into the agreement. Examples of unforeseen situations are changes in market conditions or changes in the law regulating the services that the agreement covers.
(3) Effective periods: No renewable or multi-year agreement (whether in its initial term or a renewed term) may remain in effect after the last day that the AAA's approved area plan is in effect unless the AAA makes a written or electronic request for authorization from AGE to extend the effective period no fewer than thirty days before the end of the effective period of the AAA's area plan and if AGE grants the requested extension to the AAA.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06
(A) Federal requirements for every AAA-provider agreement (agreement) for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The Older Americans Act.
(2) Subparts C and D of 45 C.F.R. Part 1321.
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.327 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(4) 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 regarding individually identifiable health information and protected health information.
(5) Any additional federal law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement.
(B) State requirements for every agreement for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Program and funding identification:
(a) The agreement shall identify the names of the federal and state programs that are sources for the Older Americans Act funding being used to pay for the services procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall contain the following statement:
"This agreement is for the provision of services paid with federal funds that the United States Department of Health and Human Services appropriated to the Ohio Department of Aging (AGE). AGE, in turn, allocated the federal funds to the area agency on aging. The agreement is subject to federal and state laws, rules, and executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement."
(2) Additional state laws:
(a) The agreement is subject to any rule in this chapter or Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code regulating agreements in general or the provision of any service being procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement is subject to any additional state law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over agreements in general or the provision of any service procured through the agreement.
(3) Safety:
(a) Disasters: The agreement shall require the provider to cooperate with the AAA and AGE to assess disaster impact on consumers and to coordinate with public and private resources in the field of aging to assist consumers when the president of the United States declares that the provider's service area is a disaster area.
(b) Significant changes: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service as part of care coordination, then the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA of any significant change that may necessitate a reassessment the case-managed consumer's need for the service no later than one day after the provider is aware of a repeated refusal to receive the service; changes in the consumer's physical, mental, or emotional status; documented changes in the consumer's environmental conditions; or, other significant, documented changes to the consumer's health and safety. If "one day after" falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(c) APS: The agreement shall require the provider to immediately report any reasonable cause to believe a consumer is the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program in accordance with section 5101.63 of the Revised Code.
(d) Discontinuing the provision of services: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service with the AAA as part of care coordination, the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer in writing of the anticipated last day the provider will provide the service to the case-managed consumer no later than thirty days before the anticipated last day, unless the reason for discontinuing the service is the hospitalization, institutionalization, or death of the consumer; serious risk to the health or safety of the provider; the consumer's decision to discontinue the service; or a similar reason why the provider is unable to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer thirty days before the anticipated last day. The provider shall also notify the case-managed consumer on how to reach a long-term care ombudsman. If the thirtieth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(4) Confidentiality: In addition to the federal requirements in 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.75 the agreement shall require the provider to store each consumer's electronic records in a password-protected file and physical records in a designated, locked storage space.
(5) Provider qualifications: In the agreement, the AAA shall include the following requirements:
(a) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position, the provider is subject to section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, or if self-employed, section 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a federal, state, or local government regulatory authority prohibits the provider from providing a service required by the agreement, the provider shall notify the AAA of the disciplinary action and the AAA shall, simultaneous to the date of the regulatory authority's disciplinary action, deem the provider to be ineligible to be paid with Older Americans Act funds for providing that service to consumers.
(6) Subcontracting: The agreement shall require the provider to obtain authorization from the AAA before subcontracting any of its duties under the agreement to another provider.
(7) Modification:
(a) The agreement shall describe the grounds (and the process) for modifying the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall state that if an amendment, repeal, or rescission of any law, rule, or regulation cited in the agreement would change the responsibilities of the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider, then the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider shall comply with the amendment, repeal, or rescission of the law, rule, or regulation even if the agreement is not updated before the amendment, repeal, or rescission takes effect.
(c) Every new agreement shall require the provider to sign up for email updates on AGE's rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/wps/portal/gov/aging/see-news-and-events/subscribe/subscribe.
(8) Renewable and multi-year agreements: If the agreement is renewable or covers a multi-year term, the agreement is subject to the requirements for renewable or multi-year agreements under rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(9) Records: The agreement shall include the following permissions and requirements:
(a) Permission to use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) A requirement to retain any record relating to services provided, including activity plans (if required), assessments (if required), permits (if required), evaluations (if required), and mandatory reporting items to verify a unit of service, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider receives payment for the services.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(c) A requirement to retain all records regarding an employee's background checks and qualifications, including records on initial qualifications, successful completion of orientation and subsequent training (if required), and performance reviews (if required) until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider no longer retains the employee.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(d) A requirement to participate in good faith in the monitoring of the provider's provision of services. To participate in good faith includes assisting the AAA and AGE with the scheduling of announced or unannounced monitoring and providing the AAA and AGE with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies and records for each unit of service billed.
(10) Payment:
(a) The agreement shall describe how the AAA pays the provider, including the amount and payment method.
(b) The agreement shall include the following requirements:
(i) The requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The requirement to return any Older Americans Act funds payments for its services, if the provider's provision of the services did not comply with the laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the provision of the service.
(11) Administrative hearings:
(a) The agreement shall state that the provider may appeal an action the AAA takes against the provider according to rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code and state the procedures by which the provider may appeal the adverse action.
(b) If the AAA intends to redistribute unearned funds to other providers, the agreement shall state that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not, in a timely manner, earning the funds it was awarded and if the AAA determines the provider is not, in a timely manner earning the funds it was awarded in the agreement.
(C) An AAA may add requirements to an agreement in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule if the additional requirements do not conflict with any federal laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or state laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement.
(D) Any reference in this rule to a consumer includes a caregiver if the caregiver is the service recipient.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:54 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05 Older Americans Act nutrition program: nutrition projects.
(A) Requirements, flexibilities, and recommendations to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a nutrition project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Every AAA-provider agreement paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Project types:
(a) An AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project, is subject to rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) An AAA-provider agreement for a home-delivered meals project, is subject to rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
(c) An AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project based in restaurants and grocery stores, is subject to rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Separate project components: If the AAA procured for components of a nutrition project separately, the AAA shall identify in each provider's AAA-provider agreement, which requirements in Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code each provider is required to provide.
(4) Nutrition services in addition to providing meals:
(a) The AAA shall include a requirement for the provider to provide nutrition health screening to consumers at least every calendar year and strongly encourage providers to provide the nutrition health screening in person.
(b) The AAA shall indicate whether the provider is offering nutrition assessment, nutrition counseling, or nutrition education to consumers.
(c) The AAA shall indicate whether the provider is providing grocery shopping assistance or grocery ordering and delivery to consumers, and if so, include the requirements in rules 173-4-10 and 173-4-11 of the Administrative Code in the AAA-provider agreement.
(5) Eligibility verification: The provider shall determine the eligibility of each consumer before paying for their meals, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds and do so in person whenever possible.
(6) Consumer contributions: The provider is subject to rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(7) Person direction:
(a) The provider shall implement the person direction the provider pledged to provide when the provider bid for the AAA-provider agreement. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider is only responsible for providing the person direction that the provider pledged to provide to the extent practicable during the state of emergency or federal public health emergency.
(b) The provider shall offer consumers opportunities to give feedback on current and future menus.
(8) Menus:
(a) The provider shall only offer menus approved by a dietitian.
(b) The AAA shall indicate the method by which the provider offers ingredient information on the meals provided to consumers.
(c) The provider shall list the serving size for each food item on each production menu.
(9) Nutritional adequacy:
(a) The provider shall offer meals that satisfy at least one-third of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) for each mealtime by targeting nutrient levels on the predominant population and health characteristics of the consumers in the PSA. The federal government makes the DRIs available to the general public free of charge on https://www.nal.usda.gov/fnic/dietary-reference-intakes.
(b) For each mealtime, the provider shall offer meals that follow the "Dietary Guidelines for Americans."
(c) For each meal time, the provider shall offer meals that, to the maximum extent practicable, are adjusted to meet any special dietary needs of consumers, including meals adjusted for cultural considerations, and preferences, and medically-tailored meals.
(d) The provider has flexibility in designing meals that are appealing to consumers.
(e) The provider has flexibility to use either nutrient analysis or menu patterns to determine nutritional adequacy.
(f) The AAA shall encourage providers to use, where feasible, locally-grown foods and identify potential partnerships and contracts with local producers and providers of locally-grown foods.
(10) Diet orders: If the AAA-provider agreement requires the provider to offer consumers therapeutic diets, then the provider is subject to the additional requirements in rule 173-4-06 of the Administrative Code unless it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet.
(11) Dietary supplements: The provider shall not pay for supplements, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds unless the supplement is part of a meal with a therapeutic diet.
(12) Food safety:
(a) The AAA shall indicate whether the United States department of agriculture, Ohio department of agriculture, another state's department of agriculture, or a local health district has jurisdiction to monitor the provider's compliance with food-safety laws, including sanitation, food temperatures, thermometers, food-borne illnesses, packaging, and dating meals.
(b) The AAA shall state that the AAA is responsible for reporting any reasonable cause to believe a provider is out of compliance with food-safety laws to the government authority identified in the AAA-provider agreement to comply with paragraph (A)(12)(a) of this rule.
(13) Training:
(a) The provider shall develop a training plan that includes orientation and annual in-service training.
(i) Orientation: The provider shall ensure that each employee, including each volunteer, who participates in meal preparation, handling, storage, or delivery successfully completes orientation on topics relevant to the employee's job duties before the employee performs those duties.
(ii) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each employee, including a volunteer, who participates in meal preparation, handling, storage, or delivery successfully completes in-service training every twelve months on topics relevant to the employee's job duties.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider is not responsible for complying with paragraph (A)(13)(a)(i) or (A)(13)(a)(ii) of this rule.
(B) Units:
(1) Congregate dining project: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Home-delivered meals project: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Congregate dining project based in restaurants or grocery stores: A unit is one meal provided in compliance with this rule and rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated December 1, 2023 at 9:30 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.1
The following are the requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Availability:
(1) The provider shall keep at least one congregate dining location in its nutrition project open for business to provide meals for at least one mealtime (i.e., a breakfast, lunch, or dinner) per day to consumers on five or more days per week, within a reasonable distance to older adult target populations. An AAA may obtain AGE's approval to enter into an AAA-provider agreement that allows fewer days per week or during a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency.
(2) The provider has flexibility to offer meals in different congregate dining locations on different days rather than have every congregate dining location open for at least five days per week.
(C) Carry-out meals: Older Americans Act Title III-C1 funds do not pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals (also known as "grab-and-go meals") provided at congregate dining locations unless all of the following apply:
(1) AGE approved an AAA's area plan or an amendment to the area plan to allow Title III C-1 funds to pay, in whole or in part, for carry-out meals pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(i), subject to any limitations in the approved area plan or area plan amendment.
(2) The meals provided on a carry-out basis do not exceed the twenty-five per-cent limits in 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(ii).
(3) Each carry-out meal is provided to a consumer in one of the scenarios under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(a)(1)(iii).
(D) Emergency closings:
(1) The provider shall give those consumers enrolled in its congregate dining project reasonable notice, to the extent practicable, before a scheduled mealtime when a congregate dining location will be closed due to weather-related emergencies, loss of power, kitchen malfunctions, natural disasters, a state of emergency declared by the governor, or a federal public health emergency by using broadcast media, its website, telephone, or by any combination of the three.
(2) The provider shall distribute information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf to prepare for emergency closings.
(E) Quality assurance: Each year, the provider shall implement a plan to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the project's operations and services to ensure continuous improvement by reviewing the existing project and the changing needs or interests of consumers, staff, or volunteers.
(F) Meal verification:
(1) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of meal provision.
(c) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the meal.
(2) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each meal provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
Last updated November 3, 2025 at 7:43 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.2
The following are the requirements to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a home-delivered meals project paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Delivery:
(1) Availability:
(a) Per-meal delivery:
(i) To a consumer who chooses to receive per-meal deliveries and needs meals on five or more days per week, the provider shall deliver at least one meal per day for five or more days per week.
(ii) To a consumer who chooses to receive per-meal deliveries, but does not need meals on five or more days per week, the provider shall deliver at least one meal per day on days that the consumer needs meals.
(b) Periodic delivery: The provider has flexibility to deliver meals to cover multiple mealtimes in one delivery to consumers who choose periodic deliveries.
(c) State of emergency: During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider has flexibility to, in one delivery, deliver meals to cover multiple mealtimes for consumers who received meals before the state of emergency (or federal public health emergency) by per-meal delivery or periodic delivery.
(2) Successful deliveries: The provider may deliver meals to the consumer's home only when the consumer or the consumer's caregiver is home, unless otherwise authorized by the AAA.
(3) Delivery method: 45 C.F.R. 1321.87 allows the provider to deliver meals by home delivery, pick-up, carry-out, drive-through, or similar methods.
(C) Emergency closings: The provider shall develop and implement emergency preparedness plans for emergency closings due to short-term weather-related emergencies, loss of power, kitchen malfunctions, natural disasters, a state of emergency declared by the governor (or a federal public health emergency), etc. that include both of the following:
(1) Providing timely notification of emergency situations to consumers.
(2) Distributing either of the following:
(a) Information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf.
(b) Shelf-stable meals to consumers for an emergency food shelf.
(D) Quality assurance: Each year, the provider shall implement a plan to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the project's operations and services to ensure continuous improvement by reviewing the existing project and the needs or interest of consumers, staff, or volunteers.
(E) Delivery verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal delivery that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Consumer's name.
(2) Delivery date.
(3) Number of meals delivered.
(4) A unique identifier of the consumer, the consumer's caregiver, or the delivery person to attest to the delivery.
(F) Health and wellness: 45 C.F.R. 1321.87 allows the provider to encourage consumers of home-delivered meals to participate in congregate dining and other health-and-wellness activities, as feasible, based on a person-centered approach and local availability.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-05.3
The following are the requirements to include in every AAA-provider agreement for a congregate dining project based in restaurants or grocery stores paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(A) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rules 173-3-06 and 173-4-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Eligibility verification: The provider shall use one of the following three methods to verify consumers' eligibility when complying with the eligibility-verification requirements in rule 173-4-03 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Identification card method (whether or not electronically verified): The provider that uses this method registers each consumer that it serves and issues the consumer an identification card. When the consumer visits the restaurant or grocery store, the consumer provides the identification card to the designated staff person at the restaurant or grocery store to receive a prepared meal. The provider may use an electronic verification system to validate the identification card.
(2) Voucher method (whether or not electronically verified): The provider that uses this method registers each consumer that it serves and issues the consumer a voucher. When the consumer visits the restaurant or grocery store, the consumer provides a voucher to the designated staff person at the restaurant or grocery store to receive a prepared meal. The provider may use an electronic verification system to validate the voucher.
(3) Handwritten verification method: Before providing a consumer the first meal, the provider that uses this method collects information required by the AAA and obtains a unique identifier from the consumer.
(C) Consumer contributions: The provider shall use one of the following two methods for soliciting consumer contributions when complying with the consumer-contribution requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code:
(1) The provider that uses the consumer identification method in paragraph (B)(1) or (B)(3) of this rule solicits the consumer to voluntarily contribute to the cost of the meals when the provider provides the meals.
(2) The provider that uses the method in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule solicits the consumer to voluntarily contribute to the cost of the meals when the provider provides the vouchers.
(D) Emergency closings: The provider shall distribute information to consumers on how to stock an emergency food shelf.
(E) Quality assurance: The provider shall elicit consumer's comments on dining environments, food appearance, type of food, food temperatures, and staff professionalism.
(F) Meal verification:
(1) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each meal provided that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Consumer's name.
(b) Date of meal provision.
(c) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the meal.
(2) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each meal provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
Last updated November 8, 2023 at 8:20 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-10
(A) "Grocery shopping assistance" means a service for a consumer who needs assistance shopping for groceries that assists the consumer with the act of shopping for groceries.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for grocery shopping assistance paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Introductory information: The provider shall provide a consumer with a packet of introductory information that explains how grocery shopping assistance works on the consumer's enrollment in grocery shopping assistance.
(3) Transferring groceries: The AAA-provider agreement shall indicate the extent to which it requires the provider to transfer a consumer's groceries between the store and the consumer's home.
(4) Payment:
(a) No Older Americans Act funds, other than funds from Title III-B, III-C, or III-E of the Older Americans Act, may pay for grocery shopping assistance.
(b) No Older Americans Act funds, other than funds from Title III-B, III-C, or III-E of the Older Americans Act, may pay for consumable supplies or material aid to meet a consumer's needs or preferences, such as groceries. Providers may accept other funds (e.g., private pay, SNAP) for consumable supplies or material aid to meet a consumer's needs or preferences.
(5) Service verification:
(a) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of assistance that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Consumer's name.
(ii) Service date.
(iii) Pick-up time and location.
(iv) Drop-off time and location.
(v) Service units.
(vi) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the service.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units: One unit of grocery shopping assistance is one-way transportation to or from a retail food establishment or non-profit food establishment.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:55 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-11
(A) "Grocery ordering and delivery" means a service for a consumer who needs assistance shopping for groceries that allows the consumer to order groceries, then delivers the ordered groceries to the consumer's home or vehicle (e.g., at a drive-thru pick-up window).
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for grocery ordering and delivery paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Procedures: The provider shall develop and implement procedures for the delivery of groceries.
(3) Payment:
(a) No Older Americans Act funds, other than funds from Title III-B, III-C, or III-E of the Older Americans Act, may pay for grocery ordering and delivery.
(b) No Older Americans Act funds, other than funds from Title III-B, III-C, or III-E of the Older Americans Act, may pay for consumable supplies or material aid to meet a consumer's needs or preferences, such as groceries. Providers may accept other funds (e.g., private pay, SNAP) for consumable supplies or material aid to meet a consumer's needs or preferences.
(4) Service verification:
(a) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Consumer's name.
(ii) Service date.
(iii) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the service.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting the unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units: One unit of grocery ordering and delivery is one episode of grocery ordering and delivery.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:55 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-07
(A) Introduction: All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to voluntary contributions. All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for services excluded by paragraph (C)(1) of this rule. All voluntary contributions and cost sharing for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to the requirements contained in 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2.
(B) Voluntary contributions: Each AAA is subject to the federal mandate under 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 to consult with relevant service providers and older individuals in the AAA's PSA to determine the best method for accepting voluntary contributions.
(1) A provider may do the following:
(a) Solicit service recipients to contribute toward the cost of the services received and encourage any service recipient to contribute if the service recipient's self-declared income is at, or above, one hundred eighty-five per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, which the United States department of health and human services establishes annually according to 42 U.S.C. 9902 and publishes on https://aspe.hhs.gov/poverty-guidelines.
(b) Develop a suggested contributions schedule for voluntary contributions based on the actual cost of services, but not use the schedule or any other means test to determine if a service recipient is eligible to receive a service.
(2) A provider shall do the following:
(a) Clearly inform each service recipient in written materials, in alternative formats, and in languages other than English in compliance with federal civil rights laws, that contributions are purely voluntary. 42 U.S.C. 3030c-2 does not allow means testing or denial of a service to a service recipient who does not contribute of the cost of the service.
(b) Protect the privacy and confidentiality of each service recipient with respect to the service recipient's contribution or lack of contribution.
(c) Safeguard and account for all voluntary contributions.
(d) Use collected voluntary contributions to expand the services for which service recipients contributed, and supplement Older Americans Act funds for those services and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(e) Conduct voluntary contributions in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(C) Cost sharing:
(1) All services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds are subject to cost sharing, except for the following services:
(a) Information and assistance, outreach, benefits counseling, case management, disease preventionand health promotion, or volunteer management.
(b) Education, training, or a support group provided through the national family caregiver support program.
(c) Congregate and home-delivered meals.
(d) Ombudsman, elder abuse prevention, legal assistance, or another consumer-protection service.
(2) Each AAA shall implement and administer a cost-sharing policy that includes all of the following:
(a) The following sliding-fee schedule, which determines the service recipient's suggested cost-share percentage of the actual (or partial) contracted cost of a unit of a service based upon the service recipient's individual income as a percentage of the federal poverty guideline. Under no circumstances may an AAA permit or obligate a service recipient to participate in cost sharing when the service recipient's income is below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.
Sliding-fee Schedule
| INCOME | SUGGESTED COST SHARE | | --- | --- | | 149% and below | 0% | | 150-174% | 10% | | 175-199% | 20% | | 200-224% | 30% | | 225-249% | 40% | | 250-274% | 50% | | 275-299% | 60% | | 300-324% | 70% | | 325-349% | 80% | | 350-374% | 90% | | 375%and above | 100% |
(b) A requirement to determine the service recipient's income solely by the service recipient's self-declaration of income with no requirement for verification, and no consideration or means testing of the service recipient's assets, savings, or other property.
(c) A procedure for collecting cost-sharing payments from service recipients, including from service recipients receiving participant-directed services.
(d) A prohibition against denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(e) A requirement to widely distribute written materials to service recipients that describe the requirements for cost sharing, the services subject to cost sharing, the procedure for cost sharing, the sliding-fee schedule published in this rule, and a statement that a provider is prohibited from denying services paid, in whole or in part, by Older Americans Act funds due to the income of the service recipient or the service recipient's failure to make a cost sharing payment.
(f) A requirement to provide a receipt to a service recipient or caregiver who makes a payment.
(g) A procedure for safeguarding and accounting for all cost-sharing funds collected.
(h) A requirement to retain records of all cost-sharing funds collected.
(i) A requirement to keep the service recipient's declaration or non-declaration of income and cost-sharing payment history confidential.
(j) A requirement to use the funds collected from cost sharing to expand the capacity to provide the service for which the funds were given, unless the funds are used to expand the pool of funds from which a coordinated service is paid and to meet any other requirements for program income in 2 C.F.R. 200.307 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii).
(k) A requirement to conduct cost sharing in a manner that does not cause a service recipient to feel intimidated or pressured to contribute.
(3) The AAA may request a waiver of the requirement in paragraph (C)(2) of this rule to implement and administer a cost-sharing policy. AGE shall approve the request if the AAA demonstrates to AGE, by a preponderance of the evidence, one of the following:
(a) At least eighty per cent of the service recipients in the PSA have incomes below one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.
(b) Cost sharing would be an unreasonable administrative or financial burden on the AAA.
(D) All program income:
(1) "Program income" has the same meaning as in 2 C.F.R. 200.1. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), "program income" includes voluntary contributions and cost sharing.
(2) Program income is subject to all of the following standards:
(a) 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(c)(2)(xii), which establishes the following:
(i) A limit on spending program income on only the service to which the income was originally collected.
(a) For program income received through a congregate dining project or home-delivered meals project, this means using the program income to increase the number of meals provided or to increase the nutrition counseling, nutrition education, or nutrition health screening to consumers who receive meals through the project.
(b) For program income received for a Title III-B service, this means using the program income to provide the same service to either of the following:
(i) Service recipients on waiting lists.
(ii) Service recipients in areas of the PSA in which the service has not been available or is underserved.
(ii) The addition alternative in 2 C.F.R. 200.307(e)(2).
(iii) A requirement to use program income during the grant period in which the income was originally collected.
(b) Requirements to report program income to AGE as it is earned.
(c) Requirements to report program income expenditures in AGE's designated reporting system.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 1:54 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-06
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Diet order" means an order for a therapeutic diet from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes ordering a therapeutic diet.
(2) "Therapeutic diet" means a calculated nutritive regimen including, the following regimens:
(a) Diabetic and other nutritive regimens requiring a daily specific calorie level.
(b) Renal nutritive regimens.
(c) Dysphagia nutritive regimens, excluding simple textural modifications.
(d) Any other nutritive regimen requiring a daily minimum or maximum level of one or more specific nutrients or a specific distribution of one or more nutrients.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for therapeutic diets paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to the requirements in rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Diet orders:
(a) The provider may provide a therapeutic diet to a consumer only if the provider received a diet order for the consumer or if it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet. If a therapeutic diet is a dysphagia nutritive regimen, the provider may provide the therapeutic diet only if the diet order indicates whether the consumer requires texture-modified foods and/or thickened liquids.
(b) The provider shall provide a therapeutic dietto the consumer identified in a diet order for the shorter of the following two durations:
(i) The length of time authorized by the diet order.
(ii) One year from the date the diet order indicates the diet should begin.
(c) The provider shall provide the therapeutic diet according to any updated diet order if the updated diet order is received before the expiration of the current diet order.
(d) The provider may use either nutrient analysis or a meal-pattern plan approved by a dietitian to assure that the therapeutic diet contains nutrients consistent with the diet order.
(e) The provider may provide a therapeutic diet only if the provider (or, if the consumer is in a care-coordination program, the AAA) retains a copy of the diet order unless it is the consumer's preference to choose a therapeutic diet.
(3) Dietitians:
(a) The provider shall determine the need, feasibility, and cost-effectiveness of offering a therapeutic diet by consulting with a licensed dietitian.
(b) A provider may provide a therapeutic diet only if the provider relies upon the oversight of a dietitian when providing the therapeutic diet.
Last updated December 1, 2023 at 9:30 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-07 Older Americans Act nutrition program: nutrition counseling.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
"Nutrition counseling" ("counseling") is a service provided under Title III, parts C1 and C2, of the Older Americans Act which 45 C.F.R. 1321.87 requires to align with the academy of nutrition and dietetics.
"Nutritional assessment" ("assessment") has the same meaning as in rule 4759-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for nutrition counseling paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Dietitian: Only a licensed dietitian ("dietitian") working for an agency provider, or a licensed dietitian working as a self-employed provider may provide counseling to consumers.
(3) Orders and limits:
(a) The provider may provide counseling to a consumer only if the provider obtains an order for the consumer's counseling from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes ordering counseling before providing the counseling.
(b) The provider may only provide counseling up to the amount the licensed healthcare professional ordered.
(c) The provider may provide counseling to a consumer's caregiver only if the licensed healthcare professional also ordered counseling for the consumer's caregiver to improve the caregiver's care to the consumer.
(4) Venue: The provider may conduct sessions by telephone, video conference, or in person in the consumer's home.
(5) Nutritional assessment:
(a) The provider shall conduct an assessment of the consumer's nutritional intake, anthropometric measurements, biochemical values, physical and metabolic parameters, socio-economic factors, current medical diagnosis and medications, pathophysiological processes, and access to food and food-assistance programs.
(b) No later than seven days after the initial assessment, the dietitian forwards the results of the initial assessment to the licensed healthcare professional who ordered the counseling and, if the consumer is in a care-coordination program, to the consumer's case manager.
(6) Nutrition intervention plan: The provider shall perform all of the following activities concerning a nutrition intervention plan:
(a) Base the plan on the initial assessment and subsequent assessments (if conducted).
(b) Include all of the following in the plan:
(i) Clinical and behavioral goals and a care plan.
(ii) Intervention planning, including nutrients required, feeding modality, and method of nutrition education and counseling, with expected measurable outcomes.
(iii) Consideration for input from the consumer, licensed healthcare professional who ordered the counseling, case manager (if any), consumer's caregiver (if any), and relevant service provider (if any).
(iv) The scheduling of any follow-up counseling sessions.
(c) Forward, no more than seven days after the provider sends the assessment to the licensed healthcare professional who ordered the counseling, the plan to the same professional and, if the consumer is in a care-coordination program, to the consumer's case manager.
(d) Provide reports on the plan's implementation and the consumer's outcomes to the licensed healthcare professional who ordered the counseling and, if the consumer is in a care-coordination program, to the consumer's case manager.
(7) Service verification:
(a) The following are the mandatory reporting items for each counseling/assessment session that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Date of session.
(ii) Time of day when the session begins and ends.
(iii) Name of the dietitian providing the session.
(iv) Unique identifier of the dietitian to attest to providing the session.
(v) Unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver to attest to receiving the session.
(b) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify each episode of service provided without collecting a unique identifier of the consumer or the consumer's caregiver.
(C) Units:
(1) A unit of nutrition counseling is fifteen minutes of counseling.
(2) A unit of nutrition assessment is one nutrition assessment session per consumer.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4759-2-01
The following meanings apply to all rules promulgated by the state medical board of Ohio, unless a specific paragraph explicitly defines or uses the word or term in a different manner subject to the laws of Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code, including section 4759.01 of the Revised Code defining the practice of dietetics.
(A) "Nutrition assessment" means the systematic approach for collecting, classifying, and synthesizing relevant data to develop an individualized nutritional care plan. These data may include:
(1) Nutrient intake;
(2) Anthropometric measurements;
(3) Biochemical values;
(4) Physical and metabolic parameters;
(5) Socio-economic factors;
(6) Current medical diagnosis and medications; and
(7) Pathophysiological processes.
The mere collection of these data for use in assessment is not nutritional assessment and does not require a dietitian licensed under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. Nutrition assessment is an on-going dynamic process and includes re-assessment, analysis of client or community needs and provides the foundation for nutrition diagnosis and nutritional recommendations including enteral and parenteral nutrition.
(B) "Nutritional counseling" means the advising of individuals or groups regarding nutritional intake by integrating information from the nutritional assessment with information on food and other sources of nutrients and meal preparation consistent with cultural background and socioeconomic status.
The distribution by an individual of written information prepared by a licensee is not nutritional counseling, and any person distributing the written information need not be licensed under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Nutritional education" means a planned program based on learning objectives with expected outcomes designed to modify nutrition-related behaviors. This does not prohibit an unlicensed individual from providing general non-medical nutrition information as defined in paragraph (M) of rule 4759-2-01 of the Administrative Code if the person does not violate division (B) of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Nutritional care standards" means policies and procedures pertaining to the provision of nutritional care in institutional and community settings.
(E) "Nutritional care" means the application of the science of nutrition in the health and disease of people.
(F) "Board" means the state medical board of Ohio.
(G) "Commission" means "The Commission on Dietetic Registration."
(H) "The Academy" means "The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics."
(I) "Medical nutrition therapy" means the evidence-based application of the nutrition care process and use of specific nutrition services to treat, or rehabilitate an illness, injury, or condition. Medical nutrition therapy includes nutrition assessment, re-assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention, nutrition monitoring and evaluation within the scope of practice of dietetics as defined in section 4759.01 of the Revised Code.
(J) "Council on postsecondary accreditation" is synonymous with its successors the "Commission on recognition of post-secondary accreditation" and the "Council for higher education accreditation" (CHEA).
(K) For purposes of division (B)(2) of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code, the terms "Nutritionist," "Nutrition counselor" and like terms tend to indicate the person is practicing dietetics.
(L) "High nutritional risk" means, but is not limited to, an individual to whom one or more of the following apply:
(1) Has a diagnosis of or presence of risk factors for malnutrition, dehydration, anemia, malabsorption disorders, vitamin and mineral deficiencies;
(2) Receives enteral or parenteral nutrition;
(3) Has pressure ulcer(s), open wounds(s), or non-healing wound(s);
(4) Significantly low albumin or hemoglobin levels, or elevated blood urea nitrogen and electrolyte imbalances;
(5) Severe chewing or swallowing problems;
(6) Consistently poor food/fluid intakes;
(7) Individuals who are less than ninety per cent of standard weight for height, or who exhibit significant weight changes as defined by accepted practice guidelines;
(8) Decreased activities of daily living (ADL);
(9) Decreased cognitive ability;
(10) A pregnant female who was fifteen years of age or less at the time of conception;
(11) Infants who are small for gestational age, or a pre-term infant of low birth weight.
(M) "General non-medical nutrition information" means information on the following:
(1) Principles of good nutrition and food preparation;
(2) Food to be included in the normal daily diet;
(3) The essential nutrients needed by the body;
(4) Recommended amounts of the essential nutrients;
(5) The actions of nutrients on the body;
(6) The effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients; or
(7) Food and supplements that are good sources of essential nutrients.
(N) "Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics" (ACEND) of the academy of nutrition and dietetics is the accrediting agency for didactic education and preprofessional experience programs that prepare students for careers as dietitians. Dietetics education programs voluntarily apply to the ACEND for program accreditation by submitting applications demonstrating compliance with the accreditation standards.
Last updated October 31, 2025 at 7:35 AM
History
- Effective: October 31, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-4-08 Older Americans Act nutrition program: nutrition education.
(A) "Nutrition education" means an intervention that provides consumers and caregivers with knowledge and skills to make healthy food and beverage choices.
(B) Requirements for every AAA-provider agreement for nutrition education paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The AAA-provider agreement is subject to rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Approved content: The provider shall provide education content that meets the following requirements:
(a) A licensed dietitian approved it as promoting better health.
(b) It is consistent with the "Dietary Guidelines for Americans."
(c) It is accurate, culturally sensitive, regionally appropriate, and considerate of personal preferences, including a consumer's needs interests and abilities (including literacy level).
(d) It supports food, nutrition, and physical activity choices and behaviors in order to maintain or improve health and address nutrition-related conditions.
(3) Education format: The provider may provide education in person, through remote formats (including video, audio, or online), or through the distribution of materials. The provider shall use a format that is culturally sensitive, regionally appropriate, and considers personal preferences, including a consumer's needs and abilities.
(4) Approved evaluation methodology: The provider shall implement a methodology for evaluating the effectiveness of its nutrition education that has the AAA's approval before the provider implements it.
(5) Frequency: The AAA-provider agreement shall obligate the provider to provide nutrition education as appropriate, based on the needs of consumers who receive meals.
(6) Special requirements for congregate dining projects: If the AAA-provider agreement obligates the provider to offer nutrition education through a congregate dining project, then the provider shall comply with the following requirements:
(a) Offer nutrition education in group sessions.
(b) Report the following mandatory reporting items for each session to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Each consumer's name (e.g., in a list).
(ii) Session date.
(iii) Duration of session.
(iv) Educational topic.
(v) Instructor's name.
(vi) Unique identifier of the instructor to attest to providing the session.
(7) Special requirements for home-delivered meal projects and congregate dining projects based in restaurants and supermarkets: If the AAA-provider agreement obligates the provider to offer nutrition education through a home-delivered meal project or congregate dining project based in restaurants or supermarkets, then the following are the mandatory reporting items for the service that a provider retains to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(9) of rule 173-3-06 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Number of consumers who received the approved content.
(b) Service date.
(c) Topic of approved content.
(d) Unique identifier of the provider to attest to providing the approved content.
(C) Units: A unit of nutrition education is one nutrition education session per consumer whether provided in person, through remote formats (including video, audio, or online), or through the distribution of materials.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-6 Golden Buckeye Card Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-01 Golden buckeye program: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter establishes requirements for a person or a business to participate in the golden buckeye program. The program serves as a gateway to the following:
(1) Current information on services available from the aging network to support older Ohioans and their families.
(2) Timely information on the issues and changing needs for older Ohioans.
(3) Benefits or discounts targeted for older Ohioans and Ohioans who are persons with a disability.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Application" means form ODA0023 (rev. 03/2021).
"Business" means any of the following: a recognized professional (e.g., an optician, a painter) providing a benefit or discount to cardholders regarding services he or she offers; a retail store or retail food operation providing a benefit or discount to cardholders regarding consumer goods and services it sells; or a governmental entity (e.g., state park, a public pool) providing a benefit or discount to cardholders regarding goods or services it provides.
"Cardholder" means any person who possesses a golden buckeye card.
"Director" means the director of ODA.
"Golden buckeye program" means the program authorized under section 173.06 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Person with a disability" has the same meaning as in section 173.06 of the Revised Code.
"Sign-up site" means an ODA-approved location where a person may apply for a golden buckeye card. Many senior centers, libraries, and other locations are ODA-approved sign-up sites.
Last updated August 24, 2026 at 8:39 AM
History
- Effective: June 20, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-02 Golden buckeye program: eligibility requirements for persons.
Any person who meets one of the following sets of requirements is eligible for a golden buckeye card:
(A) The person is a resident of Ohio who is sixty years of age or older.
(B) The person is a resident of Ohio who is between eighteen and fifty-nine years of age and is a person with a disability.
Last updated August 24, 2026 at 8:39 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-03 Golden buckeye program: enrollment process for persons sixty years of age or older.
(A) Automatic enrollment:
(1) ODA may automatically enroll an Ohio resident who is sixty years of age or older into the golden buckeye program.
(2) If an automatically-enrolled person wants a golden buckye card, the person may apply for the card on https://aging.ohio.gov/getgbc.
(B) Requested enrollment:
(1) If ODA did not automatically enroll an Ohio resident who is sixty years of age or older, and the person wants to enroll in the golden buckeye program, the person shall apply on https://aging.ohio.gov/getgbc or apply at a sign-up site. Sign-up sites include most Ohio senior centers and libraries.
(2) To apply at a sign-up site, the person shall do the following:
(a) Obtain an application from a sign-up site.
(b) Return the signed, completed application to the sign-up site.
(c) Provide the sign-up site with evidence the applicant is at least sixty years of age and a resident of Ohio (e.g., driver's license, state identification card).
(3) After a sign-up site receives an application, it shall do all of the following:
(a) The sign-up site shall verify the person completed and signed the application.
(b) The sign-up site shall verify the person is sixty years of age or older and a resident of Ohio by indicating the source of evidence (e.g., driver's license, state identification card) on the application.
(c) The sign-up site shall identify itself on the application.
(d) On the application, the sign-up site shall write the initials of the staff person at the sign-up site who processed the application.
(e) The sign-up site shall mail, email, or fax the completed application to the processing location listed on the application. The sign-up site shall do so in less than one week after it receives the application.
(4) After ODA receives an application from a sign-up site, it shall do the following:
(a) ODA shall verify the sign-up site complied with paragraph (B)(3) of this rule.
(b) ODA shall issue a golden buckeye card to the eligible person.
(C) Card validation:
(1) After a person is issued a golden buckeye card, the cardholder shall sign the card. No card is valid until the cardholder signs it.
(2) After the cardholder signs his or her golden buckeye card, the card remains valid for the remaining life of the cardholder, unless ODA revokes the card due to a fraudulent application or fraudulent use of the card, or the program is discontinued.
(D) Transferability: A cardholder shall not transfer a golden buckeye card to any other person.
(E) Replacement card: If a golden buckeye card is lost, stolen, or damaged, a cardholder who is sixty years of age or older may contact ODA to request a replacement card.
Last updated August 24, 2026 at 8:39 AM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-04 Golden buckeye program: enrollment process for persons eighteen to fifty-nine years of age.
(A) Enrollment:
(1) If an Ohio resident who is eighteen to fifty-nine years of age who is also a person with a permanent and total disability chooses to apply for the golden buckeye program, the person shall apply at a sign-up site. Sign-up sites include most Ohio senior centers and libraries.
(2) To apply, the person shall do all of the following:
(a) Obtain an application from a sign-up site.
(b) Return the signed, completed application to the sign-up site.
(c) Provide the sign-up site with evidence the person is eighteen to fifty-nine years of age and a resident of Ohio (e.g., driver's license, state identification card).
(d) Provide the sign-up site with evidence the person is a person with a disability (e.g., declaration of total disability from the bureau of workers' compensation or another state agency with authority to declare disabilities, medicare card, or benefits verification letter from the social security administration, benefits letter from the veterans' administration, or a similar award letter from a public pension program).
(3) After a sign-up site receives an application, it shall do all of the following:
(a) The sign-up site shall verify the application has been completed and signed.
(b) The sign-up site shall verify the person is eighteen to fifty-nine years of age and a resident of Ohio by indicating the source of evidence (e.g., driver's license, state identification card) on the application.
(c) The sign-up site shall verify the person is a person with a disability by indicating the source of evidence (e.g., declaration of total disability from the bureau of workers' compensation or another state agency with authority to declare disabilities, medicare card, or benefits verification letter from the social security administration, benefits letter from the veterans' administration, or a similar award letter from a public pension program) on the application.
(d) The sign-up site shall identify itself on the application.
(e) On the application, the sign-up site shall write the initials of the staff person at the site who processed the application.
(f) The sign-up site shall mail, email, or fax the signed, completed application to the processing location identified on the application less than one week after it receives the application.
(4) After ODA receives the application from a sign-up site, it shall do the following:
(a) Verify the sign-up site complied with paragraph (A)(3) of this rule.
(b) Issue a golden buckeye card to the eligible person.
(B) Card validation:
(1) After ODA issues a golden buckeye card to a person, the cardholder shall sign the card. No card is valid until the cardholder signs it.
(2) After the cardholder signs his or her golden buckeye card, the card remains valid for the remaining life of the cardholder, unless ODA revokes the card due to a fraudulent application or fraudulent use of the card, or the program is discontinued.
(C) Transferability: A cardholder shall not transfer a golden buckeye card to any other person.
(D) Replacement card: If a golden buckeye card is lost, stolen, or damaged, a cardholder who is eighteen to fifty-nine years who is also a person with a permanent and total disability may contact ODA for a replacement card.
Last updated August 24, 2026 at 8:39 AM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-05 Golden buckeye program: business participation agreements.
(A) To begin participating in the golden buckeye program, a business shall complete a business participation agreement ("agreement") on https://aging.ohio.gov/goldenbuckeyebiz to apply.
(1) To complete the agreement, the business shall provide all the following information: business contact information, indication of whether the business has parking for a person with a disability, forms of payment the business accepts, general business classification (e.g., pet store), benefit or discount to be offered to cardholders, exclusions and limitations, and acknowledgment of the following statements:
"I, the undersigned, on behalf of the above named business, voluntarily enter into this good faith agreement with the Ohio Department of Aging (the department) to honor the Golden Buckeye card (the card) for products and services provided to eligible Ohioans (those age 60 or older and those 18 and older who have total and permanent disabilities). We agree to make no change in the regular price for goods and services before honoring the card."
"We understand that acceptance in the Golden Buckeye Program (program) does not imply an endorsement of our business by the department or the program of our products or services and we will not use Golden Buckeye logos and names to imply such an endorsement."
"We understand that our participation in the program is effective upon approval of this agreement by the department. We also acknowledge that this agreement remains in effect unless canceled by us (by sending a cancellation to the department by writing, telephone, or https://aging.ohio.gov/goldenbuckeyebiz or by the department and that violation of the above terms may result in automatic removal from the program."
(2) If a business with multiple locations intends to offer uniform benefits or discounts at each location, the business shall complete one agreement to represent all locations.
(3) If a business with multiple locations does not intend to offer uniform benefits or discounts at each location, the business shall complete a separate agreement for each location.
(B) After a business submits an agreement, ODA shall determine if the business may participate in the golden buckeye program. If ODA agrees to allow the business to participate in the program, ODA shall also determine the business's effective date for participating in the program.
(C) A business may revise any information provided to ODA by completing a revised agreement on https://aging.ohio.gov/goldenbuckeyebiz.
(D) A business may cancel its participation in the golden buckeye program at any time and for any reason by sending a cancellation to ODA by writing, telephone, or https://aging.ohio.gov/goldenbuckeyebiz.
(E) ODA may cancel a business's participation in the golden buckeye program at any time and for any lawful reason. In such a case, ODA shall notify the business of the cancellation.
Last updated August 19, 2026 at 10:38 AM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-06 Golden buckeye program: electronic business directory.
ODA may use the information obtained from business participation agreements to produce an electronic business directory on https://aging.ohio.gov/discovergb.
Last updated August 19, 2026 at 10:38 AM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-07 Golden buckeye program: cardholder records.
(A) ODA may retain cardholder records.
(B) A cardholder record is not a public record subject to inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(C) ODA may use the contact information in cardholder records to inform cardholders about the programs of ODA, other governmental agencies, or certain entities who are approved by ODA, unless restricted from doing so by Chapter 173-13 of the Administrative Code or any statute or rule identified in rule 173-13-04 of the Administrative Code, including sections 173.061 and 4501.27 of the Revised Code, 18 U.S.C. 2721(c), and rule 4501:1-12-02 of the Administrative Code.
(D) ODA's director (or the director's designee) may disclose contact information from cardholder records to other governmental agencies and organizations to inform cardholders of programs or information sponsored or supported by those governmental agencies or organizations, unless restricted from doing so by Chapter 173-13 of the Administrative Code or any statute or rule identified in rule 173-13-04 of the Administrative Code, including sections 173.061 and 4501.27 of the Revised Code, 18 U.S.C. 2721(c), and rule 4501:1-12-02 of the Administrative Code. Any governmental agency or organization receiving cardholder records shall use cardholder records only to inform cardholders of the programs or services of the governmental agency or non-profit organization.
(E) ODA shall not disclose information in cardholder records containing a cardholder's medical history.
Last updated August 24, 2026 at 8:39 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-04
The following statutes and rules make personal information maintained by ODA confidential:
Sections 111.41 to 111.47 of the Revised Code for not treating the name, address, and other personally-identifiable information of a person as public records if the person is a certified participant in the safe at home address confidentiality program administered by the secretary of state.
Section 149.43 of the Revised Code for the general statute on public records.
Section 173.061 of the Revised Code for records that identify recipients of golden buckeye cards.
Section 173.22 of the Revised Code; 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(12)(C), 3058d(a)(6)(C), 3058g(a)(5)(D), 3058g(d), and 3058i(e)(2); and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(a)(3), 1324.11(e)(3), 1324.13(e), 1324.15(f), 1324.17(b), and 1324.19(b) for the collection, compilation, analysis, and disclosure of information by the office of the state long-term care ombudsman program.
Sections 173.27, 173.38, and 173.381 of the Revised Code for criminal records.
Division (B) of section 173.393 of the Revised Code for records obtained while monitoring certified providers.
Division (H) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code for records in personal information systems.
Chapter 3798. of the Revised Code, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et. seq.; and 45 C.F.R. parts 160, 162, and 164 for individually-identifiable health information (HIPAA).
Section 4501.27 of the Revised Code, 18 U.S.C. 2721(c), and rule 4501:1-12-02 of the Administrative Code for personal information obtained from the bureau of motor vehicles.
42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(7); 42 C.F.R. 431.300 to 431.307; and rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code for information on medicaid applicants and recipients.
42 C.F.R. 460.112(f) for individually identifiable health information of participants who are enrolled in PACE.
45 C.F.R. 1321.75 for identifying information on older individuals and family caregivers collected in the conduct of the state's responsibilities under the Older Americans Act.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:35 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4501:1-12-02
(A) As used in this rule:
(1) "Personal information" means information contained in a motor vehicle record that identifies an individual person, including but not limited to, the person's photograph, digital image, digitalized photograph, social security number, driver or driver's license identification number, name, date of birth, telephone number, medical or disability information, or a person's address other than the county and five-digit zip code. "Personal information" does not include information pertaining to a vehicular accident, driving or traffic violation, or driver's status, or a name that is provided by the requester.
(2) "Motor vehicle record" means a record that pertains to a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, an identification card, a certificate of title, a motor vehicle registration, or motor vehicle identification license plates, including an enumeration of the motor vehicle accidents in which the driver has been involved, except accidents certified in division (D) of section 3937.41 of the Revised Code, and the driver's record of convictions for violation of the motor vehicle laws.
(3) "Requester" means a person who requests release of a motor vehicle record.
(4) "Application" means an application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, an identification card, a certificate of title, or a motor vehicle registration regardless of whether it is made to the bureau of motor vehicles (BMV), a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas, and regardless of whether it is made in person with the assistance of a clerk, by mail, or by any other permissible means.
(5) "Applicant" means a person who submits an application.
(6) "Express consent" means an affirmative choice on a "Record Confidentiality Waiver," form "BMV2095," (8/12) which may be obtained via the BMV's website at https://www.bmv.ohio.gov/doc-forms.aspx by an applicant or other person regarding whom the BMV has a motor vehicle record to authorize disclosure by the BMV, a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas of his or her personal information in response to a request under section 4501.27 of the Revised Code. "Express consent" is also known as "opt-in."
(7) "Medical and disability information express consent" means an affirmative choice on form "BMV2095"by an applicant or other person regarding whom the BMV has a motor vehicle record to authorize disclosure by the BMV, a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas of his or her medical and disability information in response to a motor vehicle record request under section 4501.27 of the Revised Code. "Medical and disability information express consent" is also known as "medical and disability information opt-in."
(8) "Sensitive personal information" means an individual's photograph, digital image, digitalized photograph, social security number, or medical or disability information.
(9) "Deputy registrar" means a person appointed in accordance with section 4503.03 of the Revised Code.
(10) "BMV record account holder" means a requester who has entered into a memorandum of understanding or contract with the Ohio department of public safety, bureau of motor vehicles, for the release of information.
(11) "Bulk request" means a request for copies of an entire set or subset of the database of motor vehicle records maintained by the BMV.
(B) Except as provided for by this rule, the registrar of motor vehicles, and any employee or contractor of the BMV, will not knowingly disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personal information about an individual that the BMV obtained in connection with a motor vehicle record.
(C) Pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code, the BMV may disclose personal information and/or sensitive personal information if the requester is eligible under division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code and disclosure is not prohibited by section 4501.15, section 4507.53, or another section of the Revised Code, other state law, the "Federal Driver's Privacy Protection Act of 1994", 18 U.S.C. 2721 et seq., as amended, which may be obtained through the "U.S. Government Publishing Office" at http://gpo.gov, or other federal law.
Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, sensitive personal information about an individual may not be disclosed unless the requirements of division (B)(3)(a) of section 4501.27, and division (B) of section 4501.15, and section 4507.53 of the Revised Code are met.
(D) A requester, including a BMV record account holder with the BMV, may request release of a motor vehicle record pertaining to a specified person by either submitting a public records request or by completing an "OBMV Record Request," form "BMV1173," (1/23), which may be obtained via the BMV's website at https://www.bmv.ohio.gov/doc-forms.aspx and submitting any required documentation.
(1) Upon the receipt of a public records request, the BMV will promptly prepare and make available for inspection a motor vehicle record to any person at all reasonable times during regular business hours, or may make copies of the motor vehicle record available at cost within a reasonable period of time.
(a) The BMV will not provide personal information in response to a public records request for a motor vehicle record. The BMV will provide a redacted copy of the motor vehicle record.
(b) A requester will be charged the appropriate fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4503.26, section 4505.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.
(c) The BMV may not limit or condition the availability of a motor vehicle record by requiring the disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the requested public record. The BMV may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing the ability of the BMV to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought by the requester.
(2) Upon receipt of a request for a specific motor vehicle record submitted on form BMV1173, and accompanied by the fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4501.34, section 4503.26, section 4505.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code, the BMV will provide personal information to requesters authorized by law to receive such information.
(a) The BMV will provide un-redacted paper copies of records in a format designed to make duplication or retransmission of any personal information contained on the motor vehicle record difficult. The copies provided to the requester shall indicate the name of the requester.
(b) The BMV will provide electronic copies of records to requesters who have provided satisfactory assurances of security and confidentiality to the registrar.
(E) A requester who requests his or her own personal information contained in his or her own motor vehicle record at a deputy registrar shall prove his or her identity through presentation of a driver's license, identification card, or social security number. A request submitted by mail shall be fulfilled by mailing the motor vehicle record only to the address provided on the completed form "BMV1173." A requester who requests his or her own personal information is not eligible to receive copies of the individual's photographic images contained in the BMV databases pursuant to section 4507.53 of the Revised Code.
(F) Upon receipt of a bulk records request, the BMV will provide personal information to a BMV record account holder who is authorized by law to receive personal information, and who has completed form "BMV1173," and who has submitted any additional documentation the BMV may require.
(1) The BMV record account holder will be charged the appropriate fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4501.34, section 4503.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.
(2) The BMV will provide electronic copies of uncertified records only to data account holders who have provided satisfactory assurances of security and confidentiality to the registrar, as well as satisfactory proof of authorization to receive personal information.
(3) Requests for certified records submitted by BMV record account holders shall be submitted and received in a manner as listed on the "BMV Record Account Holder - Request and Receive Records," form "BMV3349," (7/20), and be provided by the BMV upon creation of the BMV record account holder's account.
(G) Form "BMV1173" shall include the following information:
(1) The identity of the requester:
(a) If the requester is a sole proprietorship or individual, the requester shall provide a driver's license number or identification card number and submit any additional required documents listed on the "Business Identification Information," form "BMV3342," (6/19), which is provided by the BMV upon a request to establish a BMV record account. If the requester does not possess a driver's license or identification card, the requester shall provide proof of identity and social security number in accordance with the acceptable documents set forth in rule 4501:1-1-21 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If the requester is a corporation, the requester shall provide a tax identification number, a certified copy of the "Certificate of Good Standing" from the office of the secretary of state or equivalent state agency in which it is incorporated, and the name of its statutory agent.
(2) If the requester claims to be eligible for the disclosure of personal information, the requester shall provide a statement indicating which of the statutory exceptions to nondisclosure of personal information applies. A requester may indicate eligibility on form "BMV1173" under only one exception. If a requester is eligible under one or more exceptions, he or she must fill out and submit an individual "BMV1173" form for each exception. Personal information will be disclosed only for the following purposes:
(a) For the use of a government agency, including, but not limited to, a court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or for the use of a private person or entity acting on behalf of an agency of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state in carrying out its functions;
(b) For use in connection with matters regarding motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; motor vehicle market research activities, including, but not limited to, survey research; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers;
(c) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or an agent, employee, or contractor of a legitimate business, but only for one of the following purposes:
(i) To verify the accuracy of personal information submitted to the business, agent, employee, or contractor by an individual;
(ii) If personal information submitted to the business, agent, employee, or contractor by an individual is incorrect or no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purpose of preventing fraud, by pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering a debt, or security interest against, the individual;
(d) For use in connection with a civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in a court or agency of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state or before a self-regulatory body, including, but not limited to, use in connection with the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, or the execution or enforcement of a judgment or order;
(e) Pursuant to an order of a court of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state;
(f) For use in research activities or in producing statistical reports, provided the personal information is not published, re-disclosed, or used to contact an individual;
(g) For use by an insurer, insurance support organization, or self-insured entity, or by an agent, employee, or contractor of that type of entity, in connection with any claims investigation activity, anti-fraud activity, rating, or underwriting;
(h) For use in providing notice to the owner of a towed, impounded, immobilized, or forfeited vehicle;
(i) For use by any licensed private investigative agency or licensed security service for any purpose permitted under division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code;
(j) For use by an employer or by the agent or insurer of an employer to obtain or verify information relating to the holder of a commercial driver's license or permit that is required under the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, 49 U.S.C. 2701, et seq., as amended, which may be obtained through the "U.S. Government Publishing Office" at http://www.gpo.gov;
(k) For use in connection with the operation of a private toll transportation facility;
(l) For any use not otherwise identified in division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code that is in response to a request for individual motor vehicle records, if the individual whose personal information is requested completes and submits to the registrar or deputy registrar form "BMV2095" giving express consent to such disclosures;
(m) For bulk distribution for surveys, marketing, or solicitations, if the individual whose personal information is requested completes and submits to the registrar or a deputy registrar form "BMV2095" giving express consent to such disclosures;
(n) For use by a person, state, or state agency that requests the information, if the person, state, or state agency demonstrates that it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains;
(o) For any other use specifically authorized by law that is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or to public safety.
(3) Form "BMV1173" shall advise the requester that the requester must comply with the provisions of division (B) or (C) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code when using, selling, or re-disclosing any personal information pertaining to an individual's motor vehicle record obtained from the BMV.
(H) Except as provided in section 4501.272 of the Revised Code, the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk at the title office of a clerk of court of common pleas shall not ask the applicant whether he or she wishes to give express consent or medical and disability express consent, but shall provide form "BMV2095" when requested by the applicant. The individual shall give his or her express consent by affirmatively marking the appropriate choice and filling out the entire form, and submitting the completed form to the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk.
A person who completes a form "BMV2095" shall mail it, with the proper postage attached, to the address indicated on the form or shall submit it in person at an office of the BMV or of a deputy registrar or of a title office of a clerk of court of common pleas. Each deputy registrar and clerk of court of common pleas shall forward all completed form "BMV2095" to the BMV in the manner prescribed by the registrar. A mail express consent and a medical and disability express consent shall take effect only form "BMV2095" is received by the BMV at its main office and is thereafter processed.
The registrar shall prescribe form "BMV2095" which shall be completed by an individual, the individual's guardian, or an attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the individual who wishes to give express consent to the release of his or her own personal information. A supply of form "BMV2095" shall be available at each office of the BMV, at each deputy registrar office, and at each title office of a clerk of court of common pleas. The form shall contain a statement that the individual's social security number and digital photo will not be disclosed even if express consent is given to release sensitive personal information. The language regarding giving express consent shall be in writing and shall appear on form "BMV2095" as indicated below:
(1) The express consent language shall read substantially as follows: "The Ohio Bureau of Motor Vehicles does not release personal information to other individuals or to businesses for bulk distribution for surveys, marketing, and solicitations. However, if you wish to authorize the release of your name and address and other personal information to other persons or businesses or to a specific person or business for these purposes, you may do so. Do you wish to authorize the release of this information?"
(2) The medical and disability express consent language shall read substantially as follows: "The Ohio Bureau of Motor Vehicles does not release personal information to other individuals, businesses, and others who request it. However, if you wish to authorize the release of your medical and disability information to others who request it or to a specific person or business, you may do so. Do you wish to authorize the release of your medical and disability information to individuals, businesses, and others who request it?"
(I) A person wishing to rescind a mail express consent, individual express consent, or medical and disability express consent may do so at any time by requesting form "BMV2095," and withdrawing his or her express consent by affirmatively marking the appropriate choice and filling out the entire form, and submitting the complete form to the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk. Each deputy registrar and clerk of court of common pleas shall forward all completed form "BMV2095" to the BMV in the manner prescribed by the registrar. A rescinded mail express consent, individual express consent, or medical and disability express consent takes effect only after form "BMV2095" is received by the BMV at its main office and is thereafter processed.
(J) An express consent or medical and disability information express consent applies to all motor vehicle records containing the person's social security number if the person includes his or her social security number on form "BMV2095. " If a particular motor vehicle record of the person does not contain his or her social security number, the express consent or medical and disability express consent applies to the record if the person includes sufficient identifying information with reference to the record on the record confidentiality waiver form.
(K) The BMV will not give notice of nonconforming record requests as permitted by division (D) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code, and regulate access to personal information as is required by section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and as defined in Chapter 4501-55 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 1, 2024 at 5:12 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-6-08 Golden buckeye program: ODA's administrator.
ODA may enter into an agreement with an entity to perform one or more administrative duties this chapter requires ODA to complete. If ODA enters into an agreement, in the agreement, ODA shall indicate which of ODA's administrative duties the entity shall perform.
Last updated August 19, 2026 at 10:38 AM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-9 Criminal Records Check - Paid Direct-Care Position
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-01 Background checks for paid direct-care positions: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter implements sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
(1) "AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
(2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Applicant" means a person that a responsible party is giving final consideration for hiring into a paid direct-care position that is a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing services to consumers through an AGE-administered program, even if an employment service refers the person to the responsible party. "Applicant" includes a person that a consumer has under final consideration for hiring as a participant-directed or self-directed provider. "Applicant" does not include a volunteer.
(4) "BCII" means "the bureau of criminal identification and investigation" and includes the superintendent of BCII.
(5) "Check criminal records" means to conduct a criminal records check.
(6) "Community-based long-term care services" means community-based long-term care services that are provided under any AGE-administered program.
(7) "Consumer" means a person who receives community-based long-term care services through a program that AGE administers. "Consumer" includes an individual enrolled in the PASSPORT program or assisted living program, and a participant enrolled in PACE.
(8) "Criminal records" has the same meaning as "results of the criminal records check," "results," and "report" in sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code when those sections use "results of the criminal records check," "results," and "report" to refer to the criminal records that BCII provides to responsible parties that conduct criminal records checks. Criminal records originate from BCII unless the context indicates that the criminal records originate from the FBI.
(9) "Criminal records check" ("check") means the criminal records check described in section 173.38 or 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Database reviews" means the database reviews under rule 173-9-03 of the Administrative Code.
(11) "Direct-care position":
(a) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in which an employee has either one or both of the following:
(i) In-person contact with one or more consumers.
(ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or records.
(b) "Direct-care position" does not include a position whose sole duties are transporting people under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code (i.e., while working for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission), an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, or a person who is not licensed to practice law in this state, but at the direction of an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, assists the attorney in the attorney's provision of legal services.
(12) "Disqualifying offense" means any offense listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (A)(3)(e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Employee" means a person that a responsible party hired into a paid direct-care position that is a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing services to consumers through an AGE-administered program, even if an employment service initially referred the person to the responsible party. "Employee" includes a participant-directed provider and a self-directed provider. "Employee" does not include a volunteer.
(14) "FBI" means "federal bureau of investigation."
(15) "Hire" has the same meaning as "employ" in section 173.38 of the Revised Code when "employ" regards hiring an applicant.
(16) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
(17) "PACE organization" has the same meaning as in rule 173-50-01 of the Administrative Code.
(18) "PASSPORT administrative agency" (PAA) has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.
(19) "Provider" means a person or government entity that provides community-based long-term care services under an AGE-administered program.
(20) "Release" has the same meaning as "terminate" in section 173.38 of the Revised Code when "terminate" regards releasing a conditionally-hired applicant.
(21) "Request criminal records" means to request a criminal records check, unless the context indicates that the request is of criminal records from the FBI.
(22) "Responsible party":
(a) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position, "responsible party" means the area agency on aging, PASSPORT administrative agency, provider, or sub-contractor.
(b) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position in a participant-direction or self-direction arrangement, "responsible party" means the consumer.
(c) When considering a self-employed applicant for certification under section 173.391 of the Revised Code or a self-employed person already certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, "responsible party" means AGE or the PASSPORT administrative agency.
(d) When considering a self-employed bidder for an AAA-provider agreement under section 173.392 of the Revised Code or a self-employed person already in an AAA-provider agreement under section 173.392 of the Revised Code, "responsible party" means the area agency on aging.
(23) "Retain" has the same meaning as "continue to employ" in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.
(24) "Reviewing databases" means the action involved in database reviews.
(25) "Self-employed" means the state of working for one's self with no employees. Non-agency and independent providers are self-employed. Participant-directed providers are not self-employed because the consumer is the employer of record.
(26) "Sub-contractor" means a provider that enters into a contract with a responsible party to provide a component of one or more of the other responsible party's direct-care positions. "Sub-contractor" includes a party that directly supplies services to a consumer on behalf of another responsible party. "Sub-contractor" does not include a party that indirectly supplies services to a consumer by directly providing the services to a responsible party.
(27) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care position without receiving, or expecting to receive, any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-03
(A) When to review: The responsible party shall review the databases listed under paragraph (B) of this rule to see if an applicant, employee, or self-employed provider has a disqualifying status in any of those databases before the deadlines for conducting a criminal records check on the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider in appendix B to rule 173-9-04 of the Administrative Code. The responsible party may conduct a criminal records check before reviewing databases if the responsible party completes both before the deadlines in appendix B to rule 173-9-04 of the Administrative Code. Any responsible party may use the automated registry check system (ARCS) to review all databases listed under paragraph (B) of this rule at the same time and on a continual basis.
(B) Databases to review: If the URL associated with any of the following databases becomes obsolete, please consult with the government entity publishing the database for an updated URL:
(1) The United States general services administration's system for award management (https://www.sam.gov/), which is maintained pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation.
(2) The office of inspector general of the United States department of health and human services' list of excluded individuals and entities (https://exclusions.oig.hhs.gov/), which is maintained pursuant to sections 1128 and 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5; or, if using ODM's automated registry check system (ARCS), the medicare exclusion database which is maintained pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 455.436.
(3) The department of developmental disabilities' online abuser registry (https://its.prodapps.dodd.ohio.gov/ABR_Default.aspx), established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code, which lists people cited for abuse, neglect, or misappropriation.
(4) The department of medicaid's online provider exclusion and suspension list (https://medicaid.ohio.gov/resources-for-providers/enrollment-and-support/provider-enrollment/provider-exclusion-and-suspension-list).
(5) The Ohio attorney general's sex offender and child-victim offender database (http://www.icrimewatch.net/index.php?AgencyID=55149&disc=), established under division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code.
(6) The department of rehabilitation and correction's database of inmates (https://appgateway.drc.ohio.gov/OffenderSearch), established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code.
(7) The department of health's nurse aide registry (https://nurseaideregistry.odh.ohio.gov/Public/PublicNurseAideSearch or https://nurseaideregistry.odh.ohio.gov/Public/PublicAbuseListing), established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code. If the applicant or employee does not present proof of Ohio residency for the five-year period immediately preceding the date of the database review, the responsible party shall conduct a review of the nurse aide registry in the state or states in which the applicant or employee lived.
(C) Disqualifying status:
(1) If an applicant's, employee's, or self-employed provider's name or alias appears in any of the databases listed in paragraphs (B)(1) to (B)(6) of this rule, the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider has a disqualifying status and is ineligible to work in a paid direct-care position.
(2) If an applicant's, employee's, or self-employed provider's name or alias appears in a database listed in paragraph (B)(7) of this rule as a person who has abused or neglected a resident of a long-term care facility or residential care facility, or misappropriated such a resident's property, the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider has a disqualifying status and is ineligible to work in a paid direct-care position.
(D) Referral by an employment service: Division (G) of section 173.38 of the Revised Code establishes an exception to the requirement to review an applicant's or employee's status in the databases listed under paragraph (B) of this rule.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-01
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates PACE, which is a managed-care program that provides its participants with all of their necessary health care, medical care, and ancillary services in acute, sub-acute, institutional, and community settings. Examples of PACE services are primary and specialty care, an adult day service, personal care, inpatient hospital stays, prescription drugs, occupational therapy, physical therapy, and nursing facility care.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"AGE's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-36-01 of the Administrative Code.
"CMS" means "the centers for medicare and medicaid services."
"IDT" means "inter-disciplinary team."
"ODM" means "the Ohio department of medicaid."
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly," which was established under 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4 (August 5, 1997).
"PACE organization" (PO) means an entity that provides services to participants under a PACE program agreement with CMS and AGE.
"Participant" means a person who receives services through PACE.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-02 Background checks for paid direct-care positions: applicability.
(A) Applicability: This chapter applies to every paid direct-care position unless this rule states otherwise. (For more information, please see the tables to appendix A to rule 173-9-04 of the Administrative Code.)
(B) Inapplicability: This chapter does not apply to the following positions:
(1) A volunteer position.
(2) A position whose sole duty is transporting consumers under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code (i.e., while working for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission).
(3) An ambulette driver employed by an organization licensed under Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.
(4) A position in a residential care facility. (See the background check requirements in Chapter 3701-13 of the Administrative Code.)
(5) A position providing direct care, as defined in section 3740.01 of the Revised Code, for a provider that needs a home health license under Chapter 3740. of the Revised Code. (See the background check requirements in Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code.)
(6) An attorney licensed to practice law in this state.
(7) A person who is not licensed to practice law in this state, but, at the direction of an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, assists the attorney in the attorney's provision of legal services.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-04
(A) Who to check: The tables to appendix A to this rule determine on which applicants, employees, and self-employed providers to conduct a criminal records check with BCII.
(B) Procedures: Sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 109:5-1 of the Administrative Code establish the procedures for conducting criminal records checks.
(C) Deadlines: The tables to appendix B to this rule establish the deadlines for a responsible party to conduct a criminal records check with BCII on the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider identified under paragraph (A) of this rule.
(D) Special situations:
(1) Reverification: If any person has requested a criminal records check from BCII on the person identified under paragraph (B) of this rule in the past year that required BCII to include sealed criminal records, the responsible party may request a reverification of the criminal records from BCII. The reverification of the criminal records has the same validity as the criminal records received during the past year.
(2) FBI records: Division (F) of section 173.38 and division (F) of section 173.381 of the Revised Code establish standards for when to request that BCII obtain information from FBI as part of the criminal records check on the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider identified under paragraph (A) of this rule.
(3) Referrals from an employment service: Division (G) of section 173.38 of the Revised Code establishes an exception to the requirement to conduct a criminal records check on an applicant or employee referred to a responsible party by an employment agency.
(4) Participant-directed providers: Rules 173-40-06 and 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code establish a requirement for PAAs to assist consumers enrolled in the PASSPORT program with their duties under this rule as responsible parties for participant-directed providers.
View AppendixView Appendix
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-06
An individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program has the same choices and responsibilities as rule 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code provides to an individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
ODA's designee has the same responsibilities with respect to an individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program as rule 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code provides to ODA's designee with respect to an individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-06
(A) Person-centered planning:
(1) The individual is subject to rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code. To comply with that rule, the individual and ODA's designee have flexibility to meet by telephone, video conference, or in person to develop the individual's person-centered services plan (plan).
(2) ODA's designee shall draft the plan according to the requirements in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Choices and responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual may choose a team of people to join the individual and ODA's designee in the meeting in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule.
(b) The individual shall cooperate with, and show respect to, ODA's designee to facilitate the following:
(i) Assessing the individual and visiting the individual's home to determine the individual's eligibility for the PASSPORT program, enroll the individual into the PASSPORT program, and determine the individual's service needs.
(ii) Recruiting, selecting, and dismissing the individual's providers. 42 C.F.R. 431.51 allows an individual to choose the providers from whom the individual wants to receive services, so long as each provider the individual chooses is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(iii) Developing and maintaining back-up plans that meet the individual's needs.
(c) After the plan is developed, the individual shall do the following:
(i) Understand the services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Use the services ODA's designee authorizes in the approved plan.
(iii) Notify ODA's designee if the individual desires to change the provider from whom the individual receives services.
(iv) Notify ODA's designee of any significant change that may affect the individual's service needs so that ODA's designee may update the plan. Significant changes include the following:
(a) The provider does not provide an authorized service at the time, or for the period of time, authorized by ODA's designee.
(b) The individual moves to another address.
(c) The individual repeatedly refuses to receive services.
(4) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only pays for services authorized in the plan.
(B) General responsibilities for the individual regarding providers:
(1) Treating providers with respect.
(2) Allowing ODA's designee to exchange information with any of the individual's service providers on a need-to-know basis.
(3) Neither requesting, nor offering assistance to, a provider to engage in unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior when providing a service.
(4) Reporting any incident involving the provider to ODA's designee. In turn, ODA's designee is subject to the incident-reporting requirements in rule 5160-44-05 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Notifying ODA's designee if the provider (or if an agency provider, the provider's staff) misses a scheduled service episode.
(6) Notifying the provider if the individual is going to miss a scheduled service episode, unless the provider is already informed of the individual's absence.
(7) Providing the provider (or, if an agency provider, the provider's staff) with the individual's unique identifier to verify that the provider (or the provider's staff) provided a service immediately following the conclusion of each episode.
(8) Verifying when each episode of service begins and ends, and if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires using electronic visit verification (EVV), verifying when each episode of service begins and ends by using the provider's chosen EVV method.
(9) Working with ODA's designee to resolve problems and concerns. If requested by the individual, ODA's designee shall act as a facilitator to resolve conflicts between the individual and the provider.
(C) Qualifications for individuals to direct participant-directed providers:
(1) An individual qualifies to direct a participant-directed provider if ODA's designee determines that all of the following are met:
(a) The provider is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(b) The individual successfully completes any training that ODA or its designee determines is necessary for the individual to direct a participant-directed provider.
(c) ODA's designee determines that the individual is able to direct a provider (i.e., perform the responsibilities of an employer) based upon an assessment by ODA's designee of the individual's strengths and weaknesses related to the individual's ability to direct a provider and understanding of all of the following:
(i) The services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) The service activities the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program covers for each service the individual would receive.
(iii) The methods for hiring and firing a participant-directed provider and selecting and dismissing agency and non-agency providers.
(iv) How to review databases and check criminal records according to Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(v) The methods for developing written or electronic activity plans with providers.
(vi) How to determine the necessary skills for a provider to meet the individual's specific needs and the options for providers to acquire those skills.
(vii) The methods for supervising and monitoring the provider's performance of specific activities, including written or electronic approval of the provider's time sheets.
(viii) How to work with ODA's designee to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if a provider is unable to provide the agreed-upon service.
(ix) How to seek assistance from the state or regional long-term care ombudsman program to resolve a problem or concern with a provider.
(x) The state appeal and fair hearing request procedures.
(xi) How to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, and to do so by using EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(xii) Records-retention requirements.
(2) ODA's designee shall retain records of its assessment and determination under paragraph (C)(1)(c) of this rule.
(D) Choices and responsibilities regarding participant-directed providers: If ODA's designee authorizes a participant-directed provider for the individual in the person-centered services plan, the following additional responsibilities apply:
(1) Responsibilities for ODA's designee:
(a) Providing the individual with the following information in a manner that is most effective for the individual:
(i) A list of the individual's choices and responsibilities listed in this rule.
(ii) The provider's requirements under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Information on the PASSPORT program.
(b) Reviewing the information listed under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule with the individual and offer assistance to help the individual understand the information.
(c) Helping the individual recruit, hire, retain, and fire the individual's participant-directed provider.
(d) Communicating with the individual in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality.
(e) Helping the individual identify the an appropriate method for the individual to verify that the provider provides each episode of service according to the person-centered services plan, retain records on verified services, and provide (or give access to) those records to the participant-directed provider.
(f) Revising the person-centered services plan to remove authorization for a participant-directed provider if both of the following occur:
(i) Either the individual fails to comply with the responsibilities for individuals under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule or the individual's health and safety cannot be assured by a participant-directed provider.
(ii) ODA's designee notifies the individual that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive a service from a participant-directed provider and the individual's right to a hearing on this matter under division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Responsibilities for the individual and ODA's designee to perform together:
(a) For any person the individual has under final consideration to hire as the individual's participant-directed provider, the individual may seek the assistance of ODA's designee to comply with section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The individual and ODA's designee shall work together to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if the provider cannot, or does not, meet the provider's obligation to provide a service to the individual.
(c) The individual shall consult with ODA's designee to determine what, if any, skills the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs, training the provider needs to obtain those skills, deadline to impose on the provider to complete the training, and means for the provider to access the training. The individual may participate in the training.
(d) The individual shall work with the financial management service that ODA's designee provides for individuals who direct participant-directed providers under the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(e) The individual shall work with ODA's designee to ensure that the person-centered services plan reflects the primary method to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, including EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code obligates participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(3) Responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual shall develop an activity plan with the provider, date the plan, and provide the individual's unique identifier to authenticate the plan, in a manner that does not conflict with the person-centered services plan.
(b) The individual shall designate a location in the individual's home in which the provider may safely store a copy of the individual's activity plan in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality. (Having a copy of the activity plan in the individual's home contributes to the provider's ability to adhere to the activity plan.)
(c) No individual may verify blank time sheets or time sheets that the provider (or the provider's staff) completes before providing services.
(E) Authorized representative: If an individual has an authorized representative, the individual's authorized representative may represent the individual for any purpose under this rule.
(F) Definitions for this rule:
"Agency provider," 'non-agency provider," and "participant-directed provider" have the same meanings as in the definition of "provider" in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Financial management service" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Unique identifier" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-05 Background checks for paid direct-care positions: conditional hiring.
(A) If the responsible party is an AAA, a PAA, an agency provider (including a PACE organization or a subcontractor), or a consumer (in the case of a hiring an applicant to be a participant-directed provider), the responsible party may conditionally hire an applicant for up to sixty days if the responsible party complies with all requirements and limitations under division (H) of section 173.38 of the Revised Code.
(B) Limited applicability:
(1) This rule does not establish a requirement for an employee who holds a paid direct-care position to enter a conditional status when undergoing a criminal records check.
(2) This rule does not authorize AGE to offer a conditional status to a self-employed applicant for certification as a non-agency provider.
(3) This rule does not authorize an AAA to offer a conditional status to a self-employed bidder on an AAA-provider agreement.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-06 Background checks for paid direct-care positions: disqualifying offenses.
(A) No responsible party may hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, retain an employee or a self-employed provider, certify a self-employed provider, fail to revoke a self-employed person's certification, enter into an AAA-provider agreement (agreement) with a self-employed provider, or fail to terminate that agreement, if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code unless allowed under rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code:
(1) 959.13 (cruelty to animals).
(2) 959.131 (prohibitions concerning companion animals).
(3) 2903.01 (aggravated murder).
(4) 2903.02 (murder).
(5) 2903.03 (voluntary manslaughter).
(6) 2903.04 (involuntary manslaughter).
(7) 2903.041 (reckless homicide).
(8) 2903.11 (felonious assault).
(9) 2903.12 (aggravated assault).
(10) 2903.13 (assault).
(11) 2903.15 (permitting child abuse).
(12) 2903.16 (knowingly or recklessly failing to provide for a functionally-impaired person).
(13) 2903.21 (aggravated menacing).
(14) 2903.211 (menacing by stalking).
(15) 2903.22 (menacing).
(16) 2903.34 (patient abuse, gross patient abuse, patient neglect).
(17) 2903.341 (patient endangerment).
(18) 2905.01 (kidnapping).
(19) 2905.02 (abduction).
(20) 2905.04 (child stealing, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(21) 2905.05 (criminal child enticement).
(22) 2905.11 (extortion).
(23) 2905.12 (coercion).
(24) 2905.32 (trafficking in persons).
(25) 2905.33 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents).
(26) 2907.02 (rape).
(27) 2907.03 (sexually battery).
(28) 2907.04 (unlawful sexual conduct with a minor, formerly corruption of a minor).
(29) 2907.05 (gross sexual imposition).
(30) 2907.06 (sexual imposition).
(31) 2907.07 (importuning).
(32) 2907.08 (voyeurism).
(33) 2907.09 (public indecency).
(34) 2907.12 (felonious sexual penetration, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(35) 2907.21 (compelling prostitution).
(36) 2907.22 (promoting prostitution).
(37) 2907.23 (enticing or soliciting another person to patronize a prostitute or brothel; procurement of a prostitute for another person to patronize).
(38) 2907.24 (soliciting, engaging in solicitation after a positive HIV test).
(39) 2907.25 (prostitution, engaging in prostitution after a positive HIV test).
(40) 2907.31 (disseminating matter harmful to juveniles).
(41) 2907.32 (pandering obscenity).
(42) 2907.321 (pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person).
(43) 2907.322 (pandering sexually-oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person).
(44) 2907.323 (illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance).
(45) 2907.33 (deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles).
(46) 2909.02 (aggravated arson).
(47) 2909.03 (arson).
(48) 2909.04 (disrupting public services).
(49) 2909.22 (soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism).
(50) 2909.23 (making a terroristic threat).
(51) 2909.24 (terrorism).
(52) 2911.01 (aggravated robbery).
(53) 2911.02 (robbery);.
(54) 2911.11 (aggravated burglary).
(55) 2911.12 (burglary, trespass in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present).
(56) 2911.13 (breaking and entering).
(57) 2913.02 (theft).
(58) 2913.03 (unauthorized use of a vehicle).
(59) 2913.04 (unauthorized use of property; unauthorized use of computer, cable, or telecommunication property; unauthorized use of the law enforcement automated database system; unauthorized use of the Ohio law enforcement gateway).
(60) 2913.05 (telecommunications fraud).
(61) 2913.11 (passing bad checks).
(62) 2913.21 (misuse of credit cards).
(63) 2913.31 (forgery, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards).
(64) 2913.32 (criminal simulation).
(65) 2913.40 (medicaid fraud).
(66) 2913.41 (defrauding a rental agency or hostelry).
(67) 2913.42 (tampering with records).
(68) 2913.43 (securing writings by deception).
(69) 2913.44 (personating an officer).
(70) 2913.441 (unlawful display of the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers).
(71) 2913.45 (defrauding creditors).
(72) 2913.46 (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(73) 2913.47 (insurance fraud).
(74) 2913.48 (workers' compensation fraud).
(75) 2913.49 (identity fraud).
(76) 2913.51 (receiving stolen property).
(77) 2917.01 (inciting to violence).
(78) 2917.02 (aggravated riot).
(79) 2917.03 (riot).
(80) 2917.31 (inducing panic).
(81) 2919.12 (unlawful abortion).
(82) 2919.121 (unlawful abortion upon minor).
(83) 2919.123 (unlawful distribution of an abortion-inducing drug).
(84) 2919.124 (unlawful performance of a drug-induced abortion).
(85) 2919.22 (endangering children).
(86) 2919.23 (interference with custody).
(87) 2919.24 (contributing to unruliness or delinquency of child).
(88) 2919.25 (domestic violence).
(89) 2921.03 (intimidation).
(90) 2921.11 (perjury).
(91) 2921.12 (tampering with evidence).
(92) 2921.13 (falsification, falsification in a theft offense, falsification to purchase a firearm, falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, falsification regarding a removal proceeding).
(93) .2921.21 (compounding a crime).
(94) 2921.24 (disclosure of confidential information).
(95) 2921.32 (obstructing justice).
(96) 2921.321 (assaulting or harassing a police dog or horse assaulting or harassing an assistance dog).
(97) 2921.34 (escape).
(98) 2921.35 (aiding escape or resistance to lawful authority).
(99) 2921.36 (illegal conveyance of weapons, drugs, intoxicating liquor, or a communications device onto the grounds of specified government facility, illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility).
(100) 2921.51 (impersonation of peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, or BCII investigator).
(101) 2923.01 (conspiracy to commit a disqualifying offense).
(102) 2923.02 (attempt to commit a disqualifying offense).
(103) .2923.03 (complicity related to another disqualifying offense).
(104) 2923.12 (carrying concealed weapons).
(105) 2923.122 (illegal conveyance or possession of deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone).
(106) 2923.123 (illegal conveyance of a deadly weapon into a courthouse illegal, possession, or control of deadly weapon or ordnance into a courthouse).
(107) 2923.13 (having weapons while under disability).
(108) 2923.161 (improperly discharging a firearm at or into a habitation, school safety zone, or with the intent to cause harm or panic to persons in a school, in a school building, or at a school function or the evacuation of a school function).
(109) 2923.162 (discharge of firearm on or near prohibited premises).
(110) 2923.21 (improperly furnishing firearms to minor).
(111) 2923.32 (engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity).
(112) 2923.42 (participating in criminal gang).
(113) 2925.02 (corrupting another with drugs).
(114) 2925.03 (aggravated trafficking in drugs, trafficking in drugs, trafficking in marihuana [marijuana], trafficking in cocaine, trafficking in LSD, trafficking in heroin, trafficking in hashish, trafficking in a controlled substance analog, trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound).
(115) 2925.04 (illegal manufacture of drugs, illegal cultivation of marijuana).
(116) 2925.041 (illegal assembly or possession of chemicals for the manufacture of drugs).
(117) 2925.05 (aggravated funding of drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking, drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking).
(118) 2925.06 (illegal administration or distribution of anabolic steroids),
(119) 2925.09 (illegal administration, dispensing, distribution, manufacture, possession, selling, or using of any dangerous drug to or for livestock or any animal that is generally used for food or in the production of food, unless the drug is prescribed by a licensed veterinarian).
(120) 2925.11 (aggravated possession of drugs, possession of drugs, possession of cocaine, possession of LSD, possession of heroin, possession of hashish, possession of a controlled substance analog, possession of marihuana [marijuana], possession of a fentanyl-related compound).
(121) 2925.13 (permitting drug abuse).
(122) 2925.14 (illegal use, possession, dealing, selling to a juvenile, or advertising of drug paraphernalia).
(123) 2925.22 (deception to obtain a dangerous drug).
(124) 2925.23 (illegal processing of drug documents).
(125) 2925.24 (tampering with drugs).
(126) 2925.36 (illegal dispensing of drug samples).
(127) 2925.55 (unlawful purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, underage purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, using false information to purchase a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, improper purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product).
(128) 2925.56 (unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product; unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product to a minor; improper sale of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product).
(129) 2927.12 (ethnic intimidation).
(130) 3716.11 (placing harmful objects in food or confection).
(B) No responsible party may hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, retain an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider, certify a self-employed provider, fail to revoke a self-employed provider's certification, enter into an agreement with a self-employed provider, or fail to terminate that agreement, if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses described in paragraph (A) of this rule, unless allowed under rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-07
Introduction: When the responsible party is an agency provider, PACE organization, AGE, AAA, or PAA, in the case of its applicants, employees, and subcontracted self-employed providers, there are four possible ways to hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, or retain an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider, if the applicant's, employee's, or subcontracted self-employed provider's criminal record contains a disqualifying offense: not being in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule. If 42 C.F.R. 460.68(a) permanently disqualifies an applicant, employee, or self-employed provider from employment in, or subcontracting by, a PACE organization or a subcontractor of a PACE organization, this rule does not establish an occasion when the disqualifying offense under 42 C.F.R. 460.68(a) does not disqualify under the PACE program.
When the responsible party is a consumer in the case of an applicant to be, or an employee who is, the consumer's participant-directed provider, there are four possible ways to hire an applicant, or retain an employee, as the consumer's participant-directed provider: not being in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
When the responsible party is AGE in the case of a self-employed provider's application to become a certified non-agency provider under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code and in the case of a certified non-agency provider, the responsible party shall not reject a self-employed provider's application for certification or revoke a self-employed provider's certification solely because the self-employed provider has a disqualifying offense on his or her criminal record in the following four situations: the self-employed provider is not in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
When the responsible party is an AAA in the case of a self-employed provider who bids for an AAA-provider agreement or is in an existing AAA-provider agreement, the responsible party shall not reject a bid from a self-employed provider for an AAA-provider agreement (agreement) or to terminate an existing agreement solely because the self-employed provider has a disqualifying offense on the self-employed provider's criminal record in the following four situations: the self-employed provider is not in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
(A) Periods of disqualification:
(1) Tier I: permanent disqualification: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is in a permanent period of disqualification if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(a) 2903.01 (aggravated murder).
(b) 2903.02 (murder).
(c) 2903.03 (voluntary manslaughter).
(d) 2903.11 (felonious assault).
(e) 2903.15 (permitting child abuse).
(f) 2903.16 (knowingly or recklessly failing to provide for a functionally-impaired person).
(g) 2903.34 (patient abuse, gross patient abuse, patient neglect).
(h) 2903.341 (patient endangerment).
(i) 2905.01 (kidnapping).
(j) 2905.02 (abduction).
(k) 2905.32 (trafficking in persons)
(l) 2905.33 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents).
(m) 2907.02 (rape).
(n) 2907.03 (sexual battery).
(o) 2907.04 (unlawful sexual conduct with a minor, formerly corruption of a minor).
(p) 2907.05 (gross sexual imposition).
(q) 2907.06 (sexual imposition).
(r) 2907.07 (importuning).
(s) 2907.08 (voyeurism).
(t) 2907.12 (felonious sexual penetration).
(u) 2907.31 (disseminating matter harmful to juveniles).
(v) 2907.32 (pandering obscenity).
(w) 2907.321 (pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person).
(x) 2907.322 (pandering sexually-oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person).
(y) 2907.323 (illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance).
(z) 2909.22 (soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism).
(aa) 2909.23 (making a terroristic threat).
(bb) 2909.24 (terrorism).
(cc) 2913.40 (medicaid fraud).
(dd) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(ee) Any other section of the Revised Code related to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct involving a federal or state-funded program other than section 2913.46 of the Revised Code (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(2) Tier II: ten-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a ten-year period of disqualification which ends ten years after the date the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 2903.04 (involuntary manslaughter).
(ii) 2903.041 (reckless homicide).
(iii) 2905.04 (child stealing, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(iv) 2905.05 (child enticement).
(v) 2905.11 (extortion).
(vi) 2907.21 (compelling prostitution).
(vii) 2907.22 (promoting prostitution).
(viii) 2907.23 (enticing or soliciting another person to patronize a prostitute; procurement of a prostitute for another person to patronize).
(ix) 2909.02 (aggravated arson).
(x) 2909.03 (arson).
(xi) 2911.01 (aggravated robbery).
(xii) 2911.11 (aggravated burglary).
(xiii) 2913.46 (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(xiv) 2913.48 (worker's compensation fraud).
(xv) 2913.49 (identity fraud).
(xvi) 2917.02 (aggravated riot).
(xvii) 2923.12 (carrying concealed weapons).
(xviii) 2923.122 (illegal conveyance or possession of deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone).
(xix) 2923.123 (illegal conveyance of a deadly weapon into a courthouse, possession or control of deadly weapon or ordnance into a courthouse).
(xx) 2923.13 (having weapons while under disability).
(xxi) 2923.161 (improperly discharging a firearm at or into a habitation, a school safety zone, or with the intent to cause harm or panic to persons in a school, in a school building, or at a school function or the evacuation of a school function).
(xxii) 2923.162 (discharge of firearm on or near prohibited premises).
(xxiii) 2923.21 (improperly furnishing firearms to a minor).
(xxiv) 2923.32 (engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity).
(xxv) 2923.42 (participating in a criminal gang).
(xxvi) 2925.02 (corrupting another with drugs).
(xxvii) 2925.03 (aggravated trafficking in drugs, trafficking in drugs, trafficking in marihuana [marijuana], trafficking in cocaine, trafficking in LSD, trafficking in heroin, trafficking in hashish, trafficking in a controlled substance analog, trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound).
(xxviii) 2925.04 (illegal manufacture of drugs, illegal cultivation of marijuana).
(xxix) 2925.041 (illegal assembly or possession of chemicals for the manufacture of drugs).
(xxx) 3716.11 (placing harmful or hazardous objects in food or confection).
(xxxi) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a fifteen-year period of disqualification (which ends fifteen years after the date the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation, or parole) if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a), (A)(3)(a), or (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(3) Tier III: seven-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a seven-year period of disqualification which ends seven years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 959.13 (cruelty to animals).
(ii) 959.131 (prohibitions concerning companion animals).
(iii) 2903.12 (aggravated assault).
(iv) 2903.21 (aggravated menacing).
(v) 2903.211 (menacing by stalking).
(vi) 2905.12 (coercion).
(vii) 2909.04 (disrupting public services).
(viii) 2911.02 (robbery).
(ix) 2911.12 (burglary, trespass in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present).
(x) 2913.47 (insurance fraud).
(xi) 2917.01 (inciting to violence).
(xii) 2917.03 (riot).
(xiii) 2917.31 (inducing panic).
(xiv) 2919.22 (endangering children).
(xv) 2919.25 (domestic violence).
(xvi) 2921.03 (intimidation).
(xvii) 2921.11 (perjury).
(xviii) 2921.13 (falsification, falsification in a theft offense, falsification to purchase a firearm, or falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, falsification regarding a removal proceeding).
(xix) 2921.34 (escape).
(xx) 2921.35 (aiding escape or resistance to lawful authority).
(xxi) 2921.36 (illegal conveyance of weapons, drugs, intoxicating liquor, or a communications device onto the grounds of a specified government facility, illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility).
(xxii) 2925.05 (aggravated funding of drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking, drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking).
(xxiii) 2925.06 (illegal administration of distribution of anabolic steroids).
(xxiv) 2925.24 (tampering with drugs).
(xxv) 2927.12 (ethnic intimidation).
(xxvi) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(3)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a ten-year period of disqualification (which ends ten years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole) if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed under paragraph (A)(3)(a) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed under paragraph (A)(3)(a) or (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(4) Tier IV: five-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a five-year period of disqualification which ends five years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 2903.13 (assault).
(ii) 2903.22 (menacing).
(iii) 2907.09 (public indecency).
(iv) 2907.24 (soliciting, engaging in solicitation after a positive HIV test).
(v) 2907.25 (prostitution, engaging in prostitution after a positive HIV test).
(vi) 2907.33 (deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles).
(vii) 2911.13 (breaking and entering).
(viii) 2913.02 (theft).
(ix) 2913.03 (unauthorized use of a vehicle).
(x) 2913.04 (unauthorized use of property; unauthorized use of computer, cable, or telecommunication property; unauthorized use of the law enforcement automated database system; unauthorized use of the Ohio law enforcement gateway).
(xi) 2913.05 (telecommunications fraud).
(xii) 2913.11 (passing bad checks).
(xiii) 2913.21 (misuse of credit cards).
(xiv) 2913.31 (forgery, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards).
(xv) 2913.32 (criminal simulation).
(xvi) 2913.41 (defrauding a rental agency or hostelry).
(xvii) 2913.42 (tampering with records).
(xviii) 2913.43 (securing writings by deception).
(xix) 2913.44 (personating an officer).
(xx) 2913.441 (unlawful display of the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers).
(xxi) 2913.45 (defrauding creditors).
(xxii) 2913.51 (receiving stolen property).
(xxiii) 2919.12 (unlawful abortion).
(xxiv) 2919.121 (unlawful abortion (upon minor)).
(xxv) 2919.123 (unlawful distribution of an abortion-inducing drug).
(xxvi) 2919.124 (unlawful performance of a drug-induced abortion).
(xxvii) 2919.23 (interference with custody).
(xxviii) 2919.24 (contributing to the unruliness or delinquency of a child).
(xxix) 2921.12 (tampering with evidence).
(xxx) 2921.21 (compounding a crime).
(xxxi) 2921.24 (disclosure of confidential information).
(xxxii) 2921.32 (obstructing justice).
(xxxiii) 2921.321 (assaulting or harassing a police dog or horse, assaulting or harassing an assistance dog).
(xxxiv) 2921.51 (impersonation of peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, or BCII investigator).
(xxxv) 2925.09 (illegal administration, dispensing, distribution, manufacture, possession, selling, or using of any dangerous drug to or for livestock or any animal that is generally used for food or in the production of food, unless the drug is prescribed by a licensed veterinarian).
(xxxvi) 2925.11 (aggravated possession of drugs, possession of drugs, possession of cocaine, possession of LSD, possession of heroin, possession of hashish, possession of a controlled substance analog, possession of marihuana, [marijuana] possession of a fentanyl-related compound), unless a minor drug possession offense.
(xxxvii) 2925.13 (permitting drug abuse).
(xxxviii) 2925.22 (deception to obtain a dangerous drug).
(xxxix) 2925.23 (illegal processing of drug documents).
(xl) 2925.36 (illegal dispensing of drug samples).
(xli) 2925.55 (unlawful purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, underage purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, using false information to purchase a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, improper purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product).
(xlii) 2925.56 (unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product; unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to a minor; improper sale of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product).
(xliii) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(4)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a seven-year period of disqualification beginning on the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses listed under paragraph (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(5) Tier V: no period of disqualification: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to no period of disqualification if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(a) 2925.11 (drug possession), but only if a minor drug possession offense.
(b) 2925.14 (illegal use, possession, dealing, selling to a juvenile, or advertising of drug paraphernalia).
(B) Grandfathered: For the purposes of this rule, an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider is grandfathered if the employee or self-employed provider would otherwise have been disqualified from a paid direct-care position because the employee or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense(s) listed under paragraph (A)(4) of this rule, but only if all of the following have occurred:
(1) The responsible party hired the employee before January 1, 2013.
(2) The employee's conviction or guilty plea occurred before January 1, 2013.
(3) The responsible party considered the nature and seriousness of the offense(s), and attested in writing before April 1, 2013, to the character and fitness of the employee based upon the employee's demonstrated work performance.
(C) Certified: For the purposes of this rule, an applicant, employee, or subcontracted self-employed provider is certified if applicant's, employee's, or subcontracted self-employed provider's conviction of, plea of guilty to, or eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction to, a disqualifying offense is not one of the disqualifying offenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule and if the applicant, employee, or subcontracted self-employed provider was issued either of the following:
(1) Certificate of qualification for employment issued by a court of common pleas with competent jurisdiction pursuant to section 2953.25 of the Revised Code (A person may petition for a certificate of qualification for employment on "The Ohio Certificate of Qualification for Employment Online Petition Website" or https://www.drccqe.com/).
(2) Certificate of achievement and employability in a home and community-based service-related field, issued by the department of rehabilitation and corrections pursuant to section 2961.22 of the Revised Code.
(D) Pardoned: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is pardoned from any disqualifying offense listed or described in rule 173-9-06 of the Administrative Code under any of the following circumstances:
(1) The applicant or employee was granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code.
(2) The applicant or employee was granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States, if the law is substantially equivalent to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code.
(3) The conviction or guilty plea was set aside pursuant to law.
(4) The applicant or employee was granted a conditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code, and the conditions under which the pardon was granted have been satisfied.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-08 Background checks for paid direct-care positions: confidentiality and retention of records.
(A) Confidentiality: Criminal records are not public records. The responsible party may make criminal records available only to the people or entities listed under division (I) of section 173.38 of the Revised Code or division (G) of section 173.381 of the Revised Code.
(B) Records retention:
(1) Personnel files:
(a) What to retain: To verify compliance with this chapter, the responsible party shall retain the following records:
(i) The result of each of the database reviews.
(ii) Any criminal records including reverified records.
(iii) The attestation to the character and fitness of the employee, if the responsible party completed an attestation before April 1, 2013 to comply with paragraph (B)(3) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code, or the attestation to the character and fitness of the self-employed provider, if the self-employed provider completed an attestation before April 1, 2013 to comply with paragraph (B)(3) of rule 173-9-07.1 of the Administrative Code as that rule existed before its rescission.
(iv) A certificate of qualification for employment, if a court issued a certificate of qualification for employment to the employee.
(v) A certificate of achievement and employability, if the department of rehabilitation and corrections issued a certificate of achievement and employability to the employee.
(vi) A pardon, if a governor pardoned the employee.
(vii) The date the responsible party hired the employee. Regarding a self-employed person, the responsible party shall retain the date that it certified the self-employed person or entered into an agreement with the self-employed person.
(b) Sealed files: The responsible party shall retain the records listed under paragraph (B)(1)(a) of this rule by sealing the records within the each applicant's or each employee's personnel files or by retaining the records in separate files from the personnel files. Regarding a self-employed person, the responsible party may simply retain the records.
(c) Retention period: 2 C.F.R. 200.334, 42 C.F.R. 441.352 and 460.200, and rules 173-3-06 and 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code (as applicable) establish timelines and other requirements for the responsible party to retain the records required under paragraph (B)(1)(a) of this rule.
(2) Roster for criminal records requested from the FBI:
(a) A responsible party shall maintain a roster of applicants and employees for whom section 173.38 of the Revised Code requires obtaining criminal records from the FBI through BCII, accessible by AGE's director (or the director's designees), that includes, but is not limited to:
(i) The name of each applicant and employee.
(ii) The date the responsible party hired the employee.
(iii) The date the responsible party requested criminal records from the FBI through BCII.
(iv) The date the responsible party received criminal records from the FBI through BCII.
(v) A determination of whether the criminal records revealed that the applicant or employee committed a disqualifying offense(s).
(b) Regarding the self-employed, if section 173.381 of the Revised Code requires obtaining criminal records from the FBI through BCII, then the responsible party shall retain the following information, accessible by AGE's director (or the director's designees), that includes, but is not limited to:
(i) The date AGE certified the self-employed provider or the date the AAA entered into an AAA-provider agreement with the self-employed provider.
(ii) The date the responsible party requested criminal records from the FBI through BCII.
(iii) The date the responsible party received criminal records from the FBI through BCII.
(iv) A determination of whether the criminal records revealed the self-employed provider committed a disqualifying offense(s).
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-3-06
(A) Federal requirements for every AAA-provider agreement (agreement) for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) The Older Americans Act.
(2) Subparts C and D of 45 C.F.R. Part 1321.
(3) 2 C.F.R. 200.318 to 200.327 and 2 C.F.R. Part 300.
(4) 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 regarding individually identifiable health information and protected health information.
(5) Any additional federal law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement.
(B) State requirements for every agreement for services paid, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds:
(1) Program and funding identification:
(a) The agreement shall identify the names of the federal and state programs that are sources for the Older Americans Act funding being used to pay for the services procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall contain the following statement:
"This agreement is for the provision of services paid with federal funds that the United States Department of Health and Human Services appropriated to the Ohio Department of Aging (AGE). AGE, in turn, allocated the federal funds to the area agency on aging. The agreement is subject to federal and state laws, rules, and executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or any service procured through the agreement."
(2) Additional state laws:
(a) The agreement is subject to any rule in this chapter or Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code regulating agreements in general or the provision of any service being procured through the agreement.
(b) The agreement is subject to any additional state law, rule, or executive order with jurisdiction over agreements in general or the provision of any service procured through the agreement.
(3) Safety:
(a) Disasters: The agreement shall require the provider to cooperate with the AAA and AGE to assess disaster impact on consumers and to coordinate with public and private resources in the field of aging to assist consumers when the president of the United States declares that the provider's service area is a disaster area.
(b) Significant changes: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service as part of care coordination, then the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA of any significant change that may necessitate a reassessment the case-managed consumer's need for the service no later than one day after the provider is aware of a repeated refusal to receive the service; changes in the consumer's physical, mental, or emotional status; documented changes in the consumer's environmental conditions; or, other significant, documented changes to the consumer's health and safety. If "one day after" falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(c) APS: The agreement shall require the provider to immediately report any reasonable cause to believe a consumer is the victim of abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program in accordance with section 5101.63 of the Revised Code.
(d) Discontinuing the provision of services: If the provider provides a service to a consumer who is enrolled in a case management service with the AAA as part of care coordination, the agreement shall require the provider to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer in writing of the anticipated last day the provider will provide the service to the case-managed consumer no later than thirty days before the anticipated last day, unless the reason for discontinuing the service is the hospitalization, institutionalization, or death of the consumer; serious risk to the health or safety of the provider; the consumer's decision to discontinue the service; or a similar reason why the provider is unable to notify the AAA and the case-managed consumer thirty days before the anticipated last day. The provider shall also notify the case-managed consumer on how to reach a long-term care ombudsman. If the thirtieth day falls on a weekend or legal holiday, the deadline is extended to the next business day.
(4) Confidentiality: In addition to the federal requirements in 45 C.F.R. Parts 160, 162, and 164 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.75 the agreement shall require the provider to store each consumer's electronic records in a password-protected file and physical records in a designated, locked storage space.
(5) Provider qualifications: In the agreement, the AAA shall include the following requirements:
(a) When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid direct-care position, the provider is subject to section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code, or if self-employed, section 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a federal, state, or local government regulatory authority prohibits the provider from providing a service required by the agreement, the provider shall notify the AAA of the disciplinary action and the AAA shall, simultaneous to the date of the regulatory authority's disciplinary action, deem the provider to be ineligible to be paid with Older Americans Act funds for providing that service to consumers.
(6) Subcontracting: The agreement shall require the provider to obtain authorization from the AAA before subcontracting any of its duties under the agreement to another provider.
(7) Modification:
(a) The agreement shall describe the grounds (and the process) for modifying the agreement.
(b) The agreement shall state that if an amendment, repeal, or rescission of any law, rule, or regulation cited in the agreement would change the responsibilities of the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider, then the AAA, the provider, or both the AAA and provider shall comply with the amendment, repeal, or rescission of the law, rule, or regulation even if the agreement is not updated before the amendment, repeal, or rescission takes effect.
(c) Every new agreement shall require the provider to sign up for email updates on AGE's rules on https://aging.ohio.gov/wps/portal/gov/aging/see-news-and-events/subscribe/subscribe.
(8) Renewable and multi-year agreements: If the agreement is renewable or covers a multi-year term, the agreement is subject to the requirements for renewable or multi-year agreements under rule 173-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(9) Records: The agreement shall include the following permissions and requirements:
(a) Permission to use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) A requirement to retain any record relating to services provided, including activity plans (if required), assessments (if required), permits (if required), evaluations (if required), and mandatory reporting items to verify a unit of service, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider receives payment for the services.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(c) A requirement to retain all records regarding an employee's background checks and qualifications, including records on initial qualifications, successful completion of orientation and subsequent training (if required), and performance reviews (if required) until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(i) Three years after the date the provider no longer retains the employee.
(ii) The date on which AGE, the AAA, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes monitoring the records and any findings are finally settled.
(iii) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are finally settled.
(d) A requirement to participate in good faith in the monitoring of the provider's provision of services. To participate in good faith includes assisting the AAA and AGE with the scheduling of announced or unannounced monitoring and providing the AAA and AGE with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies and records for each unit of service billed.
(10) Payment:
(a) The agreement shall describe how the AAA pays the provider, including the amount and payment method.
(b) The agreement shall include the following requirements:
(i) The requirements in rule 173-3-07 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The requirement to return any Older Americans Act funds payments for its services, if the provider's provision of the services did not comply with the laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the provision of the service.
(11) Administrative hearings:
(a) The agreement shall state that the provider may appeal an action the AAA takes against the provider according to rule 173-3-09 of the Administrative Code and state the procedures by which the provider may appeal the adverse action.
(b) If the AAA intends to redistribute unearned funds to other providers, the agreement shall state that it may redistribute funds if a provider is not, in a timely manner, earning the funds it was awarded and if the AAA determines the provider is not, in a timely manner earning the funds it was awarded in the agreement.
(C) An AAA may add requirements to an agreement in addition to the requirements in paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule if the additional requirements do not conflict with any federal laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement or state laws, rules, or executive orders with jurisdiction over the agreement.
(D) Any reference in this rule to a consumer includes a caregiver if the caregiver is the service recipient.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:54 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02
Introduction: This rule presents requirements for every type of provider to become, and to remain, certified. For agency and assisted living providers, the requirements in this rule include requirements for each provider's employees.
(A) Requirements for every type of provider to become certified:
(1) Qualifications: The provider shall meet all of the following:
(a) Any qualification (e.g., licensure, training requirements, staffing levels) required by this chapter.
(b) Any qualification (e.g., licensure, certification, registration) required by applicable federal, state, and local laws, including the requirement under 45 C.F.R. Part 162 to have a national provider identifier (NPI), if applicable.
(2) Criminal records checks and database reviews: Sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code establish the requirements for criminal records checks and database reviews. Rule 173-9-02 of the Administrative Code lists exceptions to the applicability of those requirements. Rule 5160-1-17.8 of the Administrative Code establishes additional provider screening requirements for participation in a medicaid-funded program. Section 3721.121 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-13 of the Administrative Code apply to assisted living providers. Section 3740.11 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code apply to providers who need a home health license.
(3) Business site:
(a) The provider shall maintain a business site(s) from which to conduct business, unless the provider is a participant-directed provider.
(b) The provider's business site(s) for providing services are subject to the HCBS setting requirements in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code. Additionally, any such business site used for providing ADS or assisted living services may be subject to federal heightened scrutiny under 42 C.F.R. 441.301(c)(5)(v) and rules 173-39-03 and 173-39-03.1 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Each business site in which the provider retains records (e.g., headquarters, regional offices) shall have a designated, locked storage space for retaining records that is accessible to ODA and its designee, HHS, the state auditor's office, and ODM.
(4) Contact information: The provider shall have a valid email address and telephone number.
(5) Insurance: The provider shall have the following, unless the provider is a participant-directed provider:
(a) A minimum of one million dollars in commercial liability insurance, which includes coverage for individuals' losses due to theft or property damage. In lieu of commercial liability insurance, a non-agency provider may have a minimum of one million dollars in professional liability insurance, which includes coverage for individuals' losses due to theft or property damage.
(b) Written instructions any individual may use to obtain payment for loss due to theft or property damage caused by the provider, or if applicable, the provider's employee.
(6) Provider agreements: The provider shall enter into, comply with, and maintain an active status with the following:
(a) A medicaid provider agreement under rules 5160-1-17.2 and 5160-1-17.4 of the Administrative Code.
(b) A provider agreement, with ODA's designee for the region in which the provider seeks certification to provide services pursuant to rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code
(7) Incident reporting: The provider shall have a written or electronic policy on documenting incidents which complies with paragraph (B)(3)(b) of this rule.
(8) Electronic visit verification (EVV): Rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code (until July 1, 2024) or Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code (on or after July 1, 2024) establishes the requirements for certain providers to have an ODM-approved EVV system in place.
(B) Requirements for every type of provider to remain certified:
(1) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraph (A) of this rule.
(2) Service-related: For any service ODA certified the provider to furnish, the provider shall report all mandatory reporting items to verify the service to ODA or its designee and comply with any rule in this chapter regulating the provision of the service.
(3) Reporting:
(a) APS: Section 5101.63 of the Revised Code, as applicable, establishes a requirement for the provider to report any reasonable cause to believe an individual suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program. The provider shall also notify ODA or its designee within one business day after becoming aware of the reasonable cause.
(b) Significant changes: The provider shall notify ODA or its designee no later than one business day after the provider is aware of any significant change that may affect the individual's service needs or safety, including one or more of the following:
(i) The provider does not provide an authorized service at the time, or for the period of time, authorized by ODA's designee.
(ii) The individual moves to another address.
(iii) The individual's repeated refusal of services.
(iv) Any incident that is subject to the incident-reporting requirements in rule 5160-44-05 of the Administrative Code.
(v) Any other significant change in the individual's physical, mental, or emotional status or the individual's environment that affects the individual's service needs or safety.
(c) Contact information: The provider shall notify ODA or its designee of any change in the provider's telephone number, mailing address, or email address within seven days after the change.
(d) Last day of service: The provider shall notify the individual and ODA's designee in writing at least thirty days before the last day the provider provides services to the individual, unless one or more of the following occurs:
(i) The individual has been hospitalized, placed in a long-term care facility, or is deceased.
(ii) The health or safety of the individual or provider is at serious, imminent risk.
(iii) The individual chooses to no longer receive services from the provider.
(iv) The provider is an assisted living provider, in which case paragraph (D)(4)(d) of this rule applies.
(4) Confidentiality: The provider is subject to all state and federal laws and regulations governing individual confidentiality including sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code, 42 C.F.R. 431.300 to 431.307, and 45 C.F.R. parts 160, 162, and 164.
(5) Direct-care worker relationships: Rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code establishes standards for which relationships are eligible for payment for providing services.
(6) Volunteers: The provider shall supervise the provider's volunteers.
(7) Person-centered planning: The provider is subject to the person-centered planning requirements in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Ethical, professional, respectful, and legal service standards: The provider shall not engage in any unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior including the following:
(a) Consuming alcohol while providing services to the individual.
(b) Consuming medicine, drugs, or other chemical substances in a way that is illegal, unprescribed, or impairs the provider from providing services to the individual.
(c) Accepting, obtaining, or attempting to obtain money, or anything of value, including gifts or tips, from the individual or his or her household or family members.
(d) Engaging the individual in sexual conduct, or in conduct a reasonable person would interpret as sexual in nature, even if the conduct is consensual.
(e) Leaving the individual's home when scheduled to provide a service for a purpose not related to providing the service without notifying the agency supervisor, the individual's emergency contact person, any identified caregiver, or ODA's designee.
(f) Failing to cooperate with or treating ODA or its designee respectfully.
(g) Engaging in any activity while providing a service that may distract the provider from providing the service as authorized, including the following:
(i) Watching television, movies, videos, or playing games on computers, personal phones, or other electronic devices whether owned by the individual, provider, or the provider's staff.
(ii) Non-care-related socialization with a person other than the individual (e.g., a visit from a person who is not providing care to the individual; making or receiving a personal telephone call; or, sending or receiving a personal text message, email, or video).
(iii) Providing care to a person other than the individual.
(iv) Smoking tobacco or any other material in any type of smoking equipment, including cigarettes, electronic cigarettes, vaporizers, hookahs, cigars, or pipes.
(v) Sleeping.
(vi) Bringing a child, friend, relative, or anyone else, or a pet, to the individual's place of residence.
(vii) Discussing religion or politics with the individual and others.
(viii) Discussing personal issues with the individual or any other person.
(h) Engaging in behavior that causes, or may cause, physical, verbal, mental, or emotional distress or abuse to the individual including publishing photos of the individual on social media without the individual's written or electronic consent.
(i) Engaging in behavior a reasonable person would interpret as inappropriate involvement in the individual's personal relationships.
(j) Making decisions, or being designated to make decisions, for the individual in any capacity involving a declaration for mental health treatment, power of attorney, durable power of attorney, guardianship, or authorized representative, unless otherwise permitted under rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code.
(k) Selling to, or purchasing from, the individual products or personal items, unless the provider is the individual's family member who does so only when not providing services.
(l) Consuming the individual's food or drink, or using the individual's personal property without his or her consent.
(m) Taking the individual to the provider's business site, unless the business site is an ADS center, RCF, or (if the provider is a participant-directed provider) the individual's home.
(n) Engaging in behavior constituting a conflict of interest, or taking advantage of, or manipulating services resulting in an unintended advantage for personal gain that has detrimental results to the individual, the individual's family or caregivers, or another provider.
(9) Training: The provider shall participate in ODA's or its designee's mandatory free provider training sessions.
(10) Records and monitoring:
(a) Records retention:
(i) Service records: The provider shall retain all records necessary (including activity plans, assessments (if required), permits (if required), and all mandatory reporting items to verify an episode of service), and in such form, so as to fully disclose the extent of the services the provider provided, and significant business transactions, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(a) Six years after the date the provider receives payment for the service.
(b) The date on which ODA, its designee, ODM, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes a review of the records and any findings are resolved.
(c) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are resolved.
(ii) Qualification records: Each provider shall retain all records regarding the provider's or an employee's qualifications to provide a service for the duration of the provider's certification or the duration of the employee's employment and for six years after the provider is no longer certified or no longer retains the employee. Qualification records include records on background checks, initial qualifications, orientation, and training.
(iii) Electronic records: The provider may use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) Compliance reviews: The provider shall participate in good faith in any compliance reviews under rule 173-39-04 of the Administrative Code and assist ODA and its designee with scheduling those reviews.
(c) Access: The provider shall, upon request, immediately provide representatives of ODA, its designee, HHS, the state auditor's office, and ODM with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies, procedures, and records for each unit of service billed.
(11) Payment:
(a) The provider may bill for a service only if the provider complies with the requirements under all applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including service-verification requirements.
(b) ODA's obligation to pay the provider for the costs of services provided as a certified provider is subject to the hold and review process described in rule 5160-1-27.2 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The provider shall accept the payment rates established in its provider agreement with ODA's designee as payment in full for the services it provides, and not seek any additional payment for services from the individual or any other person.
(d) The provider may provide a service not authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan, but ODA (or its designee) pays a provider only for providing services authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan.
(12) Other laws: The provider is subject to all applicable federal, state, and local laws, rules, and regulations and is responsible for ensuring all subcontractors comply with all applicable federal, state, and local laws, rules, and regulations.
(13) Rules updates: The provider shall subscribe to receive email updates on ODA's rules through https://aging.ohio.gov.
(C) Requirements for specific types of providers to become certified:
(1) Agency providers:
(a) Disclosures: The provider shall disclose the following:
(i) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider.
(ii) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider who was convicted of a felony under a state or federal law.
(iii) A table of organization clearly identifying lines of administrative, advisory, contractual, and supervisory responsibilities.
(iv) The active registration as a business entity with the Ohio secretary of state.
(b) Attestations: The provider shall provide ODA or its designee with written or electronic attestations on the following:
(i) The provider's compliance with 45 C.F.R. 80.4 regarding the provision of services.
(ii) The provider's compliance with the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972, federal wage-and-hour laws, and workers' compensation laws regarding the recruitment and employment of persons.
(iii) The provider's payment of all applicable federal, state, and local income and employment taxes for the most recent year.
(c) Policies: The provider shall have written policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation (or an electronic record of policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation) that include requirements for its employees to provide services in a manner compliant with paragraph (B)(8) of this rule.
(2) Non-agency providers: The provider shall provide a written or electronic attestation to ODA or its designee that the provider paid all applicable federal, state, and local income and employment taxes.
(3) Participant-directed providers: A person may qualify to become a participant-directed provider only if the person meets the requirements in rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Assisted living providers:
(a) Preemption: The provider shall acknowledge that any statute governing, or rule regulating, the assisted living program supersedes any clause in the RCF's resident agreement.
(b) License: The provider shall have an RCF license issued under Chapter 3701-16 of the Administrative Code and comply with section 3721.121 of the Revised Code.
(c) Identifying key persons: The provider shall disclose the following:
(i) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider.
(ii) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider who was convicted of a felony under a state or federal law.
(iii) A table of organization clearly identifying lines of administrative, advisory, contractual, and supervisory responsibilities.
(d) Attestations: The provider shall provide ODA or its designee with written or electronic attestations on the following:
(i) The provider's compliance with 45 C.F.R. 80.4 regarding the provision of services.
(ii) The provider's compliance with the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972, federal wage-and-hour laws, and workers' compensation laws regarding the recruitment and employment of persons.
(e) Policies: The provider shall have written policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation (or an electronic record of policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation) that include the following:
(i) A requirement for the residents' rights policy that the provider adopts under section 3721.12 of the Revised Code to apply the prohibition against unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior under paragraph (B)(8) of this rule to its employees.
(ii) A requirement for the policy that the provider adopts under rule 3701-64-02 of the Administrative Code on reporting abuse, neglect, or exploitation to ODH to apply the requirement under paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule to report abuse, neglect, or exploitation to ODA or its designee to its employees.
(iii) A requirement for the policy that the provider adopts under paragraph (B) of rule 3701-16-12 of the Administrative Code to apply the requirement under paragraph (B)(3)(b) of this rule to report incidents to ODA or its designee to its employees.
(D) Requirements for specific types of providers to remain an ODA-certified provider:
(1) Agency providers: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(1) of this rule.
(2) Non-agency providers: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(2) of this rule.
(3) Participant-directed providers:
(a) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(3) of this rule.
(b) Records retention: In addition to the records-retention requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a) of this rule, the provider shall store the individual's records in the home of the individual in a physical location or an electronic device that is accessible to the provider, individual, and ODA or its designee.
(4) Assisted living providers:
(a) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(4) of this rule.
(b) Payment:
(i) The assisted living program does not pay for any service the provider provides to an individual before ODA's designee enrolls the individual into the program and before ODA's designee authorizes the service in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) If an individual is absent from the RCF, the provider shall not accept a payment for the service under rules 173-39-02.16 and 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code or charge the individual an additional fee for the service or to hold the unit during the individual's absence.
(c) Transfers/discharges: Section 3721.16 of the Revised Code establishes the terms for transferring or discharging an individual.
(d) Last day of service: If the provider terminates its medicaid provider agreement, pursuant to section 3721.19 of the Revised Code, or if the provider plans to stop providing services to an individual, then it shall provide written notification to the individual and to ODA's designee at least ninety days before terminating the medicaid provider agreement or provision of services to the individual.
Last updated April 1, 2025 at 7:45 AM
History
- Effective: April 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-11 Senior Facilities Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-11-03 Senior facilities program.
If the general assembly appropriates funds for the senior facilities program (program) or if the Ohio department of aging (ODA) receives a gift or grant for the program, ODA shall adopt rules to define the program's terms, eligibility requirements, application process, and post-award requirements.
Last updated July 17, 2026 at 5:02 PM
History
- Effective: January 24, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-13 Accessing Confidential Personal Information
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-01 Confidential personal information: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates ODA employee access to the confidential personal information that ODA maintains.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Access" as a noun means an instance of copying, viewing, or otherwise perceiving, whereas "access" as a verb means to copy, view, or otherwise perceive.
"Acquisition of a new computer system" means the purchase of a "computer system," as defined in this rule, that is not a computer system that is currently in place nor one for which the acquisition process was initiated on or before August 30, 2010.
"Computer system" means a "system," as defined in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code, that stores, maintains, or retrieves personal information using electronic data processing equipment.
"Confidential personal information" (CPI) has the meaning as in section 1347.15 of the Revised Code.
"Employee" means any ODA employee regardless of whether the employee holds an appointed or hired position.
"Incidental contact" means contact with the information that is secondary or tangential to the primary purpose of the activity that resulted in the contact.
"Individual" means a natural person or the natural person's authorized representative, legal counsel, legal custodian, or legal guardian.
"Information owner" means the employee that section 1347.05 of the Revised Code requires ODA to make directly responsible for a system.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Person" means a natural person.
"Personal information" has the same meaning as in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
"Personal information system" means a "system" that "maintains" "personal information," as those terms are defined in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code. "System" includes manual and computer systems.
"Research" means a methodical investigation into a subject.
"Routine" means commonplace, regular, habitual, or ordinary.
"System" has the same meaning as in section 1347.01 of the Revised Code.
"Upgrade" means a substantial redesign of an existing computer system for the purpose of providing a substantial amount of new application functionality, or application modifications that would involve substantial administrative or fiscal resources to implement, but would not include maintenance, minor updates and patches, or modifications that entail a limited addition of functionality due to changes in business or legal requirements.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:34 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-02 Confidential personal information: procedures for accessing CPI.
For personal information systems containing CPI, whether manual or computer systems, ODA shall do the following:
(A) Requirements to access CPI: ODA manages its personal information systems on a "need-to-know" basis whereby the information owner determines the level of access needed for an employee to fulfill his or her job duties. The employee's supervisor and the information owner shall approve the employee's access to CPI before providing the employee with access to CPI within a personal information system. ODA may revise an employee's access to CPI if that employee's job duties change including, but not limited to, transfer or termination. If an employee's job duties no longer need access to CPI in a personal information system, ODA shall remove the employee's access to CPI.
(B) Request for a list of CPI: If ODA receives a signed, written request from any person for a list of CPI that ODA maintains about the person, ODA shall do all of the following:
(1) Verify the person's identity by a method that provides safeguards commensurate with the risk associated with the CPI.
(2) Provide the person with a list of CPI that does not relate to an investigation about the person or is otherwise not excluded from the scope of Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code.
(3) If all CPI relates to an investigation about that person, inform the person that ODA has no CPI about the person that is responsive to the person's request.
(C) Notice of invalid access:
(1) On discovery or notification that an employee accessed a person's CPI for an invalid reason, ODA shall notify the person whose information was invalidly accessed as soon as practical and to the extent known at the time. However, ODA shall delay notification for a period of time necessary to ensure that the notification would not delay or impede an investigation or jeopardize homeland or national security. Additionally, ODA may delay the notification consistent with any measures necessary to determine the scope of the invalid access, including which individuals' CPI was invalidly accessed, and to restore the reasonable integrity of the system. As used in this paragraph, "investigation" means the investigation of the circumstances and involvement of an employee surrounding the invalid access of the CPI. Once ODA determines that notification would not delay or impede an investigation, ODA shall disclose the access to CPI made for an invalid reason to the person.
(2) The notification ODA provides shall inform the person of the type of CPI accessed and the date(s) of the invalid access.
(3) ODA may notify the person of the invalid access by any method reasonably designed to accurately inform, including a written, electronic, or telephone notice.
(D) Appointment of a data privacy point of contact: ODA's director shall designate an employee to serve as the data privacy point of contact. The data privacy point of contact shall work with the chief privacy officer within the office of information technology in the department of administrative services to assist ODA with both the implementation of privacy protections for the CPI that ODA maintains and compliance with section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and this chapter.
(E) Completion of a privacy impact assessment: The data privacy point of contact shall timely complete the privacy impact assessment form developed by the office of information technology.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:34 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-03 Confidential personal information: valid reasons for accessing CPI.
An authorized employee may access CPI for any of the following reasons:
(A) A public records request.
(B) A request from a person for the list of CPI that ODA maintains on that person.
(C) A constitutional provision or duty.
(D) A statutory provision or duty.
(E) An administrative rule provision or duty.
(F) A state or federal program requirement.
(G) Review, process, or pay claims or otherwise administrate a program with individual participants or beneficiaries.
(H) Auditing (or monitoring, reviewing, etc.) purposes.
(I) Processes to administrate or verify a license, certificate, permit, eligibility, enrollment, filing, etc.
(J) Law enforcement investigation.
(K) An administrative hearing.
(L) Litigation, court order, or subpoena.
(M) Human resource matters (e.g., hiring, promotion, demotion, discharge, salary/compensation issues, leave requests/issues, time card approvals/issues).
(N) An executive order.
(O) An agency policy or a state administrative policy issued by the department of administrative services, the office of budget and management, or other similar state agency.
(P) A collective-bargaining agreement provision.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:34 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-04 Confidential personal information: statutes and rules.
The following statutes and rules make personal information maintained by ODA confidential:
Sections 111.41 to 111.47 of the Revised Code for not treating the name, address, and other personally-identifiable information of a person as public records if the person is a certified participant in the safe at home address confidentiality program administered by the secretary of state.
Section 149.43 of the Revised Code for the general statute on public records.
Section 173.061 of the Revised Code for records that identify recipients of golden buckeye cards.
Section 173.22 of the Revised Code; 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(12)(C), 3058d(a)(6)(C), 3058g(a)(5)(D), 3058g(d), and 3058i(e)(2); and 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(a)(3), 1324.11(e)(3), 1324.13(e), 1324.15(f), 1324.17(b), and 1324.19(b) for the collection, compilation, analysis, and disclosure of information by the office of the state long-term care ombudsman program.
Sections 173.27, 173.38, and 173.381 of the Revised Code for criminal records.
Division (B) of section 173.393 of the Revised Code for records obtained while monitoring certified providers.
Division (H) of section 1347.15 of the Revised Code for records in personal information systems.
Chapter 3798. of the Revised Code, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et. seq.; and 45 C.F.R. parts 160, 162, and 164 for individually-identifiable health information (HIPAA).
Section 4501.27 of the Revised Code, 18 U.S.C. 2721(c), and rule 4501:1-12-02 of the Administrative Code for personal information obtained from the bureau of motor vehicles.
42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(7); 42 C.F.R. 431.300 to 431.307; and rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code for information on medicaid applicants and recipients.
42 C.F.R. 460.112(f) for individually identifiable health information of participants who are enrolled in PACE.
45 C.F.R. 1321.75 for identifying information on older individuals and family caregivers collected in the conduct of the state's responsibilities under the Older Americans Act.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:35 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4501:1-12-02
(A) As used in this rule:
(1) "Personal information" means information contained in a motor vehicle record that identifies an individual person, including but not limited to, the person's photograph, digital image, digitalized photograph, social security number, driver or driver's license identification number, name, date of birth, telephone number, medical or disability information, or a person's address other than the county and five-digit zip code. "Personal information" does not include information pertaining to a vehicular accident, driving or traffic violation, or driver's status, or a name that is provided by the requester.
(2) "Motor vehicle record" means a record that pertains to a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, an identification card, a certificate of title, a motor vehicle registration, or motor vehicle identification license plates, including an enumeration of the motor vehicle accidents in which the driver has been involved, except accidents certified in division (D) of section 3937.41 of the Revised Code, and the driver's record of convictions for violation of the motor vehicle laws.
(3) "Requester" means a person who requests release of a motor vehicle record.
(4) "Application" means an application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, an identification card, a certificate of title, or a motor vehicle registration regardless of whether it is made to the bureau of motor vehicles (BMV), a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas, and regardless of whether it is made in person with the assistance of a clerk, by mail, or by any other permissible means.
(5) "Applicant" means a person who submits an application.
(6) "Express consent" means an affirmative choice on a "Record Confidentiality Waiver," form "BMV2095," (8/12) which may be obtained via the BMV's website at https://www.bmv.ohio.gov/doc-forms.aspx by an applicant or other person regarding whom the BMV has a motor vehicle record to authorize disclosure by the BMV, a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas of his or her personal information in response to a request under section 4501.27 of the Revised Code. "Express consent" is also known as "opt-in."
(7) "Medical and disability information express consent" means an affirmative choice on form "BMV2095"by an applicant or other person regarding whom the BMV has a motor vehicle record to authorize disclosure by the BMV, a deputy registrar, or a clerk of court of common pleas of his or her medical and disability information in response to a motor vehicle record request under section 4501.27 of the Revised Code. "Medical and disability information express consent" is also known as "medical and disability information opt-in."
(8) "Sensitive personal information" means an individual's photograph, digital image, digitalized photograph, social security number, or medical or disability information.
(9) "Deputy registrar" means a person appointed in accordance with section 4503.03 of the Revised Code.
(10) "BMV record account holder" means a requester who has entered into a memorandum of understanding or contract with the Ohio department of public safety, bureau of motor vehicles, for the release of information.
(11) "Bulk request" means a request for copies of an entire set or subset of the database of motor vehicle records maintained by the BMV.
(B) Except as provided for by this rule, the registrar of motor vehicles, and any employee or contractor of the BMV, will not knowingly disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personal information about an individual that the BMV obtained in connection with a motor vehicle record.
(C) Pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code, the BMV may disclose personal information and/or sensitive personal information if the requester is eligible under division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code and disclosure is not prohibited by section 4501.15, section 4507.53, or another section of the Revised Code, other state law, the "Federal Driver's Privacy Protection Act of 1994", 18 U.S.C. 2721 et seq., as amended, which may be obtained through the "U.S. Government Publishing Office" at http://gpo.gov, or other federal law.
Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, sensitive personal information about an individual may not be disclosed unless the requirements of division (B)(3)(a) of section 4501.27, and division (B) of section 4501.15, and section 4507.53 of the Revised Code are met.
(D) A requester, including a BMV record account holder with the BMV, may request release of a motor vehicle record pertaining to a specified person by either submitting a public records request or by completing an "OBMV Record Request," form "BMV1173," (1/23), which may be obtained via the BMV's website at https://www.bmv.ohio.gov/doc-forms.aspx and submitting any required documentation.
(1) Upon the receipt of a public records request, the BMV will promptly prepare and make available for inspection a motor vehicle record to any person at all reasonable times during regular business hours, or may make copies of the motor vehicle record available at cost within a reasonable period of time.
(a) The BMV will not provide personal information in response to a public records request for a motor vehicle record. The BMV will provide a redacted copy of the motor vehicle record.
(b) A requester will be charged the appropriate fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4503.26, section 4505.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.
(c) The BMV may not limit or condition the availability of a motor vehicle record by requiring the disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the requested public record. The BMV may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing the ability of the BMV to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought by the requester.
(2) Upon receipt of a request for a specific motor vehicle record submitted on form BMV1173, and accompanied by the fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4501.34, section 4503.26, section 4505.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code, the BMV will provide personal information to requesters authorized by law to receive such information.
(a) The BMV will provide un-redacted paper copies of records in a format designed to make duplication or retransmission of any personal information contained on the motor vehicle record difficult. The copies provided to the requester shall indicate the name of the requester.
(b) The BMV will provide electronic copies of records to requesters who have provided satisfactory assurances of security and confidentiality to the registrar.
(E) A requester who requests his or her own personal information contained in his or her own motor vehicle record at a deputy registrar shall prove his or her identity through presentation of a driver's license, identification card, or social security number. A request submitted by mail shall be fulfilled by mailing the motor vehicle record only to the address provided on the completed form "BMV1173." A requester who requests his or her own personal information is not eligible to receive copies of the individual's photographic images contained in the BMV databases pursuant to section 4507.53 of the Revised Code.
(F) Upon receipt of a bulk records request, the BMV will provide personal information to a BMV record account holder who is authorized by law to receive personal information, and who has completed form "BMV1173," and who has submitted any additional documentation the BMV may require.
(1) The BMV record account holder will be charged the appropriate fees statutorily authorized in section 149.43, section 4501.34, section 4503.14, section 4506.08, or section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.
(2) The BMV will provide electronic copies of uncertified records only to data account holders who have provided satisfactory assurances of security and confidentiality to the registrar, as well as satisfactory proof of authorization to receive personal information.
(3) Requests for certified records submitted by BMV record account holders shall be submitted and received in a manner as listed on the "BMV Record Account Holder - Request and Receive Records," form "BMV3349," (7/20), and be provided by the BMV upon creation of the BMV record account holder's account.
(G) Form "BMV1173" shall include the following information:
(1) The identity of the requester:
(a) If the requester is a sole proprietorship or individual, the requester shall provide a driver's license number or identification card number and submit any additional required documents listed on the "Business Identification Information," form "BMV3342," (6/19), which is provided by the BMV upon a request to establish a BMV record account. If the requester does not possess a driver's license or identification card, the requester shall provide proof of identity and social security number in accordance with the acceptable documents set forth in rule 4501:1-1-21 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If the requester is a corporation, the requester shall provide a tax identification number, a certified copy of the "Certificate of Good Standing" from the office of the secretary of state or equivalent state agency in which it is incorporated, and the name of its statutory agent.
(2) If the requester claims to be eligible for the disclosure of personal information, the requester shall provide a statement indicating which of the statutory exceptions to nondisclosure of personal information applies. A requester may indicate eligibility on form "BMV1173" under only one exception. If a requester is eligible under one or more exceptions, he or she must fill out and submit an individual "BMV1173" form for each exception. Personal information will be disclosed only for the following purposes:
(a) For the use of a government agency, including, but not limited to, a court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or for the use of a private person or entity acting on behalf of an agency of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state in carrying out its functions;
(b) For use in connection with matters regarding motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; motor vehicle market research activities, including, but not limited to, survey research; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers;
(c) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or an agent, employee, or contractor of a legitimate business, but only for one of the following purposes:
(i) To verify the accuracy of personal information submitted to the business, agent, employee, or contractor by an individual;
(ii) If personal information submitted to the business, agent, employee, or contractor by an individual is incorrect or no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purpose of preventing fraud, by pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering a debt, or security interest against, the individual;
(d) For use in connection with a civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in a court or agency of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state or before a self-regulatory body, including, but not limited to, use in connection with the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, or the execution or enforcement of a judgment or order;
(e) Pursuant to an order of a court of this state, another state, the United States, or a political subdivision of this state or another state;
(f) For use in research activities or in producing statistical reports, provided the personal information is not published, re-disclosed, or used to contact an individual;
(g) For use by an insurer, insurance support organization, or self-insured entity, or by an agent, employee, or contractor of that type of entity, in connection with any claims investigation activity, anti-fraud activity, rating, or underwriting;
(h) For use in providing notice to the owner of a towed, impounded, immobilized, or forfeited vehicle;
(i) For use by any licensed private investigative agency or licensed security service for any purpose permitted under division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code;
(j) For use by an employer or by the agent or insurer of an employer to obtain or verify information relating to the holder of a commercial driver's license or permit that is required under the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, 49 U.S.C. 2701, et seq., as amended, which may be obtained through the "U.S. Government Publishing Office" at http://www.gpo.gov;
(k) For use in connection with the operation of a private toll transportation facility;
(l) For any use not otherwise identified in division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code that is in response to a request for individual motor vehicle records, if the individual whose personal information is requested completes and submits to the registrar or deputy registrar form "BMV2095" giving express consent to such disclosures;
(m) For bulk distribution for surveys, marketing, or solicitations, if the individual whose personal information is requested completes and submits to the registrar or a deputy registrar form "BMV2095" giving express consent to such disclosures;
(n) For use by a person, state, or state agency that requests the information, if the person, state, or state agency demonstrates that it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains;
(o) For any other use specifically authorized by law that is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or to public safety.
(3) Form "BMV1173" shall advise the requester that the requester must comply with the provisions of division (B) or (C) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code when using, selling, or re-disclosing any personal information pertaining to an individual's motor vehicle record obtained from the BMV.
(H) Except as provided in section 4501.272 of the Revised Code, the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk at the title office of a clerk of court of common pleas shall not ask the applicant whether he or she wishes to give express consent or medical and disability express consent, but shall provide form "BMV2095" when requested by the applicant. The individual shall give his or her express consent by affirmatively marking the appropriate choice and filling out the entire form, and submitting the completed form to the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk.
A person who completes a form "BMV2095" shall mail it, with the proper postage attached, to the address indicated on the form or shall submit it in person at an office of the BMV or of a deputy registrar or of a title office of a clerk of court of common pleas. Each deputy registrar and clerk of court of common pleas shall forward all completed form "BMV2095" to the BMV in the manner prescribed by the registrar. A mail express consent and a medical and disability express consent shall take effect only form "BMV2095" is received by the BMV at its main office and is thereafter processed.
The registrar shall prescribe form "BMV2095" which shall be completed by an individual, the individual's guardian, or an attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the individual who wishes to give express consent to the release of his or her own personal information. A supply of form "BMV2095" shall be available at each office of the BMV, at each deputy registrar office, and at each title office of a clerk of court of common pleas. The form shall contain a statement that the individual's social security number and digital photo will not be disclosed even if express consent is given to release sensitive personal information. The language regarding giving express consent shall be in writing and shall appear on form "BMV2095" as indicated below:
(1) The express consent language shall read substantially as follows: "The Ohio Bureau of Motor Vehicles does not release personal information to other individuals or to businesses for bulk distribution for surveys, marketing, and solicitations. However, if you wish to authorize the release of your name and address and other personal information to other persons or businesses or to a specific person or business for these purposes, you may do so. Do you wish to authorize the release of this information?"
(2) The medical and disability express consent language shall read substantially as follows: "The Ohio Bureau of Motor Vehicles does not release personal information to other individuals, businesses, and others who request it. However, if you wish to authorize the release of your medical and disability information to others who request it or to a specific person or business, you may do so. Do you wish to authorize the release of your medical and disability information to individuals, businesses, and others who request it?"
(I) A person wishing to rescind a mail express consent, individual express consent, or medical and disability express consent may do so at any time by requesting form "BMV2095," and withdrawing his or her express consent by affirmatively marking the appropriate choice and filling out the entire form, and submitting the complete form to the registrar, deputy registrar, or clerk. Each deputy registrar and clerk of court of common pleas shall forward all completed form "BMV2095" to the BMV in the manner prescribed by the registrar. A rescinded mail express consent, individual express consent, or medical and disability express consent takes effect only after form "BMV2095" is received by the BMV at its main office and is thereafter processed.
(J) An express consent or medical and disability information express consent applies to all motor vehicle records containing the person's social security number if the person includes his or her social security number on form "BMV2095. " If a particular motor vehicle record of the person does not contain his or her social security number, the express consent or medical and disability express consent applies to the record if the person includes sufficient identifying information with reference to the record on the record confidentiality waiver form.
(K) The BMV will not give notice of nonconforming record requests as permitted by division (D) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code, and regulate access to personal information as is required by section 1347.15 of the Revised Code and as defined in Chapter 4501-55 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 1, 2024 at 5:12 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-32
(A) "Safeguarded information" includes but is not limited to the following types of information about individual medicaid applicants, enrollees, or former recipients:
(1) Names and addresses;
(2) Social security numbers;
(3) Medical services provided;
(4) Social and economic conditions or circumstances;
(5) Agency evaluation of personal information;
(6) Medical data, including diagnosis and past history of disease or disability;
(7) Any information received in connection with the identification of third party coverage; and
(8) Any information received for verifying income eligibility and amount of medical assistance payments. Income information received from the social security administration (SSA) or the internal revenue service (IRS) should be safeguarded according to the regulations of the agency that furnished the data.
(B) For the purpose of this rule, "administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or an agent of ODM to determine eligibility or maintain records for a medical assistance program. The administrative agency has the following responsibilities:
(1) Implementing administrative, physical and technical safeguards in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.308, 45 C.F.R. 164.310, and 45 C.F.R. 164.312 (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(2) Following the safeguarding guidelines for protecting federal tax information (FTI) described in the most current version of IRS publication 1075 (rev. 11/2021).
(3) Safeguarding information received or maintained about an individual connected with the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with section 1902(a)(7) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(4) Publicizing provisions governing the confidential nature of information about individuals, including the legal sanctions imposed for improper disclosure and use, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 431.304 (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Providing copies of the publicized provisions to individuals and to other persons and agencies to whom information is disclosed, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 431.304 (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(6) Protecting the types of safeguarded information referenced in 42 C.F.R. 431.305 (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(7) Maintaining confidentiality and safeguarding psychiatric hospitalization records, mental health or addiction treatment records, rehabilitation and correction records, or other sensitive records in accordance with section 5122.31 of the Revised Code.
(8) Refraining from publishing names of individuals in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 431.306(c) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(C) Release of information. The administrative agency has the following responsibilities:
(1) Obtaining permission from an individual or authorized representative before releasing information, unless that information is used to verify income or eligibility, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 431.306(d) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(2) Applying policies to all requests for information from outside sources, including governmental bodies, courts of law, or law enforcement officials, except as provided in sections 5160.45 to 5160.48 of the Revised Code.
(3) Establishing criteria specifying the conditions for release and use of information about individuals. The information has to be restricted to persons or agency representatives who are subject to standards of confidentiality that are comparable to those of the agency in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 431.306(a) and (b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(4) Limiting disclosures of protected health information (PHI) for individuals applying for, or participating in, a medical assistance program to purposes related to payment, treatment, or health care operations. For any other purposes, disclosures of information about the health care of an individual, health care provided to an individual, or payment for the provision of health care for an individual has to include an authorization or waiver of authorization from an institutional review board or privacy board compliant with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and 45 C.F.R. 164.512(i) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Releasing information as permitted by and in accordance with section 5160.45 of the Revised Code.
Last updated June 25, 2025 at 6:45 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-13-05 Confidential personal information: restricting and logging access to CPI in computerized personal information systems.
For personal information systems that are computer systems and contain CPI, ODA shall do the following:
(A) Access restrictions: Require a password or other authentication measure to access CPI that ODA keeps electronically.
(B) Acquisition of a new computer system: When ODA acquires a new computer system that stores, manages, or contains CPI, ODA shall include a mechanism for recording specific access by employees to CPI in the system.
(C) Upgrading existing computer systems: When ODA modifies an existing computer system that stores, manages, or contains CPI, ODA shall make a determination whether the modification constitutes an upgrade. Any upgrades to a computer system shall include a mechanism for recording specific access by employees to CPI in the system.
(D) Logging requirements regarding CPI in existing computer systems:
(1) ODA shall require employees who access CPI within computer systems to maintain a log that records that access.
(2) Employees do not need to record access to CPI under any one or more of the following circumstances:
(a) The employee is accessing CPI for official ODA purposes, including research, and the access is not specifically directed toward a specifically-named person or a group of specifically-named persons.
(b) The employee is accessing CPI for routine office procedures and the access is not specifically directed toward a specifically-named person or a group of specifically-named persons.
(c) The employee comes into incidental contact with CPI and the access of the information is not specifically directed toward a specifically-named person or a group of specifically-named persons.
(d) The employee accesses CPI about a person based on a request made under either of the following circumstances:
(i) The person requests CPI about himself or herself.
(ii) The person makes a request that ODA take some action on that person's behalf and accessing the CPI is required to consider or process that request.
(3) For purposes of paragraph (D) of this rule, ODA may choose the form or forms of logging, whether in electronic or paper formats.
Last updated August 4, 2025 at 7:35 AM
History
- Effective: August 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-14 State Long Term Care Ombudsman
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-01 Definitions.
As used in this chapter:
"Action plan" means a plan that that an ombudsman develops in conjunction with the client as part of the complaint-handling process. The plan includes strategies and actions for the ombudsman to take and target dates for the ombudsman to meet.
"Advocacy" means planning, preparing, and conducting community education programs, training events, and legislative and other public relations contacts; influencing the formation, implementation, and outcome of public policy affecting clients; representing clients, both individually and collectively, to effect a positive change.
"Advocacy visit" means an ombudsman visit to a site where clients receive long-term care services and supports and provides outreach to clients and sponsors; makes observations of the location, client, sponsors, or staff; performs intake of complaints; and makes requests of provider staff on behalf of, and with the consent of, a client.
"Affiliated" means being or having a parent, child, sibling, spouse, or household member who is a board member of, a consultant to, or has another relationship by which they may profit from a provider.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) has the same meaning as in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Client" means a resident of a long-term care facility or the recipient of community-based long-term care services. When appropriate, the term includes a prospective, previous, or deceased resident or recipient.
"Community-based long-term care services" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.
"Complaint" means an expression of dissatisfaction or concern brought to, or identified by, the ombudsman program, which requires an ombudsman program investigation and resolution on behalf of one or more long-term care clients.
"Complaint case records" means confidential records that the office of the SLTCO keeps for complaints that the program handled.
"Complaint handling" means all the processes available to handle a complaint, including intake, screening, opening a case, assigning, investigating, attempting resolution, referring, performing follow-up activities, closing a case, and documenting and records retention.
"Complex complaint" means a complaint involving a greater depth of investigation, including research and multiple contacts with provider staff or clients, and the development of an action plan as a part of opening a case.
"Core ombudsman services" means complaint handling; monitoring the implementation of relevant laws, rules, and policies; establishing a presence in long-term care facilities with clients and long-term care providers; educating residents, their family and facility staff about residents' rights, good care practices, and similar long-term services and supports resources; ensuring residents have regular and timely access to ombudsman services; providing technical support for the development of resident and family councils; advocating for changes to improve residents' quality of life and care; providing information to the public regarding long-term care facilities and services, residents' rights, and legislative and policy issues; representing resident interests before governmental agencies; and seeking legal, administrative, and other remedies to protect residents.
"Direct supervision" means in-person instruction and observation followed by discussion of an ombudsman's activity within five business days after the ombudsman performed the activity.
"Follow-up activities" means the site visits, phone calls, letters, or interviews that an ombudsman completes after investigating and attempting to resolve a complaint.
"General information" means researching and providing information on matters such as entitlement and public benefits programs, access to long-term care services, providing information to prospective clients on the selection of long-term care services using verified and objective information, and referrals to other sources of assistance in those situations where a case is not being opened for complaint handling.
"Hour" means a period of sixty minutes.
"Immediate family" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 1324.1.
"Legal representative" means a court-appointed guardian, conservator, attorney-in-fact, or executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased client who can give consent or authorization in the matter.
"Long-term care facility" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.
"Long-term care services" means services of a long-term care facility or community-based long-term care provider.
"ODIS" means "ombudsman documentation and information system for Ohio." or the system that replaces ODIS.
"Office" means the SLTCO, the SLTCO's staff and volunteers, and the staff and volunteers of designated regional long-term care ombudsman programs.
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Ombudsman" and "ombudsman staff" mean one of the types of an ombudsman listed in rule 173-14-03 of the Administrative Code.
"Ombudsman candidate" means a person who is in the certification training process but has not yet passed the certification exam.
"Ombudsman services" means core ombudsman services and optional ombudsman services.
"Optional ombudsman services" means any SLTCO-approved ombudsman service that is not a core ombudsman service.
"Personal care services" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Provider" means a long-term care facility or community-based long-term care provider and any corporation, partnership, or person operating the long-term care facility or community-based long-term care provider.
"Recipient" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.
"Regional program," "regional long-term care ombudsman program," and "program" mean an entity, either public or private and nonprofit, that the SLTCO designates as a regional long-term care ombudsman program.
"Resident" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code
"Resolved" or "partially resolved" means the status of a complaint after the state office or regional program addresses it to the satisfaction of the client or complainant or addresses it as feasible.
"SLTCO" means the state long-term care ombudsman and, depending on the immediate context, includes state-office staff and volunteers with SLTCO-delegated responsibilities.
"Sponsor" means a person who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of the client. "Sponsor" also includes the meaning of "resident representative" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 1324.1.
"Sponsoring agency" means the agency or organization that houses the state office or regional program.
"State office" means the SLTCO and those staff members and volunteers of the SLTCO's office at AGE.
"Verified" means the status of a complaint after the work (i.e., interviews, record review, observations, etc.) of the state office or regional program determines that the circumstances described in the complaints are mostly or generally accurate.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-01
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs planning and service area designations and changes to designations; an intrastate funding formula; AGE's area agency on aging designations and changes to designations; area plans; monitoring and corrective actions; and withdrawal of an AAA designation.
(B) Definitions for this chapter and Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code:
"AAA-provider agreement" (agreement) means a contract or grant agreement between an AAA and a provider for the provision of services to consumers.
"Activities of daily living" (ADLs) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a provider hiring persons to provide services to consumers.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) means an entity that AGE designates as an area agency on aging under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.19.
"Assessment" means a gathering of information about a person's strengths, problems, financial resources, and care needs in the following major functional areas: physical health, use of medical care, ADLs, IADLs, mental and social functioning, physical environment, and use of services and supports.
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Caregiver" and "family caregiver" have the same meaning as "family caregiver" in 42 U.S.C. 3022.
"Case management" has the same meaning as "case management service" in 42 U.S.C. 3002.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (which may include written testing) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the consumer to be served.
"Congregate dining project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
"Congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
"Consumer" means, for the purposes of services paid for, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, any person sixty years of age or older, unless a different age is required by a state or federal law.
"Contract" has the same meaning as "AAA-provider agreement," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Coordination" means the development and implementation of an integrated service delivery system to ensure appropriate care, service levels, and continuity for consumers. This includes integration with other federal, state, and local programs and services to promote synchronization of planning, policy development, priority setting, and evaluation of activities related to the objectives of the Older Americans Act without, to the extent possible, duplicating services and/or compromising the consumer's goals and objectives.
"Day" means a twenty-four-hour period beginning and ending at midnight.
"Dietary Guidelines for Americans" means the version of the dietary guidelines in effect on a day of service as published by the United States departments of agriculture and health and human services on https://www.dietaryguidelines.gov/.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code or an unencumbered license from another state with compact privilege under section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Greatest economic need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Greatest social need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Groceries" mean foods for a household to eat, such as breads and cereals; fruits and vegetables; meats, fish, and poultry; and dairy products.
"Grocery store" has the same meaning as "retail food establishment" in rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"Home-delivered meals project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
"Incident" means an event that is inconsistent with the routine care or routine provision of services to a consumer. An incident may involve a consumer, caregiver (to the extent it impacts a consumer), provider, provider's staff or facility, another facility, an AAA's staff, AGE's staff, or other administrative authorities. Examples of an incident are abuse, neglect, abandonment, an accident, or an unusual situation resulting in an injury to a person or damage to the person's property or equipment.
"Instrumental activities of daily living" (IADLs) means preparing meals, shopping for personal items, medication management, managing money, using the telephone, doing heavy housework, doing light housework, and the ability to get and use available transportation without assistance.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code. "Licensed healthcare professional" also includes an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Licensed practical nurse" also includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Limited basis" in context of a Title III-E supplemental service means the extent to which a service compliments a family caregiver's care. "Limited basis" means that the services are not universally available or provided continuously. Services are typically provided to address a specific, temporary need or gap in the caregiving situation.
"Nutrition project" means a congregate dining project, home-delivered meals project, or a congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(b), a nutrition project also considers the availability of resources and the community's need for nutrition services described in state and area plans.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Older Americans Act funds" means the federal funds awarded to AGE through Title III of the Older Americans Act (42 U.S.C. Chapter 35, Subchapter III) and any state or local funds used to match those federal funds, regardless of whether the local funds are public or private funds. For the purposes of this chapter and Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code, "Older Americans Act funds" does not mean funds for an ombudsman program.
"Older Americans Act nutrition program" means the program created under 42 U.S.C. 3030d-21 to 3030g-23 (2020).
"Older relative caregiver" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3030s.
"Participant-directed provider " means a provider (e.g., relative, friend, neighbor, or other person) a consumer hired and directs to provide services to the consumer.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Planning and service area" (PSA) means a multi-county region that AGE designates as a planning and service area under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.13.
"Provider" means a person or entity entering into an AAA-provider agreement with an AAA to provide services to consumers. The three categories of providers are agency providers, self-employed providers, and participant-directed providers.
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" also includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Restaurant" has the same meaning as "food service operation" in rule 3717-1-0 1 of the Administrative Code.
"RFP" means "request for proposal."
"Rural area" means any area not designated as urban by the United States census bureau.
"Self-employed provider" means a provider who provides services to consumers and who does not hire, or contract with, other persons to provide those services.
"Shelf-stable meal" means a meal that is non-perishable, ready-to-eat, stored at room temperature, and eaten without heating.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor that identifies only that consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. A consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver or instructor offers their unique identifier as an attestation that a provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service or as an authorization for a plan or agreement.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-03
(A) An ombudsman candidate may perform the duties of an ombudsman associate or ombudsman specialist while under the supervision of a certified ombudsman specialist or program director.
(B) Ombudsman associate:
(1) An ombudsman associate may do any of the following:
(a) Conduct advocacy visits.
(b) Provide information to the public about the ombudsman program and client rights.
(c) Make requests of provider staff on behalf of, and with the consent of, a client.
(d) Assist with handling complaints while under the supervision of a certified ombudsman specialist, a certified ombudsman program director, or candidates for certified ombudsman specialist or certified ombudsman program director.
(2) The regional program shall ensure that associates' activities are recorded in ODIS. Associates may enter their own and other associates' reports into ODIS if approved to do so by the regional program director and granted access to ODIS by the state ombudsman.
(C) An ombudsman specialist may do any of the following:
(1) Perform the duties of an ombudsman associate.
(2) Handle complaints.
(3) Provide complaint supervision after successfully completing the first forty hours of professional development and after achieving a minimum score of seventy per cent on the ombudsman deployment exam.
(4) Review complaints to set complaint-handling priorities.
(5) Assign complaints.
(6) Manage volunteer resources, which may include recruiting, screening, training, supervision, evaluation, and recognition of volunteers.
(7) Record all reportable ombudsman activity in ODIS, including those activities performed by another ombudsman on their behalf.
(D) A certified ombudsman program director serving as a program manager shall perform the following duties and a certified ombudsman program director who is not serving as a program manager may perform the following duties as assigned:
(1) Perform the duties of an ombudsman specialist.
(2) Assume responsibility for the overall administration and management of the program's core and optional ombudsman services.
(3) Assume responsibility for overall supervision of staff.
(4) Participate in hiring staff.
(5) Establish and review policies and procedures required in rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code.
(6) Perform quality assurance of core and optional services.
(7) Develop, obtain SLTCO approval of, and implement the ombudsman plan and program budget according to rule 173-14-24 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Identify where additional resources are needed and develop strategies for raising funds to meet those needs.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-02 Types of ombudsman staff and non-representative individuals; identification cards.
(A) Ombudsman:
(1) There are four types of an ombudsman:
(a) Ombudsman candidate.
(b) Ombudsman associate.
(c) Ombudsman specialist.
(d) Ombudsman program director.
(2) Paid staff of the office are certified as either ombudsman specialists or ombudsman program directors. A regional program may pay staff who perform only the duties of an associate with the approval of the SLTCO based on a position description and program effectiveness. Only paid staff members are eligible to serve as ombudsman program directors. Only a certified program director is eligible to serve as the SLTCO.
(3) The SLTCO shall issue certificates in the form of an identification card to each certified ombudsman of the office which contain all of the following:
(a) The name of the ombudsman.
(b) The ombudsman's picture.
(c) The type of the ombudsman and whether the ombudsman is certified;
(d) The regional ombudsman program and program contact information with which the ombudsman is associated.
(e) The expiration date.
(4) An ombudsman candidate may perform limited duties of an ombudsman outlined in paragraph (A) of this rule.
(B) Non-representative individuals: Non-representative individuals who are affiliated with the office but have not been certified to perform the duties of an ombudsman outlined in rule 173-14-03 of the Administrative Code and may include support staff, organizational volunteers, and non-practice managers. Non-representative individuals are not qualified to perform any complaint-handling function or access ODIS, but may perform other duties in conjunction with the program for which they are trained or hold an appropriate license.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:55 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-22
(A) No sponsoring agency may serve as a regional long-term care ombudsman program unless designated by the SLTCO.
(B) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (A) of this rule, no sponsoring agency may qualify as a fully-designated regional program unless it complies with all the following structural standards:
(1) Be a tax-exempt organization.
(2) Have a governing board with responsibility to ensure compliance with all program and contract requirements; all relevant federal and state statutes, regulations, and policies; and ensure program integrity and stability.
(3) Comply with the prohibitions against unremedied organizational conflicts of interest under 45 C.F.R. 1324.21.
(4) Ensure sufficient physical and digital security to maintain confidentiality of records and privacy of clients.
(5) Have no employee or ombudsman, no individual involved in designating, hiring, evaluating, or terminating a regional program director, and no governing board member with an unremedied conflict of interest.
(6) Retain the type of qualified staff required under rule 173-14-14 of the Administrative Code.
(7) Maintain an incoming toll-free telephone line dedicated to the regional ombudsman program that is answered during normal business hours by an ombudsman.
(8) Have the capacity to develop policies and procedures that conform to all federal and state statutes, regulations, and policies, including on the following topics, and provide these policies and procedures to the SLTCO within six months after designation for the SLTCO's review for approval and on request, and make these policies and procedures available to an ombudsman in the regional program:
(a) Complaint prioritization.
(b) Case assignment.
(c) Recruiting, screening, training, and supervising ombudsman staff.
(d) Quality assurance.
(e) Personnel policies for every ombudsman.
(f) Emergency preparedness procedures including continuity of operations using an all-hazards approach and coordination with emergency management agencies.
(9) Maintain nonprofit directors and officers liability insurance.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-24
(A) Each regional program in conjunction with the SLTCO shall develop an ombudsman plan with a budget that describes activities to cover at least one year and program development. Plans may include the future development of funding sources or the future direction of the program. The SLTCO may waive the requirement, or extend the deadline, to develop an ombudsman plan or parts of an ombudsman plan as the SLTCO deems appropriate.
(B) The SLTCO may approve ombudsman plans only if those plans meet the following qualifications:
(1) Goals are useful, achievable, and in keeping with the core services and intent of the SLTCO office's goals.
(2) Objectives are rational to the goals.
(3) Action steps lead to achieving the stated objectives.
(4) Timelines are reasonable.
(5) Outcome standards are rational to the service, measurable, and quantified as much as possible.
(6) Potential impact is clearly described.
(7) Budget supports the plan.
(C) The ombudsman plans for regional programs deemed to need additional oversight by the SLTCO shall address the items listed under paragraph (D) of rule 173-14-23 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Regions shall update the progress towards the goals of the plan periodically, at the request of SLTCO.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-04 Training and certification: hours.
(A) A candidate may qualify for certification as an ombudsman associate if the candidate successfully completes at least thirty-six hours of ombudsman associate certification training that includes lecture-format education, homework, and field experience and passes the certification exam before performing any ombudsman associate duties without direct supervision by an ombudsman specialist or ombudsman program director.
(B) A candidate may qualify for certification as an ombudsman specialist if the candidate successfully completes thirty-six hours of ombudsman specialist certification training and passes an ombudsman specialist deployment exam administered by the SLTCO before handling complaints without direct supervision by a certified ombudsman specialist or a certified ombudsman program director. After the initial thirty-six hours of ombudsman specialist certification training, the candidate shall complete all the following:
(1) Sixty additional hours of ombudsman specialist certification training within the first fifteen months of employment.
(2) Candidates for ombudsman specialist certification shall be assigned a caseload of no fewer than five cases throughout their enrollment in training.
(3) Experiential learning assignments may include the provider orientation described in rule 173-14-08 of the Administrative Code or a similar provider field assignment.
(4) Any other training considered appropriate by the SLTCO.
(C) The training for an ombudsman program director candidate is the same as in paragraph (B) of this rule with the addition of six hours of education on program management and administration to be completed as soon as feasible. An ombudsman program director candidate shall work under the supervision of the SLTCO until the candidate has completed the initial thirty-six hours of training and the six hours on program management and administration. Within sixty days after completing the required training, the candidate shall take the ombudsman program director exam. All candidates who pass the exam are certified as ombudsman program directors.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-08
(A) An ombudsman candidate may observe and receive instruction in the provider's operation and procedures at an SLTCO-approved experiential learning site in a manner that is consistent with the respect and privacy requirements established in division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code.
(B) No long-term care provider may serve as an experiential learning site unless approved by the SLTCO.
(C) The regional ombudsman program director, on behalf of the staff of the regional program and the staff of the state office, shall request approval of an experiential learning site from the SLTCO. No site qualifies as an approved experiential learning site unless the site meets the following qualifications:
(1) The site is licensed and certified according to all applicable state laws.
(2) The site is in substantial compliance with any applicable state or federal laws.
(3) The site agrees to serve as an experiential learning site.
(4) The site agrees to provide an experiential learning activity that is satisfactory to the SLTCO.
(D) The regional ombudsman program director may employ other field assignments as experiential learning activity with the approval of the SLTCO.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-05 Professional development: administration.
(A) The SLTCO shall provide or govern certification training content for ombudsman program directors, ombudsman specialists, and ombudsman associates.
(B) At its own expense, each regional program shall provide its ombudsman candidates with the SLTCO certification training.
(C) All training conducted under this rule is based on a curriculum developed or administered by the SLTCO.
(D) The SLTCO may give credit for any part of training to a candidate who successfully completed a training requirement or has experience or knowledge in a content area if all the following conditions exist:
(1) The request comes from the applicant's ombudsman program director if the applicant is a representative from a regional program or from the applicant if the applicant is a representative of the state office.
(2) The request includes evidence of the successful completion of training or the experience.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-06 Professional development: deadlines.
(A) Candidates shall complete their training, including the certification exam, before the following deadlines:
(1) Ombudsman associates: three months after the first day of training No later than sixty days after meeting all the ombudsman associate training requirements, the candidate shall take the ombudsman associate exam.
(2) Ombudsman specialists and ombudsman program directors: as soon as practicable, but no later than fifteen months after the date of employment. No later than sixty days after meeting all training requirements, the candidate shall take the ombudsman specialist exam.
(B) The SLTCO may grant a deadline extension to a candidate if all the following occur:
(1) The candidate applies to the regional program director for the extension or applies to the SLTCO for the extension if the candidate is a program director or staff or volunteer of the state office.
(2) The candidate applies at least thirty days before their training deadline or as soon as practicable if extenuating circumstances occur, such as an illness in the immediate family, unexpected changes in the candidate's living circumstances, employment conflicting with the training program, and time constraints.
(3) The candidate's application states the applicant's reasons for requesting an extension.
(4) The candidate shows probable success for becoming certified.
(C) A candidate's failure to complete training, to take an exam in a timely manner, or to present an acceptable request for an extension is cause for removal as a candidate. For paid candidates, the SLTCO shall provide a notice and hearing process in accordance with rule 173-14-27 of the Administrative Code before removing a candidate for failure to successfully complete training or to take an exam in a timely manner.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-27
(A) In all cases where the SLTCO seeks to decertify a certified ombudsman or to remove an ombudsman candidate for certification, the SLTCO shall notify the party against whom action is to be taken, as well as the regional program with which the party is affiliated and the regional program's sponsoring agency, if applicable.
On receipt of the notice, the sponsoring agency shall ensure the ombudsman is relieved of all complaint-handling duties requiring contact with clients or providers until all appeals have been exhausted and a final determination has been made.
The SLTCO shall comply with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code when providing notice to the certified ombudsman or ombudsman candidate, and request that the ombudsman provide the SLTCO with any written explanation or extenuating circumstances connected to the SLTCO's decision.
(B) AGE's director shall designate an independent hearing officer to preside over the hearing. A decision in favor of the ombudsman results in a reinstatement to the performance of all duties of the office. A decision in favor of the SLTCO, and after all appeals have been exhausted, requires the ombudsman to return any identification card.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:58 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-07 Training and certification: curricula.
(A) 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(c)(2)(iii) and 1324.13(d) establish a requirement for all program staff or volunteers who have access to residents, files, records, and other information of the ombudsman program who are subject to disclosure requirements to undergo training to be certified as an ombudsman.
(B) Ombudsman associates: The certification training curricula for all candidates seeking certification as ombudsman associates includes instruction in all the following topics:
(1) The state long-term care ombudsman program: scope of the office, roles, responsibilities, authorities, and federal and state regulations.
(2) Ombudsman ethics and conflict of interest.
(3) The resident and the resident experience.
(4) Putting the resident first and resident rights.
(5) Long-term care settings (types of providers, methods of payment for services).
(6) Access and communication(interpersonal communication, observation, building relationships).
(7) Consent, capacity, and confidentiality.
(8) Cognitive impairment, including Alzheimer's disease and related dementias. Topics to include:
(a) Overview of Alzheimer's disease and related dementias.
(b) Communication techniques.
(c) Advocating for persons with cognitive impairment.
(9) Facility visits, regular presence, and advocacy and general information activities.
(10) Long-term care ombudsman program complaint handling.
(11) Documentation.
(12) Any additional topic that the SLTCO deems as appropriate.
(C) Ombudsman specialists:
(1) The initial thirty-six hours of certification training under paragraph (B) of rule 173-14-04 of the Administrative Code includes the following topics:
(a) A more in-depth review of the topics covered for candidates for certification as ombudsman associates, including written exercises, case studies, role plays, research exercises, and analysis of systemic issues.
(b) Complaint-handling protocol, as outlined in rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Overview of quality assurance practices.
(d) Systems advocacy skills.
(e) How and when it is permissible to represent a client in a hearing, to appeal a proposed transfer, discharge, service/benefit denial, or termination.
(f) Complex case handling.
(g) How to recruit and engage volunteers.
(h) Any additional topic the SLTCO deems as appropriate.
(2) The sixty additional hours of certification training under paragraph (B)(1) of rule 173-14-04 of the Administrative Code includes the following experiential learning activities:
(a) Field observation.
(b) Documentation review and discussion with supervisor.
(c) Shadowing and assisting experienced ombudsman staff performing core services.
(d) Observing or participating in discharge hearings and ODH/ODMHAS surveys, when available.
(e) Any additional topic that the SLTCO deems as appropriate.
(D) Ombudsman program directors: The certification training curricula for all candidates seeking certification as an ombudsman program director includes the following topics:
(1) All the professional development topics for candidates for ombudsman specialists under paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) Administering the program.
(3) Program management.
(4) Supervision.
(5) Managing core ombudsman services and data.
(6) Prioritization of a regional program's services and activities.
(7) Developing an ombudsman plan.
(8) Fiscal management.
(9) Policy development.
(10) Any additional topic that the SLTCO deems as appropriate.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:53 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-16
An ombudsman shall identify, investigate, and resolve complaints made by, or on behalf of, clients and relate to the action, inaction, or decisions of providers or representatives of providers of long-term care services, public agencies, or health and social services agencies that may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of clients (including the welfare and rights of clients with respect to the appointment and activities of guardians and representative payees).
This rule establishes the requirements for handling complaints that are not listed under division (C) of section 173.19 of the Revised Code.
(A) Complaint intake:
(1) Any ombudsman may receive a complaint over the telephone, in person, or by letter or electronic communication. A complaint generated by the office itself is considered to be a received complaint. The mode of communication in which a complaint is received is deemed consent to communicate with the complainant through that mode of communication.
The ombudsman shall explain to a complainant who uses email that email is not always a secure mode for sharing confidential information.
(2) According to guidance provided by the SLTCO, an ombudsman shall explain to the complainant the general ombudsman process and options for handling the specific complaints)presented and gather information needed to determine the response time, whetherthere is a conflict of interest, and what, if any, steps have been taken previously.
(3) To ensure timely access to facilities, residents, and records, the ombudsman may also request the names and contact information of residents and their legal representatives or sponsors from long-term care facilities.
(4) An ombudsman shall refer complaints identified in rule 173-14-17 of the Administrative Code to the SLTCO.
(5) The ombudsman program shall analyze the urgency of the complaint based on the information received at the time of intake and prioritize response times that reflect the severity of each complaint, with more urgent response times for complaints that indicate potential harm to the client. A program that receives a complaint that indicates probable physical harm shall respond by the end of the next business day. The program shall notify the SLTCO immediately if a complaint indicates probable physical harm to the client and an ombudsman cannot respond before the end of the next business day. The program shall then prioritize all abuse, neglect, and exploitation complaints and other complaints that are time sensitive.
(B) Investigation:
(1) Representatives shall investigate complaints to determine if those complaints are verified. The steps in an investigation include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) An in-person interview with the client.
(b) An on-site visit to where the services that are the subject of the complaint were provided to make observations.
(c) Direct contact by in-person contact, a telephone call, video conference, email, or by letter with the complainant if the complainant is different from the client.
(d) Determining capacity and obtaining consent from the client.
(e) Obtaining a clear problem statement and goal statement from the client.
(f) Informing the client of the ombudsman role, process, and possible steps in the investigation, as described in paragraph (A)(2) of this rule, and developing an action plan.
(g) Revealing any known conflict(s) of interest to the client and/or complainant.
(h) Identifying the participants and relevant agencies.
(i) Identifying action already taken to handle or resolve the complaint.
(j) Determining gaps in the information.
(k) Gathering factual information through interviews with those persons with potential knowledge including, but not limited to, the complainant, the client, other agencies, and the provider's staff, management, or owners.
(l) Researching regulations and laws.
(m) Reviewing relevant client, provider, or government records.
(n) Engaging volunteer ombudsman staff when available and as appropriate.
(2) The investigating ombudsman does not need to exhaust one step before starting another or follow them in the order given in paragraph (B)(1) of this rule.
(C) Complaint resolution: Strategies for the resolution of a complaint shall be established in action plans developed in conjunction with the client or the client's representative and may include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Client or complainant empowerment.
(2) Negotiation.
(3) Mediation.
(4) Referral to other agencies.
(5) Education.
(6) Advocacy for clients at involuntary discharge hearings, navigating grievance and appeal processes, and appealing adverse benefit determinations, but not representation at a state hearing held according to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(7) Legislative advocacy after consultation with the SLTCO.
(8) Public disclosure after consultation with the SLTCO.
(D) Complaint follow-up activities: The ombudsman shall perform follow-up activities on complaints in a time frame appropriate to the complaint and resolution.
(E) Closing a case: Before closing a case, the ombudsman shall inform the client and, if appropriate, the complainant, that ombudsman activity will cease. an ombudsman may cease activity when any of the following occurs:
(1) The complaint has been resolved or explained to the client's satisfaction.
(2) The ombudsman determines that no further activity by the ombudsman will produce satisfaction for the client.
(3) The complaint has been withdrawn.
(F) Conflict of interest:
(1) An ombudsman shall comply with Ohio's ethics laws and this rule when handling complaints.
(a) An ombudsman who has been assigned a complaint shall reveal to the program director and the client and/or complainant any other relationship with the provider, public agency, or person involved that may call into question the ombudsman's objectivity or effectiveness in handling the complaint. These types of relationships may include, but are not limited to, having previously worked for or with a current employee of the provider, having an immediate family member who works for the provider, or having worked for the public agency involved in the complaint.
(b) An ombudsman who has a conflict of interest shall disclose the conflict to the regional program director, or if an ombudsman of the state office has the conflict of interest, to the SLTCO.
(c) On receiving notice of the potential conflict of interest, the SLTCO or the regional program director involved shall review the facts of the relationship to determine whether the ombudsman is able to handle the complaint in an objective and effective manner.
If the director of the regional program has a conflict of interest, the review shall be completed by the SLTCO.
When the SLTCO has a conflict of interest, the review shall be completed by AGE's director or the director's designated senior staff member.
(2) The regional programs shall develop policies and procedures consistent with rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code to prohibit any ombudsman of a regional program from handling a complaint involving a service directly delivered by the program's sponsoring agency. The policy shall provide that when the regional program is part of an AAA and the complaint concerns screening, assessments, care coordination, case management, or other decisions on client-specific services made by the AAA, the ombudsman shall reveal the relationship to the client and/or complainant and obtain the approval of the SLTCO. The decision to permit an ombudsman to handle such a complaint shall be documented in the case record. The client and/or complainant shall be informed of any decision to refer the complaint to the SLTCO and shall be informed of the reasons for the referral.
(G) Confidentiality:
(1) In a manner that complies with 42 U.S.C. 3027(a)(12)(C), 3058d(a)(6)(C), 3058g(a)(5)(D),3058g(d), and 3058i(e)(2); 45 C.F.R. 1321.9(a)(3), 1324.11(e)(3), 1324.13(e),1324.15(f), 1324.17(b), and 1324.19(b); and section 173.22 of the Revised Code, regional programs shall develop policies and procedures to maintain complaint, advocacy, and general information records, including, but not limited to, volunteer reports, in a confidential manner; to address the storage, maintenance, and physical access to all written and electronic complaint, advocacy, and general information records; and to assure that such records are in a secure location and that access to the files is limited to personnel authorized to review records.
(2) No employee or ombudsman who has a conflict of interest may review a complaint case record if the conflict of interest is of a type which would have kept an ombudsman from handling the complaint.
(3) No ombudsman may reveal identifying information about an individual providing information about a complaint without the individual's consent unless facilitated by state legal counsel in response to a court order.
(4) Any ombudsman who receives a subpoena or other request for ombudsman records, to attend a deposition, or to give testimony in court shall notify the SLTCO immediately. The SLTCO shall engage legal counsel to take appropriate legal action to protect the confidentiality of information, the persons who provided information, public entities, and the confidential records of clients and of providers.
(5) Except as otherwise provided by rule 173-14-15 of the Administrative Code, at the request of the provider, person, or parties against whom the complaint has been filed, and subject to paragraphs (G)(1), (G)(2), and (G)(4) of this rule, the ombudsman shall state the verification status of the complaint in question and whether the case has been opened or closed.
(H) Consent:
(1) An ombudsman shall conduct ombudsman services in a manner that protects the identity of the client, complainant, or individual providing information about a complaint, unless the client, complainant, or individual providing information about a complaint has provided consent to reveal their identity. Consent may be given in the following ways:
(a) In writing or email by the complainant, for the complainant, or by the client, for the client. The ombudsman shall use a written consent form provided by the SLTCO.
(b) Verbally, when the urgency of the complaint makes receiving written consent before an investigation impracticable. The ombudsman shall indicate verbal consent in the case record.
(2) When the complainant or client is unable to give consent due to diminished capacity or death, consent may be given in the following ways:
(a) When there is a legal representative:
(i) In writing by the legal representative of the complainant or client on a written consent form provided by the SLTCO, or through the use of auxiliary aids and services.
(ii) Verbally, by the legal representative of the complainant or client, when receiving written consent from the appropriate person is not practicable. The ombudsman shall indicate verbal consent in the case record.
(b) When there is no legal representative, when the legal representative is unknown to the ombudsman or the provider, when the legal representative cannot be reached within three business days after the date on which a complaint was received, or when the estate of a deceased client has no legal representative, consent maybe given by the sponsor the ombudsman determines the client would have chosen. If there is no sponsor, the ombudsman may proceed with the approval of the SLTCO.
(3) If the legal representative or sponsor refuses to authorize an investigation and the ombudsman has reasonable cause to believe the legal representative or sponsor is not acting in the best interest of the client, the ombudsman may proceed with the investigation if approved by the SLTCO.
(4)
(a) An ombudsman shall obtain consent to review a client's medical records. Consent may be given in any of the following ways:
(i) In writing by the client.
(ii) Verbally by the client, witnessed in writing at the time it is given by one other person as chosen by the client. If a witness chosen by the client is not available, the ombudsman shall document the verbal consent in the case record.
(iii) In writing by the guardian of the client.
(iv) In writing by the client's attorney-in-fact, if the client authorized the attorney-in-fact to give consent.
(v) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased client.
(vi) Through the use of auxiliary aids or services.
(b) If consent to access records is not refused by a client or the client's legal representative, but cannot be obtained, a ombudsman, on approval of the SLTCO, may inspect the client's records, including medical records, if reasonably necessary to investigate a complaint in any of the following circumstances:
(i) The client is unable to express written or verbal consent and there is no guardian or attorney-in-fact.
(ii) The client has a guardian or attorney-in-fact, but the guardian or attorney-in-fact cannot be contacted within three business days.
(iii) The client has a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the ombudsman at the time of the investigation.
(iv) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased client.
(c) The ombudsman shall demonstrate to the SLTCO that the ombudsman consulted with a sponsor chosen by the client about access to records whenever possible.
(5) When the SLTCO or ombudsman personally witnesses suspected abuse, gross neglect, or exploitation of a client, the SLTCO or ombudsman shall seek informed consent from the client to disclose identifying information to appropriate agencies.
(a) If the client is able to communicate informed consent, or has a sponsor chosen by the client available to provide informed consent, the SLTCO or ombudsman shall follow the direction of the client or sponsor.
(b) If the client is unable to communicate informed consent, and has no sponsor available to provide informed consent, the SLTCO or ombudsman shall open a case with the SLTCO or ombudsman as the complainant, follow the complaint-handling protocol and refer the matter and disclose identifying information to the management of the long-term care provider and/or to the appropriate investigative entity in the following circumstances:
(i) The SLTCO or ombudsman has no evidence indicating the client would not want a referral to be made.
(ii) The SLTCO or ombudsman has reasonable cause to believe disclosure would be in the best interest of the client.
(iii) The ombudsman obtains the approval of the SLTCO.
(I) The SLTCO may establish special complaint-handling requirements for optional ombudsman services.
Last updated January 13, 2026 at 9:23 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-10 Deployment and certification exams.
(A) Deployment and certification exams: The SLTCO shall develop deployment and certification exams that are fair and that test candidates on content received through the training under rule 173-14-05 of the Administrative Code. Any time curriculum is modified, and at least once per year to the extent practicable, the SLTCO shall validate the exams to ensure they are fair and test candidates on material provided through the training under rule 173-14-05 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Deployment exams: The SLTCO shall notify the candidate and the candidate's regional director in writing of the SLTCO's approval of deployment.
(C) Certification exams:
(1) The state office shall provide a review of the curriculum tested on the certification exam to candidates for certification as ombudsman specialists and ombudsman program directors before administering the certification exam if the state office trained the candidates and the candidates are eligible to take the certification exam.
(2) The regional programs shall proctor and score any exam given to candidates for associate certification. The state office shall proctor all exams given to candidates for specialist, program director certification, and associates affiliated with the state office.
(3) The SLTCO shall notify the candidate and, when appropriate, the regional program director, of the result. The SLTCO may provide a list of suggested continuing education topics or technical assistance to the candidate and, when appropriate, the regional program director. The regional programs may provide technical assistance to candidates.
(4) The SLTCO shall provide each candidate and the candidate's supervisor with an opportunity for a proctored review of the candidate's exam during the thirty-day review period after the SLTCO releases the candidate's results. After the thirty days, the SLTCO shall destroy the exam according to state record retention schedules.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-11 Ombudsman registry; hiring ombudsman specialists and program directors.
(A) Ombudsman administrative system: The SLTCO shall maintain an ombudsman administrative system to retain the following information on each ombudsman:
(1) The ombudsman's name, address, and telephone number.
(2) The ombudsman's qualifications.
(3) The ombudsman's classification.
(4) The designated ombudsman region or state program with which the ombudsman is associated.
(5) Whether or not the ombudsman is certified.
(6) Any limitations applicable to the ombudsman, including limitations on the duties the ombudsman may perform and limitations on the providers with which the ombudsman may provide core ombudsman services due to a conflict of interest.
(B) Hiring ombudsman specialists:
(1) Before posting an open specialist position in the ombudsman program, a regional program shall provide the SLTCO a copy of the position description for review and feedback.
(2) Before offering employment to an applicant for an ombudsman specialist position, a regional director shall save in the ombudsman administrative system, and await the SLTCO's review of, the applicant's résumé, and the conflict of interest screen under rule 173-14-15 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The SLTCO shall review the applicant's qualifications under rule 173-14-14 of the Administrative Code and any proposed conflict of interest remedy and responds within five business days after the regional director saved the information in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule in the ombudsman administrative system to indicate whether the applicant is approved or not approved.
(C) Hiring program directors:
(1) A sponsoring agency shall do all of the following before offering employment to an applicant for a program director position:
(a) Review the applicant's résumé.
(b) Review the applicant's conflict of interest screen under rule 173-14-15 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Forward the information in paragraphs (C)(1)(a) and (C)(1)(b) of this rule to the SLTCO.
(d) Consider the SLTCO's feedback on the applicant's suitability. The SLTCO may request to interview the applicant concerning the applicant's suitability before providing the sponsoring agency with feedback.
(2) The sponsoring agency's decision to hire a qualified applicant is final after considering SLTCO feedback on conflict of interest and qualification issues.
(D) Section 173.15 of the Revised Code does not allow employment of an applicant who was employed by, or participated in, the management of a provider of long-term services and supports within the two-year period before being employed by or associated with the office.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-15
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Conflict of interest" has the same meaning as described or defined in 42 U.S.C. 3058g(f), 45 C.F.R. 1324.21, or Chapter 102. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Financial interest" means an ownership interest or investment in a provider by an ombudsman or the immediate family member of the ombudsman of the office.
(3) "Remedy" means an action, restriction of action, restriction of contact, or other means proposed to the SLTCO that would neutralize a conflict of interest and ensure the conflict does not adversely influence the activities of the ombudsman on behalf of the office.
(4) "Waiver" means the SLTCO has determined sufficient circumstances exist to eliminate a conflict of interest and the need to remedy a conflict of interest.
(B) No employee or ombudsman of the office, no individual involved in designating, hiring, evaluating, or terminating a regional program director, and no governing board member, may have an unremedied conflict of interest.
(C) Actions prohibited by someone holding a remedied conflict of interest include, but are not limited to, actions taken to influence any decision or action of an ombudsman, which could be characterized as interference with or reprisals against an ombudsman or as causing hesitation on the part of an ombudsman to vigorously investigate a client's complaint.
No ombudsman may provide core ombudsman services involving a long-term care provider with which the ombudsman was formerly employed, with which the ombudsman was formerly or is currently affiliated or associated, from which an immediate family member receives long-term care services, or that poses any other conflict of interest unless the SLTCO grants a waiver.
(D) On initial designation and annually thereafter, the SLTCO, the regional programs, and the sponsoring agencies shall screen potential and existing non-representative employees of the program, potential candidates, and each existing ombudsman; individuals involved in designating, hiring, evaluating, or terminating the head of any regional program; and potential and existing governing board members for conflicts of interest. When completed, the person who conducted the screen and the person screened shall acknowledge the completion of the screen in writing or electronically. The completed screening form and a résumé shall be entered into the ombudsman administrative system, made a record of the program, and be subject to program review.
(E) Before offering an ombudsman position to an applicant or training a volunteer, the sponsoring agencies and/or regional program directors shall report any identified conflict of interest, and may propose a remedy, to the SLTCO. The SLTCO shall report any identified conflict of interest in the state office and propose a remedy to AGE's director or chief ethics officer. Within five business days after receiving a proposed remedy, the SLTCO or AGE's director or chief ethics officer shall review the nature, scope, and extent of the conflict and determine whether to allow the proposed remedy.
The proposed remedy shall be entered into the ombudsman administrative system; reveal the nature, extent, and potential impact of the conflict of interest; and neutralize the conflict of interest. Current employment with any type of provider is a conflict of interest that cannot be remedied. Any remedy granted shall remain in effect for as long as the conflict continues to exist to the same extent as reported and for as long as the remedy continues to work. Conflict of interest screens and proposed remedies or waiver requests shall be entered into the ombudsman administrative system.
Examples of remedies which may be approved include, but are not limited to, remedies that assure the following:
(1) The independence of the ombudsman to provide unbiased investigations, successful problem resolution, advocacy services, and other ombudsman services.
(2) That no employee, ombudsman, or governing board member having a conflict of interest is involved with or influences any decision to hire, appoint, evaluate, or terminate an ombudsman.
(3) That no employee, ombudsman, or governing board member having a conflict of interest is involved with or influences the designation of any regional program.
(4) That no governing board members having a conflict of interest in their capacity as board members are involved in a complaint being handled by the program involving the entity that is the source of the conflict of interest.
(5) That any governing board members having a conflict of interest in their capacity as board members have declared any conflict of interest regarding a complaint or advocacy issue, and excused themselves from deliberations and voting on the issue.
(6) That the governing board's by-laws, the organization's position descriptions, and personnel policies reflect procedures to identify and remedy conflicts of interest and ensure independence of action for the program and any ombudsman in that program.
(F) Before offering an ombudsman position to an applicant or training a volunteer, the sponsoring agencies and/or regional program directors shall report any identified conflict of interest, and may request a waiver of a conflict of interest from the SLTCO in the ombudsman administrative system, or if the SLTCO requests the waiver, from AGE's director or chief ethics officer, by revealing the nature, scope, extent, and potential impact of the conflict of interest and whether sufficient circumstances exist to eliminate the conflict of interest. Within five business days after receiving a waiver request, the SLTCO or AGE's director, as appropriate, shall review the nature, scope, extent, and potential impact of the conflict and shall determine whether or not sufficient circumstances exist to eliminate a conflict of interest and approve the waiver.
(1) Any conflict of interest not waived or remedied, and any prohibition resulting therefrom, shall be recorded in the ombudsman administrative system.
(2) The SLTCO may take into consideration the following when determining whether to grant a waiver:
(a) The length of time an individual was affiliated with a provider.
(b) The view of the SLTCO of the objectivity of the individual.
(c) The position held by the individual when working for a provider.
(d) The change in the ownership and/or management of a provider and the length of time since the change in ownership and/or management.
(G) No ombudsman may hold a position or perform a duty that would constitute a conflict of interest.
(H) Deliberate failure to disclose any conflict of interest or any prohibition is sufficient grounds for the removal of the candidate from the training program, the decertification of an ombudsman, or the withdrawal of the designation of the regional program involved.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-14
(A) Staffing requirements: Each regional program shall have a full-time program director. If a sponsoring agency administers more than one regional program, each regional program shall have full-time supervision provided by a certified ombudsman program director in that region, unless otherwise approved by the state ombudsman.
(B) Staff qualifications:
(1) Ombudsman candidate: To accept a candidate for certification as an ombudsman candidate, the state or regional program shall either hire a person as a paid staff member or accept the person as a volunteer staff member. The state or regional program may hire or accept a person only if the person:
(a) Is at least eighteen years of age; and,
(b) Has the ability to understand and empathize with the concerns of clients of long-term care services.
(2) Ombudsman specialist: A regional program may designate a person to be an ombudsman specialist only if the person is at least a registered nurse or has earned a bachelor of science degree in nursing, or a bachelor of arts or bachelor of science degree in social work, social services, or a health-related field. Any paid ombudsman specialist who does not meet this requirement may substitute commensurate experience or education to meet the education qualification with the approval of the SLTCO.
(3) Ombudsman program director: A regional program may designate a person to be the ombudsman program director only if the person meets both of the following requirements:
(a) The person is at least a registered nurse or has earned a bachelor of science degree in nursing, or a bachelor of arts degree or a bachelor of science degree in social work, social services, a health-related field, or any other related field. Any paid ombudsman program director who does not meet this requirement may substitute commensurate experience or education to meet the education qualification.
(b) The person has one year's experience in supervision/management in the fields of aging, long-term care, health care, social services, advocacy, or investigation with the approval of the SLTCO.
(4) Background checks: Section 173.27 of the Revised Code and paragraph (C) of this rule establish background-check requirements for hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid ombudsman position.
(C) Background checks for paid ombudsman positions:
(1) Definitions for paragraph (C) of this rule:
"AGE means the Ohio department of aging.
"Applicant" means a person that a responsible party is giving final consideration for hiring into a paid ombudsman position that is full-time, part-time, or temporary, including the position of state long-term care ombudsman or regional director. "Applicant" does not include a volunteer.
"BCII" means "the bureau of criminal identification and investigation" and includes the superintendent of BCII.
"Criminal records" has the same meaning as "results of the criminal records check," "results," and "report" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code when the section uses "results of the criminal records check," "results," and "report" to refer to the criminal records that BCII provides to responsible parties that conduct criminal records checks. Criminal records originate from BCII unless the context indicates that the criminal records originate from the FBI.
"Criminal records check" ("check") means the criminal records check described in section 173.27 of the Revised Code.
"Disqualifying offense" means any offense listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (A)(3)(e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.
"Employee" means a person that a responsible party hired into a paid ombudsman position that is full-time, part-time, or temporary, including the position of the state long-term care ombudsman or regional director. "Employee" does not include a volunteer.
"FBI" means "federal bureau of investigation."
"Fire" has the same meaning as "terminate" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code when the "terminate" regards firing an employee.
"Hire" has the same meaning as "employ" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code when "employ" regards hiring an applicant.
"Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.
"Ombudsman position" has the same meaning as "position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code. "Ombudsman position" includes the positions of ombudsman associate, ombudsman specialist, and ombudsman program director.
"Release" has the same meaning as "terminate" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code when "terminate" regards releasing a conditionally-hired applicant.
"Responsible party": When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid ombudsman position as the state long-term care ombudsman, "responsible party" means AGE's director. When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid ombudsman position in the office of the state long-term care ombudsman, "responsible party" means the state long-term care ombudsman. When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid ombudsman position as the director of a regional program, "responsible party" means the regional program. When hiring an applicant for, or retaining an employee in, a paid ombudsman position in the regional program, "responsible party" means the regional program.
"Retain" has the same meaning as "continue to employ" in section 173.27 of the Revised Code.
"Volunteer" means a person who serves in an ombudsman position without receiving, or expecting to receive, any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.
(2) Reviewing databases:
(a) Databases to review: Any time this rule requires a responsible party to review an applicant's (pre-hire) or employee's (post-hire) status in databases, the responsible party shall review the seven databases listed in paragraphs (C)(2)(a)(i) to (C)(2)(a)(vii) of this rule. In the table below, AGE listed the web address (URL) on which each database was accessible to the public at the time of this rule's adoption. If a URL listed in the table becomes obsolete, please consult with the government entity publishing the database for an updated URL.
Databases to Review
| SAM | https://www.sam.gov/ | | --- | --- | | OIG | https://exclusions.oig.hhs.gov/ | | Abuser Registry | https://its.prodapps.dodd.ohio.gov/ABR_Default.aspx | | ODM Provider Exclusion and SuspensionList | https://medicaid.ohio.gov/resources-for-providers/enrollment-and-support/provider-enrollment/provider-exclusion-and-suspension-list | | Sex-Offender Search | http://www.icrimewatch.net/index.php?AgencyID=55149&disc= | | Offender Search | https://appgateway.drc.ohio.gov/OffenderSearch | | Nurse-Aide Registry | https://nurseaideregistry.odh.ohio.gov/Public/PublicAbuseListing |
(i) The United States general services administration's system for award management, which is maintained pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation.
(ii) The office of inspector general of the United States department of health and human services' list of excluded individuals and entities, which is maintained pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5.
(iii) The department of developmental disabilities' online abuser registry, established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code, which lists people cited for abuse, neglect, or misappropriation.
(iv) The department of medicaid's online provider exclusion and suspension list (https://medicaid.ohio.gov/resources-for-providers/enrollment-and-support/provider-enrollment/provider-exclusion-and-suspension-list).
(v) The Ohio attorney general's sex offender and child-victim offender database, established under division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code.
(vi) The department of rehabilitation and correction's database of inmates, established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code.
(vii) The department of health's state nurse aide registry, established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code. If the applicant or employee does not present proof that he or she has been a resident of Ohio for the five-year period immediately preceding the date of the database review, the responsible party shall conduct a database review of the nurse aide registry in the state or states in which the applicant or employee lived.
(b) When to review databases:
(i) Applicants (pre-hire): The responsible party shall review each applicant's (pre-hire) status in the databases before conducting the criminal records check under paragraph (C)(3) of this rule.
(ii) Employees (post-hire): The responsible party shall review each employee's (post-hire) status in the databases before conducting the criminal records check under paragraph (C)(3) of this rule.
(c) Disqualifying status:
(i) No responsible party may hire an applicant or retain an employee if the applicant's or employee's status in the databases reveals that one or more of the databases in paragraphs (C)(2)(a)(i) to (C)(2)(a)(vi) of this rule lists the applicant or employee or the database in paragraph (C)(2)(a)(vii) of this rule lists the applicant or employee as a person who abused, neglected, or exploited a long-term care facility resident or misappropriated such a resident's property.
(ii) If the responsible party's database reviews reveal that the applicant or employee is disqualified, the responsible party shall inform the applicant or employee of the disqualifying information.
(3) Criminal records checks: when to check criminal records, inform applicants, charge fees, and use forms.
(a) Database reviews first: The responsible party shall conduct database reviews on each applicant (pre-hire) and each employee (post-hire) before conducting a criminal records check. If the database reviews disqualify the applicant or employee, the responsible party shall not conduct a criminal records check. If the database reviews do not disqualify the applicant or employee, the responsible party shall conduct a criminal records check.
(b) Procedures: Section 173.27 of the Revised Code and Chapter 109:5-1 of the Administrative Code establish the procedures for conducting criminal records checks.
(c) When to check criminal records:
(i) Applicants (pre-hire): The responsible party shall conduct a criminal records check on each applicant.
(ii) Employees (post-hire): According to one of the following three schedules, the responsible party shall conduct a post-hire criminal records check on each employee at least once every five years:
(a) Five-year schedule: The responsible party shall conduct a criminal records check on the employee no later than thirty days after the fifth anniversary of the employee's date of hire and no later than thirty days after each five-year anniversary. A responsible party that follows this schedule is not required to wait until the employee's five-year anniversary to conduct a criminal records check. The responsible party has five years, plus thirty days, to conduct the next check.
(b) Less-than-five-year schedule: The responsible party may conduct criminal records checks on an employee more frequently than every five years. If the responsible party checks more frequently than every five years, the responsible party is not required to conduct criminal records checks according to the five-year schedules. If a responsible party complies with the requirements for rapback, the responsible party is conducting criminal records checks on a daily basis, which is a less-than-five-year schedule.
(d) Special situations:
(i) Reverification: If any person requested a criminal records check on an applicant or employee in the past year that included sealed criminal records in a BCII report, the responsible party may request a reverification of the criminal records from BCII. The reverification of the criminal record has the same validity as the criminal records received during the past year.
(ii) Divisions (E) and (F) of section 173.27 of the Revised Code establishes standards for when to request that BCII obtain information from FBI as part of the criminal records check on the applicant or employee.
(4) Conditional hiring: A responsible party may conditionally hire an applicant for a paid ombudsman position for up to sixty days if the responsible party complies with all requirements and limitations under division (F) of section 173.27 of the Revised Code. This paragraph does not subject employees who hold paid ombudsman positions to a conditional status when they undergo post-hire criminal records checks.
(5) Disqualifying offenses: The disqualifying offenses for this rule are the same as the disqualifying offenses listed in rule 173-9-06 of the Administrative Code.
(6) Hiring an applicant, or retaining an employee, who has a disqualifying offense on criminal record: There are four possible ways to hire an applicant, or retain an employee, if the applicant's or employee's criminal record contains a disqualifying offense: not being in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code, limited grandfathering under paragraph (B) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code, obtaining a certificate under paragraph (C) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code.
(7) Confidentiality: Criminal records are not public records. The responsible party shall make criminal records available only to the people or entities listed under division (G) of section 173.27 of the Revised Code.
(8) Records retention:
(a) Personnel files:
(i) What to retain: To verify compliance with this rule, for each applicant the responsible party hired and each employee the responsible party retained, the responsible party shall retain electronic or paper copies of the following records:
(a) The result of each of the database reviews.
(b) Any criminal records including reverified records received as a result of a check conducted to comply with section 173.27 of the Revised Code.
(c) The written attestation to the character and fitness of the employee, if the responsible party completed a written attestation before April 1, 2013 to comply with paragraph (B)(3) of rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code.
(d) A certificate of qualification for employment, if a court issued a certificate of qualification for employment to the employee.
(e) A certificate of achievement and employability, if the department of rehabilitation and corrections issued a certificate of achievement and employability to the employee.
(f) A pardon, if a governor pardoned the employee.
(g) The date the responsible party hired the employee.
(ii) Sealed files: The responsible party shall retain the records required under paragraph (C)(8)(a)(i) of this rule by sealing the records within each applicant's or each employee's personnel files or by retaining the records in separate files from the personnel files.
(b) Roster: A responsible party shall maintain a roster of applicants and employees, accessible by AGE's director (or the director's designees), that includes all the following:
(i) The name of each applicant and employee.
(ii) The date the responsible party hired the employee.
(iii) The date the responsible party requested criminal records from BCII.
(iv) The date the responsible party received criminal records from BCII.
(v) A determination of whether the criminal records revealed that the applicant or employee committed a disqualifying offense(s).
(D) Background checks for volunteers in ombudsman positions: Because section 173.27 of the Revised Code excludes volunteers from the definitions of "applicant" and "employee," volunteers are not subject to the background check requirements in section 173.27 of the Revised Code or paragraph (C) of this rule when they apply to volunteer or after they become volunteers. A responsible party may conduct a criminal records check on a volunteer if the responsible party complies with rule 109:5-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-12 Separation of representatives from the office.
The separation of an ombudsman from the office may occur through termination by the regional program or sponsoring agency with which the ombudsman is employed, decertification, voluntary separation, or removal of the candidate for certification.
(A) Decertification or removal of a candidate for certification:
(1) No ombudsman may be decertified or removed as a candidate for certification without cause. Cause includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Failure to provide services according to sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the Revised Code, this chapter, the service contract, or the approved ombudsman plan.
(b) Performing a function not recognized or sanctioned by the office.
(c) Failure to meet the qualifications to be a ombudsman.
(d) Failure to meet continuing education requirements.
(e) Intentional failure to reveal a conflict of interest.
(f) The misrepresentation of the ombudsman's category of certification or the duties the ombudsman is certified to perform.
(g) Failure to perform official duties in good faith.
(h) Conduct unbecoming an ombudsman of the office.
(i) Violations of Ohio ethics laws.
(2) The SLTCO and sponsoring agencies may attempt to improve a ombudsman's job performance through training, supervision, or other remedial actions before recommending decertification.
(3) Regional program directors, sponsoring agencies, and SLTCO staff recommending decertification or removal shall state their reasons in writing to the SLTCO and provide the SLTCO with any relevant documentation to support the recommendation.
(4) The SLTCO shall review the recommendation and determine whether to accept or deny the recommendation in the form of a written notice to the sponsoring agency, regional program director, and the ombudsman. A paid ombudsman may appeal the notice according to rule 173-14-27 of the Administrative Code.
(5) When the SLTCO initiates a decertification action against an ombudsman, the SLTCO shall notify the sponsoring agency, the regional program, and the ombudsman. A paid ombudsman may appeal the notice according to rule 173-14-27 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Responsibilities after separation:
(1) The SLTCO or regional program director shall notify any person who separates from the office in writing of the responsibility to surrender the identification card within seven days after receiving the notice because any person who separates from the office ceases to be an ombudsman.
(2) Regional programs shall notify the SLTCO of the separation of any ombudsman from the office and the reason for the separation no later than thirty days after the separation of a volunteer and immediately after the separation of a paid ombudsman.
(3) As appropriate, regional programs shall notify affected long-term care providers of the ombudsman's separation from the office.
(C) Reinstatement:
(1) Any person seeking recertification within one year after voluntarily separating from the office may apply for reinstatement in writing, email, or through the ombudsman administrative system. The application shall provide the date of separation and a summary of any training in or experience with ombudsman skills, long-term care services, problem resolution skills, or related skills the applicant received since voluntarily separating from the office.
(2) The SLTCO shall review the application and may require the applicant to receive additional training, and/or take an appropriate exam based on the length of time the applicant has been away from the field, and the experience or training the applicant has accumulated in the interim. The SLTCO shall decide no later than five business days after receipt of the request.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-13 Continuing education requirements, approval of hours, certifying fulfillment.
(A) Each ombudsman shall complete the following annual continuing education requirements:
(1) Ombudsman associate: eighteen hours.
(2) Ombudsman specialists: eighteen hours with a minimum of nine of those hours earned through attendance at SLTCO-sponsored education.
(3) Ombudsman program directors: eighteen hours with a minimum of nine of those hours earned through attendance at SLTCO-sponsored education and with at least one session on the training outlined in paragraph (D) of rule 173-14-07 of the Administrative Code. Topics of sessions may include, but are not limited to, supervision of staff, quality assurance practices, strategic planning, and interviewing, hiring, and retention of potential staff.
The required hours of continuing education shall be prorated for any ombudsman who has been certified for fewer than twelve months.
(B) Continuing education sessions shall meet the following requirements:
(1) The individual(s) presenting the session has documented expertise in the content area.
(2) The session transmits knowledge relevant to the duties of a long-term care ombudsman.
(3) The session has not been held for the purpose of individual or group supervision.
(C)
(1) The SLTCO shall notify each ombudsman of the credits that may be earned through attendance at an SLTCO-sponsored session before the date on which the session is scheduled and may assign credit for successfully completing the session.
(2) An ombudsman or a program designee shall enter all requests for credit toward their continuing education requirements into the ombudsman administrative system or by email to the SLTCO or the SLTCO's designee before, or as soon as practicable after, actual attendance at the session.
All requests for continuing education credit shall contain the following:
(a) The name of the session and the name of the entity that organized or sponsored the session.
(b) A brief summary of the session's content.
(c) The name of the presenters at the session and a statement addressing their expertise in the content of the session.
(d) The length of the session, including the length of any time the ombudsman spent presenting.
(e) An explanation of how the session relates to the duties of the ombudsman.
(f) Proof of completion, if requested by the SLTCO.
(3) The SLTCO shall approve continuing education credits in terms of face-to-face contact hours or one-tenth parts of an hour earned. The SLTCO shall notify each ombudsman of the approval or disapproval of their requests as soon as practicable.
(4) An ombudsman may meet this rule's continuing education requirements with credits that were also counted toward the continuing education requirements of other professional organizations or boards.
(D)
(1) The regional programs shall track the hours of continuing education accumulated by their volunteers and the SLTCO shall track the hours of continuing education accumulated by the paid and volunteer staff of the state office. All continuing education shall be reported through the ombudsman administrative system according to instructions provided by the state office.
(2) By December first of each year, a state review shall be completed to ensure the continuing education requirements for each ombudsman have been fulfilled. According to instructions provided by the state office, regional programs shall enter records of volunteer continuing education into the ombudsman administrative system by December fifteenth of each year and retain records on continuing education as long as the ombudsman remains affiliated with the office. After records are entered into the ombudsman administrative system, physical records may be destroyed.
(E) If continuing education requirements cannot be fulfilled before each year's deadline, a ombudsman may demonstrate extenuating circumstances or give an explanation to the ombudsman program director or to the SLTCO.
(1) In the case of a regional program volunteer, if the explanation or extenuating circumstances are not acceptable to the ombudsman program director, the program director shall notify the SLTCO.
(2) In the case of a paid ombudsman, if the explanation or extenuating circumstances are not acceptable to the SLTCO, the SLTCO shall notify the ombudsman and program director or sponsoring agency director, as appropriate.
(3) The SLTCO may consider the performance of the ombudsman and allow the ombudsman to obtain the missing hours of continuing education by March thirty-first of the subsequent year. Any hours carried over from a previous year do not count toward the continuing education requirements of the subsequent year.
(F) An ombudsman who does not meet the annual continuing education requirement, or within the extension period if approved by the SLTCO based on a demonstration of extenuating circumstances, shall be decertified according to rule 173-14-12 of the Administrative Code. The notice and hearing process for a paid ombudsman is subject to rule 173-14-27 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:54 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-06
(A) No responsible party may hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, retain an employee or a self-employed provider, certify a self-employed provider, fail to revoke a self-employed person's certification, enter into an AAA-provider agreement (agreement) with a self-employed provider, or fail to terminate that agreement, if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code unless allowed under rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code:
(1) 959.13 (cruelty to animals).
(2) 959.131 (prohibitions concerning companion animals).
(3) 2903.01 (aggravated murder).
(4) 2903.02 (murder).
(5) 2903.03 (voluntary manslaughter).
(6) 2903.04 (involuntary manslaughter).
(7) 2903.041 (reckless homicide).
(8) 2903.11 (felonious assault).
(9) 2903.12 (aggravated assault).
(10) 2903.13 (assault).
(11) 2903.15 (permitting child abuse).
(12) 2903.16 (knowingly or recklessly failing to provide for a functionally-impaired person).
(13) 2903.21 (aggravated menacing).
(14) 2903.211 (menacing by stalking).
(15) 2903.22 (menacing).
(16) 2903.34 (patient abuse, gross patient abuse, patient neglect).
(17) 2903.341 (patient endangerment).
(18) 2905.01 (kidnapping).
(19) 2905.02 (abduction).
(20) 2905.04 (child stealing, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(21) 2905.05 (criminal child enticement).
(22) 2905.11 (extortion).
(23) 2905.12 (coercion).
(24) 2905.32 (trafficking in persons).
(25) 2905.33 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents).
(26) 2907.02 (rape).
(27) 2907.03 (sexually battery).
(28) 2907.04 (unlawful sexual conduct with a minor, formerly corruption of a minor).
(29) 2907.05 (gross sexual imposition).
(30) 2907.06 (sexual imposition).
(31) 2907.07 (importuning).
(32) 2907.08 (voyeurism).
(33) 2907.09 (public indecency).
(34) 2907.12 (felonious sexual penetration, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(35) 2907.21 (compelling prostitution).
(36) 2907.22 (promoting prostitution).
(37) 2907.23 (enticing or soliciting another person to patronize a prostitute or brothel; procurement of a prostitute for another person to patronize).
(38) 2907.24 (soliciting, engaging in solicitation after a positive HIV test).
(39) 2907.25 (prostitution, engaging in prostitution after a positive HIV test).
(40) 2907.31 (disseminating matter harmful to juveniles).
(41) 2907.32 (pandering obscenity).
(42) 2907.321 (pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person).
(43) 2907.322 (pandering sexually-oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person).
(44) 2907.323 (illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance).
(45) 2907.33 (deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles).
(46) 2909.02 (aggravated arson).
(47) 2909.03 (arson).
(48) 2909.04 (disrupting public services).
(49) 2909.22 (soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism).
(50) 2909.23 (making a terroristic threat).
(51) 2909.24 (terrorism).
(52) 2911.01 (aggravated robbery).
(53) 2911.02 (robbery);.
(54) 2911.11 (aggravated burglary).
(55) 2911.12 (burglary, trespass in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present).
(56) 2911.13 (breaking and entering).
(57) 2913.02 (theft).
(58) 2913.03 (unauthorized use of a vehicle).
(59) 2913.04 (unauthorized use of property; unauthorized use of computer, cable, or telecommunication property; unauthorized use of the law enforcement automated database system; unauthorized use of the Ohio law enforcement gateway).
(60) 2913.05 (telecommunications fraud).
(61) 2913.11 (passing bad checks).
(62) 2913.21 (misuse of credit cards).
(63) 2913.31 (forgery, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards).
(64) 2913.32 (criminal simulation).
(65) 2913.40 (medicaid fraud).
(66) 2913.41 (defrauding a rental agency or hostelry).
(67) 2913.42 (tampering with records).
(68) 2913.43 (securing writings by deception).
(69) 2913.44 (personating an officer).
(70) 2913.441 (unlawful display of the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers).
(71) 2913.45 (defrauding creditors).
(72) 2913.46 (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(73) 2913.47 (insurance fraud).
(74) 2913.48 (workers' compensation fraud).
(75) 2913.49 (identity fraud).
(76) 2913.51 (receiving stolen property).
(77) 2917.01 (inciting to violence).
(78) 2917.02 (aggravated riot).
(79) 2917.03 (riot).
(80) 2917.31 (inducing panic).
(81) 2919.12 (unlawful abortion).
(82) 2919.121 (unlawful abortion upon minor).
(83) 2919.123 (unlawful distribution of an abortion-inducing drug).
(84) 2919.124 (unlawful performance of a drug-induced abortion).
(85) 2919.22 (endangering children).
(86) 2919.23 (interference with custody).
(87) 2919.24 (contributing to unruliness or delinquency of child).
(88) 2919.25 (domestic violence).
(89) 2921.03 (intimidation).
(90) 2921.11 (perjury).
(91) 2921.12 (tampering with evidence).
(92) 2921.13 (falsification, falsification in a theft offense, falsification to purchase a firearm, falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, falsification regarding a removal proceeding).
(93) .2921.21 (compounding a crime).
(94) 2921.24 (disclosure of confidential information).
(95) 2921.32 (obstructing justice).
(96) 2921.321 (assaulting or harassing a police dog or horse assaulting or harassing an assistance dog).
(97) 2921.34 (escape).
(98) 2921.35 (aiding escape or resistance to lawful authority).
(99) 2921.36 (illegal conveyance of weapons, drugs, intoxicating liquor, or a communications device onto the grounds of specified government facility, illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility).
(100) 2921.51 (impersonation of peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, or BCII investigator).
(101) 2923.01 (conspiracy to commit a disqualifying offense).
(102) 2923.02 (attempt to commit a disqualifying offense).
(103) .2923.03 (complicity related to another disqualifying offense).
(104) 2923.12 (carrying concealed weapons).
(105) 2923.122 (illegal conveyance or possession of deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone).
(106) 2923.123 (illegal conveyance of a deadly weapon into a courthouse illegal, possession, or control of deadly weapon or ordnance into a courthouse).
(107) 2923.13 (having weapons while under disability).
(108) 2923.161 (improperly discharging a firearm at or into a habitation, school safety zone, or with the intent to cause harm or panic to persons in a school, in a school building, or at a school function or the evacuation of a school function).
(109) 2923.162 (discharge of firearm on or near prohibited premises).
(110) 2923.21 (improperly furnishing firearms to minor).
(111) 2923.32 (engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity).
(112) 2923.42 (participating in criminal gang).
(113) 2925.02 (corrupting another with drugs).
(114) 2925.03 (aggravated trafficking in drugs, trafficking in drugs, trafficking in marihuana [marijuana], trafficking in cocaine, trafficking in LSD, trafficking in heroin, trafficking in hashish, trafficking in a controlled substance analog, trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound).
(115) 2925.04 (illegal manufacture of drugs, illegal cultivation of marijuana).
(116) 2925.041 (illegal assembly or possession of chemicals for the manufacture of drugs).
(117) 2925.05 (aggravated funding of drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking, drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking).
(118) 2925.06 (illegal administration or distribution of anabolic steroids),
(119) 2925.09 (illegal administration, dispensing, distribution, manufacture, possession, selling, or using of any dangerous drug to or for livestock or any animal that is generally used for food or in the production of food, unless the drug is prescribed by a licensed veterinarian).
(120) 2925.11 (aggravated possession of drugs, possession of drugs, possession of cocaine, possession of LSD, possession of heroin, possession of hashish, possession of a controlled substance analog, possession of marihuana [marijuana], possession of a fentanyl-related compound).
(121) 2925.13 (permitting drug abuse).
(122) 2925.14 (illegal use, possession, dealing, selling to a juvenile, or advertising of drug paraphernalia).
(123) 2925.22 (deception to obtain a dangerous drug).
(124) 2925.23 (illegal processing of drug documents).
(125) 2925.24 (tampering with drugs).
(126) 2925.36 (illegal dispensing of drug samples).
(127) 2925.55 (unlawful purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, underage purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, using false information to purchase a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product, improper purchase of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product).
(128) 2925.56 (unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product; unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product to a minor; improper sale of a pseudoephedrine or ephedrine product).
(129) 2927.12 (ethnic intimidation).
(130) 3716.11 (placing harmful objects in food or confection).
(B) No responsible party may hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, retain an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider, certify a self-employed provider, fail to revoke a self-employed provider's certification, enter into an agreement with a self-employed provider, or fail to terminate that agreement, if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses described in paragraph (A) of this rule, unless allowed under rule 173-9-07 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-07
Introduction: When the responsible party is an agency provider, PACE organization, AGE, AAA, or PAA, in the case of its applicants, employees, and subcontracted self-employed providers, there are four possible ways to hire an applicant or subcontract with a self-employed provider, or retain an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider, if the applicant's, employee's, or subcontracted self-employed provider's criminal record contains a disqualifying offense: not being in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule. If 42 C.F.R. 460.68(a) permanently disqualifies an applicant, employee, or self-employed provider from employment in, or subcontracting by, a PACE organization or a subcontractor of a PACE organization, this rule does not establish an occasion when the disqualifying offense under 42 C.F.R. 460.68(a) does not disqualify under the PACE program.
When the responsible party is a consumer in the case of an applicant to be, or an employee who is, the consumer's participant-directed provider, there are four possible ways to hire an applicant, or retain an employee, as the consumer's participant-directed provider: not being in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
When the responsible party is AGE in the case of a self-employed provider's application to become a certified non-agency provider under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code and in the case of a certified non-agency provider, the responsible party shall not reject a self-employed provider's application for certification or revoke a self-employed provider's certification solely because the self-employed provider has a disqualifying offense on his or her criminal record in the following four situations: the self-employed provider is not in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
When the responsible party is an AAA in the case of a self-employed provider who bids for an AAA-provider agreement or is in an existing AAA-provider agreement, the responsible party shall not reject a bid from a self-employed provider for an AAA-provider agreement (agreement) or to terminate an existing agreement solely because the self-employed provider has a disqualifying offense on the self-employed provider's criminal record in the following four situations: the self-employed provider is not in a period of disqualification under paragraph (A) of this rule, being grandfathered under paragraph (B) of this rule, having a certificate under paragraph (C) of this rule, or being pardoned under paragraph (D) of this rule.
(A) Periods of disqualification:
(1) Tier I: permanent disqualification: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is in a permanent period of disqualification if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(a) 2903.01 (aggravated murder).
(b) 2903.02 (murder).
(c) 2903.03 (voluntary manslaughter).
(d) 2903.11 (felonious assault).
(e) 2903.15 (permitting child abuse).
(f) 2903.16 (knowingly or recklessly failing to provide for a functionally-impaired person).
(g) 2903.34 (patient abuse, gross patient abuse, patient neglect).
(h) 2903.341 (patient endangerment).
(i) 2905.01 (kidnapping).
(j) 2905.02 (abduction).
(k) 2905.32 (trafficking in persons)
(l) 2905.33 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents).
(m) 2907.02 (rape).
(n) 2907.03 (sexual battery).
(o) 2907.04 (unlawful sexual conduct with a minor, formerly corruption of a minor).
(p) 2907.05 (gross sexual imposition).
(q) 2907.06 (sexual imposition).
(r) 2907.07 (importuning).
(s) 2907.08 (voyeurism).
(t) 2907.12 (felonious sexual penetration).
(u) 2907.31 (disseminating matter harmful to juveniles).
(v) 2907.32 (pandering obscenity).
(w) 2907.321 (pandering obscenity involving a minor or impaired person).
(x) 2907.322 (pandering sexually-oriented matter involving a minor or impaired person).
(y) 2907.323 (illegal use of a minor or impaired person in a nudity-oriented material or performance).
(z) 2909.22 (soliciting or providing support for an act of terrorism).
(aa) 2909.23 (making a terroristic threat).
(bb) 2909.24 (terrorism).
(cc) 2913.40 (medicaid fraud).
(dd) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(ee) Any other section of the Revised Code related to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct involving a federal or state-funded program other than section 2913.46 of the Revised Code (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(2) Tier II: ten-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a ten-year period of disqualification which ends ten years after the date the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 2903.04 (involuntary manslaughter).
(ii) 2903.041 (reckless homicide).
(iii) 2905.04 (child stealing, as it existed before July 1, 1996).
(iv) 2905.05 (child enticement).
(v) 2905.11 (extortion).
(vi) 2907.21 (compelling prostitution).
(vii) 2907.22 (promoting prostitution).
(viii) 2907.23 (enticing or soliciting another person to patronize a prostitute; procurement of a prostitute for another person to patronize).
(ix) 2909.02 (aggravated arson).
(x) 2909.03 (arson).
(xi) 2911.01 (aggravated robbery).
(xii) 2911.11 (aggravated burglary).
(xiii) 2913.46 (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits).
(xiv) 2913.48 (worker's compensation fraud).
(xv) 2913.49 (identity fraud).
(xvi) 2917.02 (aggravated riot).
(xvii) 2923.12 (carrying concealed weapons).
(xviii) 2923.122 (illegal conveyance or possession of deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone).
(xix) 2923.123 (illegal conveyance of a deadly weapon into a courthouse, possession or control of deadly weapon or ordnance into a courthouse).
(xx) 2923.13 (having weapons while under disability).
(xxi) 2923.161 (improperly discharging a firearm at or into a habitation, a school safety zone, or with the intent to cause harm or panic to persons in a school, in a school building, or at a school function or the evacuation of a school function).
(xxii) 2923.162 (discharge of firearm on or near prohibited premises).
(xxiii) 2923.21 (improperly furnishing firearms to a minor).
(xxiv) 2923.32 (engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity).
(xxv) 2923.42 (participating in a criminal gang).
(xxvi) 2925.02 (corrupting another with drugs).
(xxvii) 2925.03 (aggravated trafficking in drugs, trafficking in drugs, trafficking in marihuana [marijuana], trafficking in cocaine, trafficking in LSD, trafficking in heroin, trafficking in hashish, trafficking in a controlled substance analog, trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound).
(xxviii) 2925.04 (illegal manufacture of drugs, illegal cultivation of marijuana).
(xxix) 2925.041 (illegal assembly or possession of chemicals for the manufacture of drugs).
(xxx) 3716.11 (placing harmful or hazardous objects in food or confection).
(xxxi) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a fifteen-year period of disqualification (which ends fifteen years after the date the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation, or parole) if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a), (A)(3)(a), or (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(3) Tier III: seven-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a seven-year period of disqualification which ends seven years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 959.13 (cruelty to animals).
(ii) 959.131 (prohibitions concerning companion animals).
(iii) 2903.12 (aggravated assault).
(iv) 2903.21 (aggravated menacing).
(v) 2903.211 (menacing by stalking).
(vi) 2905.12 (coercion).
(vii) 2909.04 (disrupting public services).
(viii) 2911.02 (robbery).
(ix) 2911.12 (burglary, trespass in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present).
(x) 2913.47 (insurance fraud).
(xi) 2917.01 (inciting to violence).
(xii) 2917.03 (riot).
(xiii) 2917.31 (inducing panic).
(xiv) 2919.22 (endangering children).
(xv) 2919.25 (domestic violence).
(xvi) 2921.03 (intimidation).
(xvii) 2921.11 (perjury).
(xviii) 2921.13 (falsification, falsification in a theft offense, falsification to purchase a firearm, or falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, falsification regarding a removal proceeding).
(xix) 2921.34 (escape).
(xx) 2921.35 (aiding escape or resistance to lawful authority).
(xxi) 2921.36 (illegal conveyance of weapons, drugs, intoxicating liquor, or a communications device onto the grounds of a specified government facility, illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility).
(xxii) 2925.05 (aggravated funding of drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking, drug or marihuana [marijuana] trafficking).
(xxiii) 2925.06 (illegal administration of distribution of anabolic steroids).
(xxiv) 2925.24 (tampering with drugs).
(xxv) 2927.12 (ethnic intimidation).
(xxvi) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(3)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a ten-year period of disqualification (which ends ten years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole) if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed under paragraph (A)(3)(a) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed under paragraph (A)(3)(a) or (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(4) Tier IV: five-year period of disqualification:
(a) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a five-year period of disqualification which ends five years after the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(i) 2903.13 (assault).
(ii) 2903.22 (menacing).
(iii) 2907.09 (public indecency).
(iv) 2907.24 (soliciting, engaging in solicitation after a positive HIV test).
(v) 2907.25 (prostitution, engaging in prostitution after a positive HIV test).
(vi) 2907.33 (deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles).
(vii) 2911.13 (breaking and entering).
(viii) 2913.02 (theft).
(ix) 2913.03 (unauthorized use of a vehicle).
(x) 2913.04 (unauthorized use of property; unauthorized use of computer, cable, or telecommunication property; unauthorized use of the law enforcement automated database system; unauthorized use of the Ohio law enforcement gateway).
(xi) 2913.05 (telecommunications fraud).
(xii) 2913.11 (passing bad checks).
(xiii) 2913.21 (misuse of credit cards).
(xiv) 2913.31 (forgery, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards).
(xv) 2913.32 (criminal simulation).
(xvi) 2913.41 (defrauding a rental agency or hostelry).
(xvii) 2913.42 (tampering with records).
(xviii) 2913.43 (securing writings by deception).
(xix) 2913.44 (personating an officer).
(xx) 2913.441 (unlawful display of the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers).
(xxi) 2913.45 (defrauding creditors).
(xxii) 2913.51 (receiving stolen property).
(xxiii) 2919.12 (unlawful abortion).
(xxiv) 2919.121 (unlawful abortion (upon minor)).
(xxv) 2919.123 (unlawful distribution of an abortion-inducing drug).
(xxvi) 2919.124 (unlawful performance of a drug-induced abortion).
(xxvii) 2919.23 (interference with custody).
(xxviii) 2919.24 (contributing to the unruliness or delinquency of a child).
(xxix) 2921.12 (tampering with evidence).
(xxx) 2921.21 (compounding a crime).
(xxxi) 2921.24 (disclosure of confidential information).
(xxxii) 2921.32 (obstructing justice).
(xxxiii) 2921.321 (assaulting or harassing a police dog or horse, assaulting or harassing an assistance dog).
(xxxiv) 2921.51 (impersonation of peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, or BCII investigator).
(xxxv) 2925.09 (illegal administration, dispensing, distribution, manufacture, possession, selling, or using of any dangerous drug to or for livestock or any animal that is generally used for food or in the production of food, unless the drug is prescribed by a licensed veterinarian).
(xxxvi) 2925.11 (aggravated possession of drugs, possession of drugs, possession of cocaine, possession of LSD, possession of heroin, possession of hashish, possession of a controlled substance analog, possession of marihuana, [marijuana] possession of a fentanyl-related compound), unless a minor drug possession offense.
(xxxvii) 2925.13 (permitting drug abuse).
(xxxviii) 2925.22 (deception to obtain a dangerous drug).
(xxxix) 2925.23 (illegal processing of drug documents).
(xl) 2925.36 (illegal dispensing of drug samples).
(xli) 2925.55 (unlawful purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, underage purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, using false information to purchase a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, improper purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product).
(xlii) 2925.56 (unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product; unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to a minor; improper sale of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product).
(xliii) If related to another offense under paragraph (A)(4)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity).
(b) An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to a seven-year period of disqualification beginning on the date of full discharge from all imprisonment, probation, or parole if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses listed under paragraph (A)(4)(a) of this rule, and if the multiple disqualifying offenses are not the result of, or connected to, the same act.
(5) Tier V: no period of disqualification: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is subject to no period of disqualification if the applicant, employee, or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code or an offense of any existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code:
(a) 2925.11 (drug possession), but only if a minor drug possession offense.
(b) 2925.14 (illegal use, possession, dealing, selling to a juvenile, or advertising of drug paraphernalia).
(B) Grandfathered: For the purposes of this rule, an employee or subcontracted self-employed provider is grandfathered if the employee or self-employed provider would otherwise have been disqualified from a paid direct-care position because the employee or self-employed provider was convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction to, an offense(s) listed under paragraph (A)(4) of this rule, but only if all of the following have occurred:
(1) The responsible party hired the employee before January 1, 2013.
(2) The employee's conviction or guilty plea occurred before January 1, 2013.
(3) The responsible party considered the nature and seriousness of the offense(s), and attested in writing before April 1, 2013, to the character and fitness of the employee based upon the employee's demonstrated work performance.
(C) Certified: For the purposes of this rule, an applicant, employee, or subcontracted self-employed provider is certified if applicant's, employee's, or subcontracted self-employed provider's conviction of, plea of guilty to, or eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction to, a disqualifying offense is not one of the disqualifying offenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule and if the applicant, employee, or subcontracted self-employed provider was issued either of the following:
(1) Certificate of qualification for employment issued by a court of common pleas with competent jurisdiction pursuant to section 2953.25 of the Revised Code (A person may petition for a certificate of qualification for employment on "The Ohio Certificate of Qualification for Employment Online Petition Website" or https://www.drccqe.com/).
(2) Certificate of achievement and employability in a home and community-based service-related field, issued by the department of rehabilitation and corrections pursuant to section 2961.22 of the Revised Code.
(D) Pardoned: An applicant, employee, or self-employed provider is pardoned from any disqualifying offense listed or described in rule 173-9-06 of the Administrative Code under any of the following circumstances:
(1) The applicant or employee was granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code.
(2) The applicant or employee was granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States, if the law is substantially equivalent to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code.
(3) The conviction or guilty plea was set aside pursuant to law.
(4) The applicant or employee was granted a conditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code, and the conditions under which the pardon was granted have been satisfied.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 109:5-1-01
(A) Any person may obtain information concerning the criminal record of any other person maintained at the bureau of criminal identification and investigation by submitting the following:
(1) The complete name, current address, and other identifying characteristics of the individual whose records are sought;
(2) A complete set of fingerprints of the individual whose records are sought;
(3) The signed consent of the individual whose records are sought;
(4) A check, money order, or electronic payment in the amount of twenty-two dollars made payable to the "Treasurer of State of Ohio." Law enforcement officers as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code will be exempt from this fee.
(B) The foregoing shall be submitted to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in one of the following ways:
(1) Through the mail to the "Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation, P.O. Box 365, London, Ohio 43140."
(2) Electronically in a format designated by the superintendent.
(C) "Other identifying characteristics" means date of birth, social security number, height, weight, sex, race, and nationality.
Last updated July 6, 2023 at 11:18 AM
History
- Effective: November 20, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-17
(A) A regional program director or designee shall refer any of the following complaints to the SLTCO:
(1) A complaint posing a conflict of interest that cannot be remedied by reassigning the complaint to another ombudsman.
(2) A complaint the client wants the SLTCO to investigate.
(3) A complaint that is identified as frivolous, vexatious, or not made in good faith.
(4) A complaint made so long after the actual occurrence that it is no longer reasonable to investigate.
(5) A complaint for which an adequate investigation cannot be conducted because of insufficient funds, staff, expertise, or similar factor that could result in an inadequate investigation.
(6) A complaint for which an injunction is sought against a long-term care facility for a violation of the residents' bill of rights pursuant to sections 3721.10 to 3721.18 of the Revised Code.
(B) The SLTCO shall determine whether referred complaints warrant investigation. The SLTCO's determination in this matter is final.
(C) The SLTCO shall provide updates on the progress and disposition of a case to the referring regional program. For those complaints which the SLTCO determines do not warrant investigation, the SLTCO shall notify the client and/or complainant, if possible, and the regional program of the reasons to not investigate the complaint.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-18 Referrals of complaints to other agencies.
(A) All referrals made by an ombudsman shall contain the pertinent facts known to the ombudsman and be subject to the confidentiality and consent requirements in rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code. Any confidential information transmitted shall be marked as confidential.
(B)
(1) An ombudsman may report any violation of provider licensing laws or standards, or medicare/medicaid certification laws or standards, discovered during the course of complaint handling to the agency responsible for enforcing those laws or standards.
(2) An ombudsman may report any violations of professional licensing laws or standards discovered during the course of complaint handling to the appropriate professional board or organization.
(3) An ombudsman may report any violation of the provider agreement, medicaid discrimination laws, nursing home waiting list requirements, personal needs allowance laws, medicaid covered services provisions, or facility transfer plans discovered during the course of complaint handling to the department of medicaid.
(4) To the extent permitted by federal law, an ombudsman may report to an appropriate authority any suspected violation of state law discovered during the course of an advocacy visit or investigation.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-19 Case records and reporting of core services.
(A) Reporting:
(1) The complaint case record shall include only objective observations of items revealed during the course of the investigation, including the client's physical condition, behavior, conversations, and when appropriate to a complex complaint, any data required in ODIS.
(2) Reporting of advocacy and general-information services shall include only the objective information required in ODIS.
(3) Representatives shall report all activity in ODIS within six days after the activity is performed.
(B) Records retention: The regional programs shall use the same records-retention schedules as the SLTCO.
(C) Access:
(1) Access to complaint case records and other reports of ombudsman activity contained in ODIS is limited to an ombudsman.
(2) Information contained in any records, including complaint case records, maintained by the office or by court order. The SLTCO's discretion is subject to the considerations under 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(e)(2).
(3) An outside party may request a record (either in whole or in part), deposition, or testimony in an administrative or judicial proceeding by making a request to the office or the regional program responsible for the client's service area.
(4) The SLTCO or the SLTCO's designee shall secure consent by one of the means under paragraph (H) of rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code.
(5) The SLTCO or the designee of the SLTCO may consult with, and obtain services from, assigned legal counsel as needed.
(6) When an ombudsman advocates for a client at an administrative hearing (e.g., discharge hearing, medicare/medicaid appeal hearing) according to an agreed-upon action plan, the ombudsman may present records obtained during the course of investigation, including medical records, according to ombudsman laws, rules, and policies to protect confidentiality.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-20 Systems advocacy.
(A) Systems advocacy includes, but it not limited to, evaluating and making known concerns and issues regarding long-term care by doing all of the following:
(1) Prepare an annual report, according to 42 U.S.C. 3058g(h)(1), 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(g) and 1324.15(l)(1), and division (A)(8)(a) of section 173.17 of the Revised Code, that includes the information and findings regarding the types of problems experienced by consumers of long-term care, the complaints made by or on behalf of clients, and recommendations for policy, regulatory, and legislative changes to solve problems, resolve complaints, and improve the quality of care and life for consumers of long-term care.
(2) Monitor and analyze, according to 42 U.S.C. 3058g(a)(3)(G)(i) and 45 C.F.R. 1324.15(l)(2), the development and implementation of federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and governmental policies and actions regarding long-term care services in this state and recommending changes to officials that the office considers appropriate in these laws, regulations, and governmental policies and actions.
(3) Provide information and recommendations, according to 42 U.S.C. 3058(a)(3)(G)(ii), (h)(1)(F), (h)(2), and (h)(3) and 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(a)(7)(v), to public and private agencies, members of the general assembly, the media, and others regarding the problems and concerns of consumers of long-term care.
(B) 42 U.S.C. 3058g(a)(3)(G) requires the SLTCO to personally, or through ombudsman staff, analyze, comment on, and monitor the development and implementation of federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and other government policies and actions pertaining to long-term care providers and services and to the health, safety, welfare, and rights of consumers of long-term care, and to recommend any changes in such laws, regulations, and policies as the office determines appropriate.
(C) 42 U.S.C. 3058g(a)(3)(E), (a)(3)(G), (a)(3)(H)(ii), and (a)(3)(H)(iii); 45 C.F.R. 1324.11(e)(5); and 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(a)(7)(iv) to (a)(7)(vii), (a)(8), and (a)(9) allow the SLTCO, as head of the office, to independently make determinations and establish positions of the office without representing the determinations or positions of AGE or another state agency regarding the following:
(1) Recommend changes in federal, state, and local laws, regulations, policies, and actions pertaining to the health, safety, welfare, and rights of consumers of long-term care.
(2) Provide information and recommendations, when appropriate, to public and private agencies, legislators, the media, and other persons regarding the problems and concerns of consumers of long-term care. The SLTCO has discretion to disclose files, records, or other information of the office subject to the considerations under 45 C.F.R. 1324.13(e)(2).
(D) The SLTCO shall seek input from ombudsman staff and stakeholders. The SLTCO may consult with AGE and other stakeholders to make determinations and establish positions of the SLTCO by any of the following methods:
(1) Provide public forums to discuss concerns and problems relating to governmental action, inaction, or decisions that may adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of consumers of long-term care and their representatives by providers, public agencies and entities, and social service agencies.
(2) Conduct public hearings.
(3) Sponsor workshops and conferences.
(4) Hold meetings to obtain information about consumers of long-term care, discuss and publicize their needs, and advocate for solutions to their problems. Any information provided at a meeting that is a complaint is subject to the standards for consent under paragraph (H) of rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Promote the development of citizen organizations.
(E) Each ombudsman shall adhere to the determinations and positions of the office of the SLTCO as established by the SLTCO.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-21 Designated long-term care ombudsman regions.
(A) ODA publishes the list of region designations on its website.
(B) When requested by the SLTCO, nothing in this rule prohibits one regional program from providing ombudsman services in another region in the discretion of the SLTCO.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-23 Initial designation of regional long-term care ombudsman programs: process.
The SLTCO may designate a sponsoring agency as a new regional long-term care ombudsman program (regional program) only if the sponsoring agency complies with all the structural standards established in paragraph (B) of rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code and submits a complete ombudsman plan that is approved by the SLTCO in accordance with paragraph (D) rule of this rule.
The SLTCO may designate a temporary regional program as needed.
The SLTCO may designate a program as provisional on its initial designation.
(A) The SLTCO shall adhere to the following process when designating a sponsoring agency to serve as a new regional program:
(1) Issue a request for proposal (RFP), in consultation with the AAA, that does all of the following:
(a) Seeks sponsoring agencies willing to serve as the regional program.
(b) Identifies all the standards that a sponsoring agency needs to qualify for designation as a regional program.
(c) Establishes a deadline of thirty days after responding to the RFP for the sponsoring agency to provide the SLTCO with an ombudsman plan and documents to support the sponsoring agency's claim to meet the standards under paragraph (A)(1)(b) of this rule.
(2) Conduct an on-site visit to each of the eligible agencies responding to the RFP to verify the facts presented in each proposal and, at the SLTCO's discretion, include the AAA serving the region to participate in the on-site visit.
(3) Review the ombudsman plans of all proposals submitted and, at the SLTCO's discretion, consult with the AAA, then choose the agency that is most appropriate to serve as the regional program.
(4) Notify the AAA and responding agencies of the SLTCO's decision and the right of every agency not chosen to request a hearing to appeal the SLTCO's decision according to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(5) Notify the chosen agency of its designation year.
(B) Any sponsoring agency receiving initial or temporary designation as a regional program shall enter into a contract with the AAA or the SLTCO that, at a minimum, specifies the following:
(1) The regional program's geographical region.
(2) A requirement for the regional program to comply with all state and federal laws, regulations, policies and procedures governing the office of the SLTCO.
(3) A requirement for the regional program to comply with all AGE policies and procedures relating to contractors.
(4) A requirement for the regional program to comply with all of the reporting requirements in rule 173-14-19 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Summary and action plans:
(1) The SLTCO shall develop a summary and action plan in conjunction with the initial or temporary designation of each newly designated regional program to address areas of positive practices and concern and specify actions for the regional program to take to correct problem areas or any violation of the law or the structural standards that are discovered during the initial designation process.
(2) Once the summary and action plan has been issued, the regional program's director, AAA, or sponsoring agency involved in the designation process has fourteen calendar days to provide written or electronic comments to the SLTCO on the content of the summary and action plan. If these parties do not provide written or electronic comments to the SLTCO within fourteen calendar days, the summary and action plan takes effect on the fifteenth day. If these parties provide written or electronic comments to the SLTCO within fourteen calendar days, the SLTCO shall take the comments into consideration when finalizing the summary and action plan.
(3) The SLTCO shall provide the technical assistance or conduct the visits under the terms of the summary and action plan. If appropriate, the SLTCO may perform a program review to monitor the implementation of the summary and action plan.
(D) The sponsoring agency shall submit an ombudsman plan for regional programs seeking initial or temporary designation that addresses the following:
(1) Complaint handling, including, intake, screening, complaint investigation, complaint resolution, and follow-up activities.
(2) Provide a regular presence, including increasing awareness of the program and its functions to clients, sponsors, providers, social services, and the aging network.
(3) Public education and information, including increasing awareness of the program and long-term care issues.
(4) Identify systemic issues, monitor the development and implementation of policy by agencies that impact client's lives, coordinate and advocate with relevant agencies and the legislature, and document the progress of systemic reform.
(5) Representation at hearings and legal representation, including defining the types of hearings in which a regional program ombudsman provides representation and develop how the regional program ensures legal representation is provided to clients in other cases.
(6) Training ombudsman staff, including assuring that a volunteer ombudsman can pass the appropriate certification exam, and develop a continuing education program targeted to the needs of the ombudsman.
(7) Recruit, screen, retain, and supervise a volunteer ombudsman, including increase the number of volunteer hours and increase the capacity of volunteers to do such activities as complaint handling, establish presence, observe, monitor issues and providers, and provide information to the public.
(8) Fundraising, including identifying where additional resources are needed, and developing fundraising strategies to meet those needs.
(9) Program administration, including developing the ombudsman plan; increasing the skills of administrative staff in such areas as fund-raising, accounting methods, performance appraisals, supervising personnel, and similar administrative activities.
(10) Internal quality assurance process, including identifying problems in the delivery of core ombudsman services and developing objectives, action steps with timelines, and outcome standards for correcting the problems.
(11) Core services.
(12) Optional services, if approved by the SLTCO, including defining those services delivered by the regional program that are not core services and developing goals, objectives, action steps with timelines, and outcome standards for measuring the success and impact of the services.
(13) Each provision under paragraphs (A) and (B) of rule 173-14-24 of the Administrative Code.
(14) Other areas of program operation identified by the SLTCO.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-25 Designation service reviews and additional program reviews.
(A) The SLTCO shall conduct a designation service review (DSR) no less frequently than every two years to determine whether the regional program may continue its designation as a regional long-term care ombudsman program. In addition to the DSR, the SLTCO may conduct additional program reviews whenever service delivery problems occur within the region served by a regional program.
The SLTCO may invite a regional program's sponsoring agency to participate in the review of the regional program.
Additionally, an AAA may conduct a fiscal review of a regional program that is independent of the SLTCO's program review if the AAA informs the SLTCO of the results of its fiscal review.
(B) When conducting the DSR, the SLTCO shall review the following, and for an additional review, the SLTCO may review any of the following:
(1) The program's continued compliance with the structural standards established under rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The program's continued compliance with all applicable state and federal laws, regulations, policies, and procedures.
(3) The program's continued maintenance of program policies and procedures under rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code.
(4) A random selection of at least fifteen of the program's complaint case records to determine the quality of the program's complaint-handling efforts and to determine whether the program complies with the case handling protocol under rule 173-14-16 of the Administrative Code.
(5) The program's attainment of the outcomes and objectives under its current ombudsman plan.
(6) The program's performance on SLTCO-established quality measures.
(7) The program's advocacy and information service.
(C) The SLTCO shall have access to all necessary records including, but not limited to, governing board minutes, conflict of interest screening forms, quality assurance records, client satisfaction surveys, training records, and volunteer records.
(D) On completion of a DSR or additional program review, the SLTCO may develop and issue an action plan for quality (APQ) in conjunction with the regional program according to rule 173-14-23 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Within twenty business days after completing a DSR or additional program review, the SLTCO shall provide the regional program, the sponsoring agency, and the AAA having jurisdiction in the designated region with written notification of the results of the DSR or additional program review, including the APQ. The date of notification following a DSR shall begin the new designation period.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:57 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-26 Changes in a regional program's designation status; notice rights; and hearing requirements.
(A) The SLTCO may withdraw, or change to provisional, the designation of a regional program for cause. Cause may include any of the following:
(1) The regional program's failure to follow policies and procedures, or provide services, that comply with sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the Revised Code, this chapter, all relevant sections of the Older Americans Act, or other related federal laws regulating the activities of the office, the policies and procedures of the office, the service contract, or an approved ombudsman plan.
(2) The regional program's failure to meet structural standards in rule 173-14-22 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The development of an unremedied conflict of interest involving the regional program, its sponsoring agency, or an individual associated with either.
(4) The misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance of an ombudsman or agency employee.
(B) The SLTCO shall provide the regional program with a notice of provisional designation that includes the SLTCO's reason for the provisional designation, specifies the changes or corrections necessary for the program to come into compliance, and the deadline to come into compliance. A regional program may appeal the SLTCO's decision to provisionally designate the program according to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C) The SLTCO may withdraw the designation of a regional program when the scope and severity of the cause is of such a nature that corrections are not likely to be successfully implemented. The SLTCO may presume such failures when any of the following occurs:
(1) The cause is found to involve a disregard the requirements in paragraph (A) of this rule.
(2) The pattern of problems is repeated and correction is unlikely.
(3) Attempted corrections of problems by the regional program have not been successful.
(4) The regional program failed to implement the requirements of the notice of provisional designation.
(D) The SLTCO shall give the regional program notice of the decision to withdraw the regional program's designation that includes the SLTCO's reason for the withdrawal of the designation. The sponsoring agency may appeal the SLTCO's decision according to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(E) A regional program may voluntarily withdraw its designation as a regional long-term care ombudsman program by providing the SLTCO with a written notice of its intent ninety days before the date upon which the program expects the withdrawal of designation to take place.
(F) The sponsoring agency of a regional program that voluntarily withdraws its designation or that has had its designation withdrawn by the SLTCO shall surrender intact to the SLTCO all ombudsman case records; documentation of core services in ODIS according to rule 173-14-19 of the Administrative Code; the identification cards of each ombudsman; any equipment purchased with title III or title VII funds awarded under the Older Americans Act, the long-term care ombudsman state subsidy, bed fee monies; and the balance of any state, federal, or bed fee monies it has been allocated as a result of its designation as a regional ombudsman program on the effective date of the regional program's de-designation or voluntary withdrawal of designation, or as otherwise agreed to by the regional program and the SLTCO.
(G) The SLTCO shall ensure the continuation of ombudsman services in any designated region in which a regional program's designation was withdrawn voluntarily or by the SLTCO.
(H) Notice: The SLTCO shall notify a regional program's sponsoring agency of any change in the designation of its regional program and include all of the information required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(I) All appeal hearings are subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:58 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-28 Bed fee collection guidelines.
(A) The Ohio department of aging (AGE) shall collect an annual bed fee of six dollars for each bed maintained for resident use by each of the facilities listed in division (A) of section 173.26 of the Revised Code.
(B) Annually, AGE shall provide each of the facilities described in paragraph (A) of this rule with an invoice requesting payment of the bed fee. The invoice shall include all the following information:
(1) The time period covered by the invoice.
(2) The basis for calculating the amount owed by the facility.
(3) The deadline for receipt of payment, which shall be thirty days after the date indicated on the invoice.
(4) The available methods of payment, including the following:
(a) Paying through the invoice portal (https://payment.age.ohio.gov/).
(b) Mailing a check or money order to the address listed for payment on the invoice.
(5) The consequences of non-payment.
(C) Division (A) of section 173.26 of the Revised Code requires a facility that fails, within ninety days after the deadline for receipt of payment, to pay the bed fee to be assessed at two times the original invoiced amount.
(D) For purposes of section 131.02 of the Revised Code, AGE shall certify to the attorney general any non-payment within one hundred and twenty days after the mailing date on the invoice.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:41 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-14-29 Response to allegations about ombudsman performance.
(A) Any individual or organization may make a complaint about the action or inaction of an ombudsman.
(B) The SLTCO or the designated investigator shall provide each ombudsman with standard information about the process outlined in this rule.
(C) The office shall investigate and attempt to resolve complaints in the following order of responsibility:
(1) Either of the following:
(a) Regional ombudsman program director when the complaint is about an ombudsman affiliated with the respective regional program.
(b) Sponsoring agency director or SLTCO, as appropriate, when the complaint is about the regional program director.
(2) The SLTCO's designee.
(3) SLTCO.
(D) The protocol for investigation and resolution includes the following steps in the order determined to be appropriate by the investigator who responds to the complaint:
(1) Interview complainant to gather facts of the allegation.
(2) Interview witnesses identified by the complainant.
(3) Review documentation of the performance in question.
(4) Interview the ombudsman who is the subject of the complaint.
(5) Determine any remedial action needed, including but not limited to, additional education or supervision.
(6) Consult with the sponsoring agency and/or SLTCO staff.
(7) Document the outcome in the ombudsman's personnel file and any training or technical assistance provided in ODIS.
(8) Consider whether decertification is appropriate under rule 173-14-27 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated November 12, 2025 at 7:58 AM
History
- Effective: November 10, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-38 Medicaid-Funded Assisted Living Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-01 Assisted living program (medicaid-funded component): introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code. (See Chapter 173-51 of the Administrative Code for rules on the state-funded component of the assisted living program.)
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the program authorized under section 173.54 of the Revised Code that provides individuals enrolled in the program with the assisted living service under rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code and, in some cases, community transition under rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code, if the individuals reside in a residential care facility and would otherwise receive services in a nursing facility if the program was not available.
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Person-centered services plan" means the outline of services that a case manager authorizes a provider to provide to an individual, regardless of the funding source for those services. It includes the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:22 PM
History
- Effective: February 7, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.16
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Assisted living service" means either a basic service or memory care that promotes aging in an RCF by supporting the individual's independence, choice, and privacy.
(2) "Basic service" means all of the following:
(a) A service that includes the following:
(i) Personal care under rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code, which includes hands-on assistance, supervision, and/or cuing of ADLs, and IADLs.
(ii) Nursing, including the following:
(a) The initial and subsequent health assessments under rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Other activities included in rules 3701-16-09 and 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Coordinating three meals per day and snacks according to rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code with access to food according to rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) Coordinating the social, recreational, and leisure activities under rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code to promote community participation and integration, including non-medical transportation to services and resources in the community.
(b) A service that does not include the following:
(i) Housing.
(ii) Meals.
(iii) Twenty-four-hour skilled nursing care.
(iv) One-on-one supervision of an individual.
(3) "Census" means the total number of residents in an RCF on a given day and includes any resident who is temporarily absent from the RCF without being discharged.
(4) "Memory care" means a service that a provider provides in compliance with paragraph (D) of this rule to an individual that a practitioner assessed, then issued a documented diagnosis of any form of dementia.
(5) "Practitioner" means a health care provider engaging in activities authorized by the provider's license, certification, or registration.
(6) "Resident call system" has the same meaning as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Staff member" and "staff" have the same meanings as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Certification types: ODA certifies each provider for either of the following:
(1) The basic service.
(2) The basic service and memory care.
(C) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) RCF qualifications:
(a) Licensure: Only a provider who maintains a current, valid RCF license from ODH and maintains compliance with Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and Chapters 3701-13 and 3701-16 of the Administrative Code qualifies to provide this service.
(b) Public information: The provider shall display the following on its website:
(i) Whether the provider is currently certified by ODA to provide the basic service or both the basic service and memory care.
(ii) Whether the provider is currently accepting individuals who are enrolling in the assisted living program or mycare Ohio.
(c) Resident units: A resident unit qualifies for this service only if the unit meets all the following standards:
(i) Occupancy:
(a) The resident unit is a single-occupancy resident unit designated solely for the individual, except as permitted under paragraph (C)(2)(c)(i)(b) of this rule.
(b) The provider may allow an individual to share a single-occupancy resident unit only if all of the following conditions exist:
(i) The individual requests to share the individual's unit.
(ii) The individual shares the individual's unit with a person with whom the individual has an existing relationship.
(iii) ODA's designee verifies that the conditions of paragraphs (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(i) and (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(ii) of this rule are met and authorizes sharing the unit in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Lock: The resident unit has a lock that allows the individual to control access to the resident unit at all times, unless the individual's person-centered services plan indicates otherwise.
(iii) Bathroom: The resident unit includes a bathroom with a toilet, a sink, and a shower or bathtub, all of which are in working order.
(iv) Social space: The resident unit includes identifiable space, separate from the sleeping area, that provides seating for the individual and one or more visitors for socialization.
(d) Common areas: The provider shall provide common areas accessible to the individual, including a dining area (or areas) and an activity center (or centers). A multi-purpose common area may serve as both a dining area and an activity center.
(3) Staff availability: The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to comply with rule 3701-16-05 of the Administrative Code in a timely manner in response to individual's unpredictable care needs, supervisory needs, emotional needs, and reasonable requests for services through the resident call system twenty-four hours per day.
(4) Minors: No staff member under eighteen years of age qualifies to do any of the following:
(a) Assist with medication administration.
(b) Provide transportation.
(c) Provide personal care without on-site supervision, in accordance with rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Initial staff qualifications: Only a staff member who successfully completes training in the following subject areas qualifies to provide this service:
(a) Principles and philosophy of assisted living.
(b) The aging process.
(c) Cuing, prompting, and other means of effective communication.
(d) Common behaviors for cognitively-impaired individuals, behaviorally-impaired individuals, or other individuals and strategies to redirect or de-escalate those behaviors.
(e) Confidentiality.
(f) The person-centered planning process in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code, which includes supporting individuals' full access to the greater community.
(g) The individual's right to assume responsibility for decisions related to the individual's care.
(6) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each staff member providing this service successfully completes any training requirements in rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code and makes verification of successful completion of those requirements available to ODA or its designee upon request.
(7) Quarterly assessments: The provider's RN or LPN shall contact the individual at least quarterly to assess, and retain a record of, all of the following:
(a) The individual's satisfaction with the individual's activity plan and whether the activity plan continues to meet the individual's needs.
(b) Whether the individual's records demonstrate that the individual is receiving activities as ODA or its designee authorized them in the individual's person-centered service plan.
(c) Whether staff are providing personal care services to the individual in a manner that complies with rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Subcontracting: The provider may subcontract to provide one or more, but not all, of the activities listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule that ODA or its designee authorizes for the individual. The provider is responsible to assure that any activity provided by a sub-contractor complies with this chapter.
(D) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service and memory care:
(1) The provider is subject to the standards in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards:
(a) The provider displays a purpose statement on its website that explains the difference between the provider's basic service and its memory care, or only a memory care purpose statement if that is the exclusive service the provider offers.
(b) The provider designates each single-occupancy resident unit in paragraph (C)(2)(c) of this rule in which it plans to provide memory care as one of the following:
(i) A resident unit in a memory care section of the RCF. The provider may add a single-occupancy resident unit to an existing memory care section even if the resident unit is not next door to the existing section.
(ii) A resident unit in an RCF that provides only memory care.
(c) A staff member who successfully completed the training requirement in paragraph (D)(3) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code provides or arranges for at least three therapeutic, social, or recreational activities listed in rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code per day with consideration given to individuals' preferences and designed to meet individuals' needs.
(d) The provider ensures safe access to outdoor space for individuals.
(e) The provider assists each individual who makes a call through the resident call system in person in fewer than ten minutes after the individual initiates the call.
(3) Staff availability: The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards in addition to the requirements in paragraph (C)(3) of this rule:
(a) The provider has a sufficient number of RNs or LPNs on call or on site at all times for individuals receiving memory care.
(b) The provider maintains the appropriate direct-care staff-to-resident ratio below for its memory care:
(i) If providing memory care and the basic service at the same time, a ratio for the provider's memory care that is at least twenty per cent higher than the provider's ratio for its basic service.
(ii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is readily available to the provider, then a ratio that is at least twenty per cent higher than that average ratio.
(iii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is not readily available to the provider, then a ratio of at least one direct-care staff member for every ten individuals receiving memory care with at least one direct-care staff member on each floor of the RCF if the RCF provides memory care on multiple floors.
(4) Initial staff qualifications: A staff member qualifies to provide memory care without in-person supervision only if the staff member successfully completes training all of the following topics in addition to the topics listed under paragraph (C)(5) of this rule:
(a) Overview of dementia: symptoms, treatment approaches, and progression.
(b) Foundations of effective communication in dementia care.
(c) Common behavior challenges specific to dementia and recommended behavior management techniques.
(d) Current best practices in dementia care.
(e) Missing resident prevention and response.
(5) In-service training: A staff member continues to qualify to provide memory care only if the staff member successfully completes dementia care training when complying with paragraph (C)(6) of this rule.
(E) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) The unit of service as one day.
(b) The maximum-allowable rates for a unit of a unit of the basic service and a unit of memory care.
(c) Critical access rates.
(2) For the assisted living program, rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for a unit of service.
(3) Requirements to obtain the critical access rate for certified assisted living providers:
(a) A certified provider of the service, whether the basic service or memory care, that provided the service for one or more state fiscal years qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) At least an average of fifty per cent of the residents in the RCF were enrolled in medicaid during the preceding state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information based on the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(b) A certified provider of the assisted living service, whether the basic service or memory care, that has not provided the service for one or more state fiscal years and intends to provide the service for the duration of the state fiscal year in which the provider was initially certified, qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) The provider projects and attests that at least an average of fifty percent of the residents in the RCF will be enrolled in medicaid during the state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information for the period beginning with the provider's attestation date in paragraph (E)(3)(b)(i) of this rule through the remainder of the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(c) A certified provider who fails to meet all requirements under paragraph (E)(3)(a) or (E)(3)(b) of this rule at the end of the fiscal year may requalify for the critical access rate by meeting the requirement in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(i) of this rule and satisfying the requirements in paragraph (E)(3)(a) of this rule.
(d) The critical access rate is payable for a qualifying provider for a resident receiving the basic service for the duration of the state fiscal year without adjustment. This rate is not payable for a resident also receiving memory care.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.17
(A) "Community transition" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of community transition:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code, the provider is subject to the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code rather than the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the assisted living program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
(2) For the PASSPORT program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the PASSPORT program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160 1 06.1 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-33
(A) Designation of an authorized representative.
(1) ) An individual may designate any person or organization to serve as that individual's authorized representative. Any person serving as an authorized representative must be at least eighteen years or older.
(2) Authority for a person or organization to act on behalf of the individual accorded under state law, including but not limited to, a court order establishing legal guardianship, must be treated as a written designation by the individual of authorized representation.
(3) The designation of an authorized representative must be in writing, and must identify what duties the individual is authorizing the representative to perform.
(4) If the designated authorized representative is unwilling or unable to accept the responsibility of being an authorized representative, the authorized representative must inform the administrative agency and the individual of the refusal or withdrawal.
(B) The authorized representative:
(1) Must present proper identification, if requested by the administrative agency, prior to the disclosure of medicaid information to the authorized representative.
(2) Must agree to maintain or be legally bound to maintain the confidentiality of any information regarding the individual provided by the administrative agency.
(3) Will receive copies of notices and correspondence sent to the individual by the administrative agency.
(4) Stands in the place of the individual. Any responsibility of the individual is a responsibility of the authorized representative. Any action taken by the authorized representative or failure to act will be accepted as the action or lack of action of the individual.
(5) Shares all responsibilities set out in rule 5160:1-2-08 of the Administrative Code.
(C) The administrative agency may contact the individual to clarify or verify information provided by an authorized representative if the authorized representative provides information that seems contradictory, unclear, or unrealistic.
(D) The administrative agency may choose not to contact the authorized representative if the administrative agency believes that the authorized representative might endanger the individual in a situation of domestic violence, abuse, or neglect in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.502(g)(5) (as in effect October 1, 2015).
(E) If the authorized representative is a provider or staff member or volunteer of an organization, the authorized representative must affirm that he or she will adhere to the regulations in 42 C.F.R. Part 431 Subpart F (as in effect October 1, 2015), 42 C.F.R. 447.10 (as in effect October 1, 2015), 45 C.F.R. 155.260(f) (as in effect October 1, 2015), as well as other relevant state and federal laws concerning conflicts of interest and confidentiality of information.
(F) The power to act as authorized representative is valid until the individual notifies the administrative agency that the authorized representative is no longer authorized to act on his or her behalf, or the authorized representative informs the administrative agency the he or she no longer is acting in such capacity, or there is a change in the legal authority upon which the authorized representative's authority was based. Such notice should include the applicant or authorized representative's signature as appropriate.
(G) Assistance from persons or organizations who are not authorized representatives.
(1) A person or organization may accompany and assist an individual with portions of the application, verification, or redetermination process without being an individual's authorized representative.
(2) The administrative agency must not reveal confidential information or send notices or correspondence to a person or organization who is assisting an individual, unless the person or organization is designated as an authorized representative.
(3) A person or organization who is assisting an individual must provide accurate information to the administrative agency, to the best of his or her knowledge, regardless of whether the person or organization is an authorized representative.
History
- Effective: January 13, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-1-01
(A) This rule contains definitions generally used in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(B) Definitions.
(1) "Abuse" means any action by an individual or entity that results in unnecessary costs to the medical assistance program in accordance with 42 C.F.R 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(2) "Administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and/or an agent of ODM authorized to determine eligibility for a medical assistance program.
(3) "Advance notice of adverse action" means a written notice of the administrative agency's intent to discontinue or suspend medical assistance, reduce the level of benefits or covered services, or increase the amount of an individual's premium or patient liability, sent no less than fifteen calendar days prior to the date of the proposed action in accordance with rules 5101:6-2-04 and 5101:6-2-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Applicant" means an individual who is seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself through an application submission or a transfer from another agency or insurance affordability program in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.4 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(5) "Approve" or "approval" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(6) "Assets" means all income and resources of the individual and of the individual's spouse. This includes any income or resources the individual or the individual's spouse is entitled to, but does not receive, because of an action taken to avoid receipt of the asset by:
(a) The individual or the individual's spouse; or
(b) A person, including a court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place of, or on behalf of, the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(c) Any person, including any court or administrative body, acting at the direction, or upon the request, of the individual or the individual's spouse.
(7) "Assignment" means an individual eligible for medical assistance has transferred his or her right, or the rights of any other individual for whom he or she can legally make an assignment, to collect and retain third-party and/or medical support payments to ODM up to the amount of medical services paid under the medicaid program.
(8) "Authorized representative" means a person, who is at least eighteen years of age, or a legal entity who stands in place of the individual. Actions or failures of an authorized representative will be accepted as the action or failure of the individual. When an individual has designated an authorized representative, all references to the individual's responsibilities include the authorized representative in accordance with rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Base eligibility" means the individual meets all of the eligibility requirements for at least one category of medical assistance described in Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, or 5160:1-5 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Caretaker relative" means a relative of a dependent child by blood, adoption, or marriage with whom the child is living, who assumes primary responsibility for the child's care (as may, but is not required to, be indicated by claiming the child as a tax dependent for federal income tax purposes), and who is one of the following:
(a) The child's father, mother, brother, sister, stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, or stepsister; or
(b) The child's grandfather, grandmother, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece, including such relatives with the prefix great, great-great, grand, or great-grand; or
(c) The child's first cousin or first cousin once removed; or
(d) The spouse of such parent or relative, even after the marriage is terminated by death or divorce.
(11) "Case record" means electronic or paper documents and information used to determine, redetermine, or renew an individual's eligibility for medical assistance.
(12) "Creditable insurance" or "creditable coverage" means health insurance coverage as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-3(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(a) This includes:
(i) A group health plan; or
(ii) Health insurance coverage; or
(iii) Medicare part A, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395c to 1395i-5 (as in effect October 1, 2022) or part B, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395j to 1395w-6 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(iv) Coverage under medicaid, as set forth in Title XIX of the Social Security Act, other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under the pediatric vaccine program set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1396s (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(v) Armed forces health insurance as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization; or
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool; or
(viii) A federal employee health plan offered under 5 U.S.C. 8901 to 8992 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(ix) A public health plan; or
(x) A peace corps volunteer health benefit plan under section 22 U.S.C. 2504 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(b) Creditable insurance does not include:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance; or
(ii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; or
(iii) Workers' compensation or similar insurance; or
(iv) Automobile medical payment insurance; or
(v) Credit insurance which pays off existing debts in the event of death, disability, or unemployment; or
(vi) Coverage for employment onsite medical clinics; or
(vii) Other similar insurance coverage under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits; or
(viii) Limited-scope dental or vision benefits; or
(ix) Benefits for long-term care, nursing facility care, home health care, or community-based care; or
(x) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; or
(xi) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if purchased separately; or
(xii) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1395ss (as in effect October 1, 2022), coverage supplemental to the coverage provided to military or former military personnel under 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022), and similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan; or
(xiii) Coverage through a medical cost-sharing program, including a health care cost-sharing ministry.
(13) "Deduction" means a verifiable amount the individual pays for an expense. Garnishments or liens placed against earned or unearned income of an individual are not considered a deduction, regardless of the reason for the garnishment or lien.
(14) "Deny" or "denial" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is not eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(15) "Dependent child" means a person younger than age eighteen living with a parent or caretaker relative.
(16) "Discontinue" or "discontinuance" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is no longer eligible, or has failed to cooperate with verification of eligibility, for one or more categories of medical assistance currently being received by that individual, resulting in a written notice of the administrative agency's intention to end coverage under that category and providing notice of hearing rights in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.917 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(17) "Disregard" means the amount subtracted from gross, non-excluded income in the medical assistance budget calculation.
(18) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic and treatment" (EPSDT) means screening, vision, dental, and hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d (as in effect October 1, 2022) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services, whether or not such services are covered under the medicaid state plan. Healthchek is Ohio's EPSDT program.
(19) "Earned income" means income in cash or in-kind received as payment for services performed as an employee or as a self-employed individual. Earned income includes but is not limited to wages, salary, or commissions from which state or federal income taxes are paid or withheld.
(20) "Electronic equivalent" means an electronic version of an Ohio department of job family services (ODJFS) or ODM form or application which has not been modified in any way, other than format, prior to completion and submission of that form to the administrative agency. The administrative agency is not required to accept forms that are altered.
(21) "Electronic protected health information" (ePHI) means any protected health information (PHI) that is maintained or transmitted in electronic form, regardless of the format.
(22) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Encumbrance" means a claim, lien, charge, or liability attached to and binding on an identified piece of real or personal property.
(24) "Equity value" means the fair market value of a resource minus any encumbrance.
(25) "Erroneous payment" means a medicaid reimbursement made for an individual who was ineligible at the time services were received, regardless of the presence of fraud or abuse.
(26) "Excluded income" means income that state or federal law prohibits from consideration in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(27) "Fair market value" means, unless otherwise stated, the going price, at the time of the transfer or contract of sale, for which real or personal property can reasonably be expected to sell on the open market in the relevant geographic area. The appraised value of real property is determined by the county auditor and may be used to establish fair market value.
(28) "Family size" means the number of persons counted as members of an individual's medicaid household.
(29) "Federal adoption assistance" (AA) means the Title IV-E subsidy program as defined by the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (Pub. L. No. 96-272).
(30) "Federal benefit rate" (FBR) means the supplemental security income (SSI) current payment standard published annually by the social security administration (SSA).
(31) "Federal foster care maintenance" (FCM) means the Title IV-E program, as described in rule 5101:2-47-01 of the Administrative Code.
(32) "Federal kinship guardianship assistance program" (KGAP) means the Title IV-E program to provide payments to relatives, as defined in section 5101.141 of the Revised Code, who have assumed legal custody or guardianship of eligible children whom they have cared for as foster parents for a minimum of six consecutive months and for whom there is a valid KGAP or KGAP C21 agreement.
(33) "Federal means-tested public benefit" means a benefit in which eligibility for the benefit or the amount of the benefit, or both, is determined on the basis of income or resources of the individual seeking the benefit. Medicaid, cash assistance, and food assistance are federal means-tested public benefits, but certain other benefits listed in 8 U.S.C. 1613(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022) are not considered means-tested.
(34) "Federal poverty level" (FPL) means a measure of income determined annually by the department of health and human services (HHS). The FPL is designed to provide a baseline for determining financial eligibility for federal programs and benefits.
(35) "Good cause" means circumstances that reasonably prevent an individual from cooperating with the administrative agency in the eligibility determination process. Factors relevant to good cause include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, riots or civil unrest, death or serious illness of the individual or a member of his/her immediate family, or the physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations of the individual.
(36) "Gross income" means income prior to any deductions or disregards, with the exception of self-employment gross countable income.
(37) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996" (HIPAA) means a federal law to protect patient privacy, to protect security of electronic medical records, to prescribe methods and formats for exchange of electronic medical information, and to uniformly identify providers.
(38) "Immigrant" means a person who comes to the United States (U.S.) with plans to live in the country permanently. This term includes, but is not limited to, an individual who is a refugee, asylee, parolee, or other entrant regardless of whether he or she is residing in the U.S. legally.
(39) "Income" means cash, in-kind income as defined in paragraph (B)(43) of this rule, or something of value which is received, available, and attributable to an individual. Income includes the receipt of any item which can be applied, either directly or by sale or conversion, to meet the needs of an individual.
(40) "Income and eligibility verification system" (IEVS) means the electronic system that shares income and asset information among the social security administration (SSA), internal revenue service (IRS), state wage information collection agency (SWICA), agencies administering unemployment compensation (UC) benefits, and the administrative agency.
(41) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance.
(42) "Individually identifiable health information" means information that is a subset of health information that includes demographic information collected from an individual and:
(a) Is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and
(b) Relates to the past, present, or future physical condition or mental health condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual and either:
(i) Identifies the individual; or
(ii) There is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
(43) "In-kind income" means any benefit received other than cash such as food, shelter, or something that can be used to get food or shelter.
(44) "Institution for mental diseases" (IMD) means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than sixteen beds which primarily provides diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, including medical attention, nursing care, and related services.
(a) A facility is an IMD, whether or not it is licensed as such, if it is operated primarily for the care and treatment of individuals with mental diseases.
(b) An institution for persons with cognitive impairments or other developmental disabilities is not an IMD.
(45) "Lawfully residing" means a qualified non-citizen immigration status granted to an individual allowing him or her to live and/or work in the United States.
(46) "Legal custodian" means a person who has legal rights to have physical care and control of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(47) "Legal guardian" means any person, association, or corporation appointed by a probate court to exercise care and management of an individual, his or her estate, or both, as defined in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(48) "Limited English proficiency" (LEP) means the inability of any person or group of persons to speak, read, write, or understand the English language at a level that allows them to meaningfully communicate with the administrative agency.
(49) "Liquid resource" means cash or property immediately convertible to cash.
(50) "Lump-sum" means a non-recurring payment received in a single amount, as opposed to smaller payments over time.
(51) "Managed care organization" (MCO) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(52) "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities" (MBIWD) as set forth in rule 5160:1-5-03 of the Administrative Code, is a category of medical assistance that enables workers with disabilities to earn income and have resources, not to exceed the limits established by the state, without the risk of losing health care coverage.
(53) "Medicaid eligibility fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in an unauthorized benefit to himself, herself, or some other person in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022). It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or state law.
(54) "Medicaid household" means a group of individuals, defined in relationship to one specific medical assistance applicant or recipient, who impact the applicant's or recipient's family size, household income, or both.
(55) "Medical assistance" includes all programs administered by the state medicaid administrative agency.
(56) "Medical support" means an order by a court to provide medical coverage.
(57) "Medical verification of pregnancy" means a written statement signed by a licensed medical professional verifying pregnancy and includes the expected date of delivery and, if more than one, the expected number of fetuses.
(58) "Minor child" means a person younger than age eighteen.
(59) "Modified adjusted gross income" (MAGI or MAGI-based income) means the income methodology used for determining medical assistance eligibility for children through age eighteen, parents, caretaker relatives, pregnant women, and adults age nineteen through sixty-four.
(60) "Non-applicant" means a person who is not seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself but is included in an applicant's or recipient's medicaid household to determine eligibility for such applicant or recipient.
(61) "Non-citizen emergency medical assistance" (NCEMA) as established in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code, means time-limited coverage of an emergency medical condition for certain individuals who do not meet the citizenship or satisfactory immigration status requirements.
(62) "Non-cooperation" or "failure to cooperate" means failure by an individual to present required verification, or to explain why it is not possible to present the verification, after being notified the verification was required for eligibility determination.
(63) "Non-excluded income" means income (earned or unearned) that is used in the eligibility determination for medical assistance.
(64) "Outstationing" means the federal requirement as described in 42 C.F.R. 435.904 (as in effect October 1, 2022) that administrative agencies provide opportunities for low-income pregnant women and children to apply for medical assistance at locations other than the local county department of job and family services.
(65) "Parent" means a natural, adoptive, or step-parent.
(66) "Personal property" means any property that is not real property, as defined in paragraph (B)(75) of this rule. Personal property includes, but is not limited to, such things as cash, jewelry, household goods, tools, life insurance policies, automobiles, and promissory notes.
(67) "Postpartum period" means the maximum permitted period of coverage as described in 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(68) "Pre-termination review" (PTR) means a review of eligibility criteria completed prior to each discontinuance of medical assistance, to determine whether an individual is eligible for any other category of medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.916(f)(1) (as in effect October 1, 2022). Home and community-based services (HCBS), as defined in rule 5160:1-6-01.1 of the Administrative Code, the specialized recovery services (SRS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-07 of the Administrative Code, or both will be explored as part of the PTR process when:
(a) The individual or his or her authorized representative has requested HCBS or SRS; or
(b) The individual's case record contains information indicating that he or she may be eligible for or in need of HCBS or SRS. Receipt of SSI, social security disability insurance (SSDI), or any other income type resulting from an individual's disability is not sufficient, by itself, to demonstrate potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS. There must be additional factors in the case record that indicate the individual's potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS.
(69) "Private child placing agency" (PCPA) means any association that is certified to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for foster care or adoption, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(70) "Protected health information" (PHI) means individually identifiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic media, or transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.
(71) "Public children services agency" (PCSA) means an entity that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function for a county, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(72) "Public institution" means an institution, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.1010 (as in effect October 1, 2022), that is the responsibility of a governmental unit or over which a governmental unit exercises administrative control, such as a state or federal prison, local jail, detention facility, or other penal setting. Public institution does not include a medical institution, an intermediate care facility, a publicly operated community residence that serves no more than sixteen residents, or a child care institution.
(73) "Qualified entity" means the source of eligibility determinations for the presumptive eligibility program and is limited to the following:
(a) A county department of job and family services (CDJFS); or
(b) A hospital, the Ohio department of rehabilitation and correction (DRC), or the Ohio department of youth services (DYS); or
(c) A federally qualified health center (FQHC) or an FQHC look-alike that meets the requirements described in Chapter 5160-28 of the Administrative Code; or
(d) A local health department, a special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) clinic, or other entity as designated by the director.
(74) "Recipient" means an individual who has been determined eligible and is currently receiving medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(75) "Real property" means land, including buildings or immovable objects attached permanently to the land.
(76) "Refugee" means a person who flees his or her country due to persecution or a well-founded fear of persecution because of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a social group and is admitted to the United States under Section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1157 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(77) "Redetermination" means acting upon new or changed information received after an individual's eligibility has been determined but prior to the regularly scheduled annual renewal.
(a) The administrative agency shall only redetermine eligibility using the new or changed information. All other factors of eligibility not affected by the new or changed information are presumed unchanged.
(b) The original renewal date is not changed when eligibility has been redetermined, unless the administrative agency has sufficient information regarding all eligibility factors to renew eligibility without requesting additional information from the individual.
(78) "Renew" or "renewal" means a review of eligibility factors to determine whether the individual continues to meet all of the criteria of a medical assistance category. A renewal is performed annually.
(79) "Reporting" means notifying the administrative agency of any changes that may affect an individual's eligibility for medical assistance. Reporting changes and providing verifications is the responsibility of any individual, person, or entity who has a legal or financial responsibility for, or who stands in the place of, an individual, including:
(a) The individual; and
(b) The individual's spouse, including a community spouse; and
(c) The individual's parent, legal custodian, legal guardian, or caretaker relative; and
(d) The individual's authorized representative.
(80) "Residence" means the place the individual considers his or her established or principal home and to which, if absent, he or she intends to return.
(81) "Residential care facility" (RCF) means a home that provides either of the following as described in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code:
(a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; or
(b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(82) "Resources" means cash, funds held within a financial institution, investments, personal property, and real property an individual and/or the individual's spouse has an ownership interest in, has the legal ability to access in order to convert to cash, and is not legally prohibited from using for support and maintenance.
(83) "Safeguarding" means security measures taken to ensure that the information of individuals applying for or receiving medical assistance is protected against unauthorized inspection, disclosure, or use. Safeguarding also refers to the restriction on the use, or disclosure, of individual information including federal tax information (FTI), any protected health information (PHI), or other confidential information used in the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code.
(84) "Self-attestation" or "self-declaration" means a statement of factual information made by an individual.
(85) "Self-Employment gross countable income" means the income from a business minus the expenses directly related to producing the goods or services, and without which the goods or services could not be produced.
(a) When the individual has filed taxes for the previous year, use all tax forms that were filed with the internal revenue service (IRS) to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income.
(b) When the individual has not filed taxes for the previous year, the following may be used to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income:
(i) Business records including receipts for the costs of doing business; or
(ii) Estimate of anticipated income and expenses.
(86) "Spouse" means a person who is legally married to another under Ohio law.
(87) "State adoption assistance" means the state-only adoption subsidy program as described in rule 5101:2-44-03 of the Administrative Code.
(88) "State foster care maintenance" means an entitlement for financial assistance for state-only foster care services as described in Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(89) "Support Services" means non-medical services offered or provided by the administrative agency to assist the individual and may include arranging or providing transportation, making medical appointments, accompanying the individual to medical appointments, and making referrals to community and other social services to be coordinated with the individual's medicaid-contracted managed care organization (MCO), where applicable.
(90) "Suspend" or "suspended" means the temporary discontinuance of eligibility.
(91) "Temporary absence" means that an individual is considered not to have changed residence and intends to return.
(a) An individual is considered to be temporarily absent with no time limit when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The location of the absent individual is known; and
(ii) There is a definite plan for the return of the absent individual to the residence; and
(iii) The absent individual lived in the residence immediately prior to the absence, except for individuals described in paragraph (C)(1)(h) of rule 5160:1-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Child(ren) removed by the PCSA are considered temporarily absent as long as the reunification requirements specified in the reunification plan are met.
(92) "Terminate" or "terminated" has the same meaning as "discontinue" or "discontinuance" as defined in paragraph (B)(16) of this rule.
(93) "Unearned income" means all income that is not earned income as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule.
(94) "United States (U.S.)" and "state(s)" mean all fifty U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, Swain's Island, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(95) "United States citizen or national" means any individual who is:
(a) A citizen or national through birth or collective naturalization as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part I (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(b) A naturalized citizen or national as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part II (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(96) "Verification" means a document, statement, electronic validation, or other type of information provided by an individual or by a third party to confirm statements made by the individual regarding any requirement for eligibility for medical assistance. A verification document or written statement may be an original, photocopy, facsimile (fax), or electronic version of the original, unless otherwise stated.
Last updated June 27, 2025 at 12:22 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-02
(A) Person-centered planning process.
Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) will lead the person-centered planning process where possible. The individual's authorized representative should have a participatory role, as needed, and as defined by the individual, unless Ohio law confers decision-making authority to the legal representative. All references to individuals include the role of the individual's authorized representative. In addition to being led by the individual receiving services and supports, the person-centered planning process will:
(1) Include a team of people chosen by the individual.
(2) Provide necessary information and support to ensure that the individual directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions.
(3) Be timely and occur at times and locations of convenience to the individual.
(4) Reflect cultural considerations of the individual. The process will be conducted by providing information in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited English proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Include strategies for solving conflict or disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants.
(6) Ensure that providers of HCBS for the individual, or those who have an interest in or are employed by a provider of HCBS for the individual will not provide case management, provider oversight, or develop the person-centered services plan.
(7) Offer informed choices to the individual regarding the services and supports he or she receives and from whom.
(8) Include a method for the individual to request updates to the person-centered services plan as needed. The individual may request a person-centered services plan review at any time.
(B) Person-centered services plan.
(1) The person-centered services plan describes the person-centered goals, objectives and interventions selected by the individual and team to support him or her in his or her community of choice. The person-centered services plan addresses the assessed needs of the individual by identifying medically-necessary services, natural supports, medical and professional staff, and community resources. The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify the setting in which the individual resides is chosen by the individual and document the alternative home and community-based settings that were considered by the individual.
(b) Reflect the individual's strengths.
(c) Reflect the individual's preferences.
(d) Reflect clinical and support needs as identified through the assessment process.
(e) Include the individual's identified goals and desired outcomes.
(f) Identify the services and supports (paid and unpaid) that will assist the individual to achieve identified goals, and the providers of those services and supports, including natural supports and those services the individual elects to self-direct. This includes all services and supports provided through private insurance, medicare, medicaid state plan, and waiver services.
(g) Address any risk factors and measures in place to minimize them, when needed.
(h) Include back-up plans that meet the needs of the individual.
(i) Reflect that the setting chosen by the individual is integrated in, and supports the full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as people not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(2) The person-centered services plan will document that any modification of the additional conditions for provider-owned or controlled residential settings set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code is supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the person-centered services plan. In these cases, the person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify a specific and individualized assessed need;
(b) Document the positive interventions and supports used prior to any modifications to the person-centered services plan;
(c) Document less intrusive methods of meeting the need that have been attempted but were unsuccessful;
(d) Include a clear description of the condition that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Include a regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the modification;
(f) Include established time limits for periodic reviews to determine if the modification is still necessary or can be terminated;
(g) Include informed consent of the individual; and
(h) Include an assurance that interventions and supports will not cause any harm to the individual.
(3) The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Be understandable to the individual receiving services and supports, and the people important in supporting him or her. At a minimum, it will be written in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited english proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) Identify the person and/or entity responsible for monitoring the plan.
(c) Be finalized and agreed to, with the informed consent of the individual in writing, and signed by all people and providers responsible for its implementation. Acceptable signatures include, but are not limited to a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. Any accommodations to the individual's or authorized representative's signature will be documented on the plan.
(d) Be distributed to the individual and other people involved in the plan.
(e) Prevent the provision of unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(f) Be reviewed and revised upon reassessment of functional need as required by 42 CFR 441.365(e) (as in effect on October 1, 2023), at least every twelve months, when the individual experiences a significant change, or at the request of the individual.
(C) Documentation standards.
(1) Documentation standards apply to entities delegated to perform assessments and care coordination activities for nursing facility-based waiver programs. Assessments and care coordination activities include in-person visits, telephone conversations, or email exchanges.
(2) Documentation for each assessment and care coordination activity will include the following:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Name and relationship to the individual for all that participate.
(c) Date of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(d) Location of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(e) Type of assessment or care coordination activity.
(f) Detailed description of the assessment or care coordination activity, including the reason for the activity, actions completed, outcome and next steps.
(3) Documentation of all assessments and care coordination activities will be:
(a) Written in a manner that is objective, accurate, and understandable to the individual as described in paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) Completed within three business days of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(c) Accessible to ODM in the system designated by ODM.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:51 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-02 Assisted living program (medicaid-funded component): eligibility requirements for individuals.
A person is eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program only if the person meets the eligibility requirements under rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:07 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-33-03
(A) The purpose of this rule is to outline the requirements that must be met for an individual to be eligible to enroll in the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program.
(B) To be eligible for the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet all of the following:
(1) Be eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-3 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Have an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code. If the individual requires skilled nursing care beyond supervision of special diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, it must be provided in accordance with rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Be age twenty-one years old or older at the time of enrollment.
(4) Participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Have the ability to make room and board payments calculated at the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit level minus fifty dollars. Providers shall not charge or collect room and board payments from individuals in excess of the room and board payment calculated in accordance with this paragraph. In the event an individual does not have sufficient personal income:
(a) An individual may arrange for informal supports to provide a supplemental payment to the provider in order to meet room and board requirements;
(i) The supplemental payment shall represent no more than the difference between the individual's personal income and the maximum room and board payment established in paragraph (B)(5) of this rule.
(ii) The amount of the supplemental payment shall not be considered when calculating the individual's patient liability as described in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) A provider may elect to accept a reduced room and board rate.
(6) Have health and safety related needs met, as determined by the Ohio department of aging's (ODA) designee.
(C) The individual must reside in a residential care facility (RCF) licensed by the Ohio department of health. At the time of initial and continued enrollment, the individual must reside in a resident unit that meets the qualifications in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code and possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet any of the eligibility requirements identified in this rule, the individual shall be denied or disenrolled from the assisted living HCBS waiver. In such instances, the individual shall be notified of his or her hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 7, 2023 at 8:18 AM
History
- Effective: September 7, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-03 Assisted living program (medicaid-funded component): enrollment and reassessment of individuals.
(A) Initial contact: An individual may initially contact either ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program. The two agencies coordinate processing applications for enrollment as follows:
(1) If the individual makes initial contact with ODM's administrative agency, then ODM's administrative agency shall help the individual to apply and process the applications for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program. If ODM's administrative agency notifies ODA's designee that the individual meets all financial eligibility requirements, then ODA's designee shall initiate contact with the individual to conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If the individual makes initial contact with ODA's designee, then ODA's designee shall help the individual apply for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program and conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) After the individual applies for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, ODA or its designee shall notify the individual of the existence of the state-funded component of the assisted living program in Chapter 173-51 of the Administrative Code and offer the individual an opportunity to apply for enrollment in the state-funded component of the program.
(B) Denial: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code, the following responsibilities apply:
(1) If ODM's administrative agency determines the individual does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODA's designee and notify individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all non-financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODM's administrative agency and, in turn, ODM's administrative agency shall notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Enrollment: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual meets all eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program under rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code, then ODA's designee shall calculate the individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date according to paragraph (C)(1) of this rule and enroll the individual according to paragraph (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this rule.
(1) Medicaid waiver program enrollment date:
(a) The individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date is the latest of the following dates:
(i) The individual's basic medicaid effective date.
(ii) The date the individual meets all level of care requirements to participate in the medicaid waiver program.
(iii) The date the individual met all medicaid waiver program requirements listed in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) The date ODA's designee approved the individual's person-centered services plan with authorization for at least one medicaid waiver service.
(v) The date the individual began residing in an ODA-certified provider's RCF in a resident unit that complies with rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program does not pay for any service provided to an individual before ODA's designee establishes the medicaid waiver program enrollment date according to paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule.
(c) The individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program may differ from the basic medicaid effective date.
(2) Available slot: ODA's designee shall enroll the individual in the program without placing the individual on the unified waiting list if all the following conditions exist:
(a) A waiver slot in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is available.
(b) ODA's designee established the individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date.
(c) The individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements for the program.
(d) The individual continues to want to enroll in the program.
(3) No available slot: If a waiver slot is not available in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, ODA's designee may enroll the eligible individual when a waiver slot becomes available by one of the following two means:
(a) Unified waiting list: ODA's designee shall place the individual on the unified waiting list according to rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code, unless the individual qualifies for the home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, as addressed in paragraph (C)(3)(b) of this rule.
(b) Home first: If an individual meets all requirements for the home first component of the assisted living program in section 173.542 of the Revised Code, ODA's designee shall enroll the individual before enrolling any individual from the unified waiting list.
(D) Reassessment: ODA's designee shall reassess each individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program no less often than one time before each anniversary date of enrollment. After ODA's designee conducts each reassessment, if the individual continues to qualify for the medicaid-funded component of the program, the individual may decide if the individual wishes to remain in the program by signing an ODA-approved enrollment agreement as a condition of continued enrollment. During an emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, ODA's designee may collect the individual's handwritten or electronic signature on the enrollment agreement on a date later than the date the individual agrees to continue in the program, but no later than the next reassessment of the individual.
(E) An authorized representative may represent an individual in the enrollment and reassessment processes.
(F) As used in this rule, "basic medicaid effective date" means the date an individual becomes eligible to receive services under the medicaid state plan. Rule 5160:1-2-03 of the Administrative Code establishes the basic medicaid effective date.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:22 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-44-04
(A) The United States centers for medicare and medicaid services limits the number of slots available for enrollment in the medicaid-funded components of the assisted living and PASSPORT programs which may cause a waiting list. A lack of capacity in PACE may also cause a waiting list. (This rule does not apply to the state-funded components of the assisted living or PASSPORT programs.)
(B) Waiting list:
(1) If ODA's designee determines an individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, but a slot is not available for enrollment in the program, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall place the individual on the unified waiting list established under section 173.55 of the Revised Code according to the latter of the date the individual applied for the program or the date the individual met all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied.
(2) ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall offer enrollment to any individual on the unified waiting list for the assisted living, PACE, or PASSPORT programs who meets all of the eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, in compliance with the enrollment rule for the program, according to the chronological order that ODA's designee placed the individual on the waiting list, unless prohibited by rule 173-38-03, 173-50-03, or 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(a) The following rules present the eligibility requirements:
(i) Assisted living: See rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The following rules present the enrollment process:
(i) Assisted living: See rules 173-38-03 and 5160-33-04 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rules 173-42-03 and 5160-31-04 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If ODA's designee offers enrollment to an individual from the unified waiting list, but the individual declines enrollment, the individual may remain on the unified waiting list and ODA's designee shall offer enrollment to the next individual on the list according to the order this rule establishes.
(4) If a slot is available in the program to which an eligible individual applied, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall not place the individual on the unified waiting list.
(C) Definitions for this rule:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly."
"PASSPORT program" (PASSPORT) means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-2-03
(A) This rule sets forth the process for determining whether an individual is eligible for medical assistance payments for services under a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver, as described in rules 5123-9-01, 5160-31-03, 5160-33-03, 5160-40-01, 5160-41-17, 5160-42-01, 5160-46-02, 5160-58-02.2, and 5160-59-04 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Eligibility for an HCBS waiver. To receive services under an HCBS waiver, the individual shall:
(1) Be eligible for medical assistance, as described in Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Be in need of HCBS under a waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Be enrolled in an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; and
(4) Not be simultaneously enrolled in another HCBS waiver, the residential state supplement (RSS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code, or the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly (PACE).
(C) Request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) An individual may request an HCBS waiver by:
(a) Indicating the request on an application for medical assistance;
(b) Submitting an ODM 02399 "Request for Medicaid Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver" to the administrative agency;
(c) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to the administrative agency; or
(d) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved long-term services and supports agency.
(2) The effective date of an HCBS waiver request is determined in accordance with rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Processing a request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Submit the request within two business days using the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved submission process; and
(b) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(2) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is not currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Begin the application process for medical assistance, as described in rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code;
(b) Submit the request within two business days using the ODM approved submission process; and
(c) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(E) Determination of eligibility for an HCBS waiver. The administrative agency shall approve an HCBS waiver for an individual eligible for medical assistance only upon:
(1) Approval by the HCBS waiver operational agency; and
(2) Notification that the individual may be enrolled in the waiver from ODM, its designee, or an HCBS waiver operational agency, when services under the waiver are available only to a specific number of individuals.
(F) Coverage period. The HCBS waiver coverage period can have a different beginning date or ending date from the medical assistance eligibility period.
(1) HCBS cannot:
(a) Begin before an individual's medical assistance eligibility period or before an individual's retroactive medical assistance eligibility period.
(b) Extend beyond the discontinuance date of an individual's medical assistance coverage.
(c) Be provided during any period of medical assistance ineligibility.
(2) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS begins on the latest of the following dates:
(a) The date the administrative agency receives a request for an HCBS waiver from an individual;
(b) The date the individual meets all criteria for coverage of an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) The date the individual is authorized by the HCBS waiver operational agency to receive services under an HCBS waiver.
(3) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS ends when either:
(a) The administrative agency determines the individual no longer meets the conditions of eligibility, as described in rule 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code, or the criteria for coverage of HCBS; or
(b) The HCBS waiver operational agency notifies the administrative agency that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive HCBS.
(G) HCBS waiver operational agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine, in accordance with this rule and agencies 5123 and 5160 of the Administrative Code, whether the individual requesting an HCBS waiver meets the requirements of the applicable HCBS waiver program.
(2) Provide written notification to the individual of the HCBS programmatic determination.
(3) Notify the administrative agency of determinations and subsequent changes regarding approval of HCBS.
(H) Administrative agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine an individual's eligibility for an HCBS waiver in accordance with this rule. When the administrative agency determines that an individual who requests an HCBS waiver is not eligible for any category of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall deny both the medical assistance application and HCBS waiver request for that individual.
(2) Notify the applicable HCBS waiver operational agency of changes in the individual's eligibility for medical assistance coverage of services under an HCBS waiver.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 9:07 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-04 Assisted living program (medicaid-funded): provider requirements.
The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program may pay a provider for providing a service covered under rule 173-38-05 of the Administrative Code only if the provider is certified to provide the service under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code and section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
Last updated July 27, 2023 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-05
An individual's person-centered services plan may authorize only the following two services:
(A) Assisted living service under rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Community transition under rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:08 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-39 Provider Certification
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01 Provider certification: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-58-04
(A) The purpose of this rule is to establish both the services covered by the MyCare Ohio home and community based services (HCBS) waiver program and the providers eligible to furnish those services to members enrolled in the MyCare Ohio waiver.
(B) Providers seeking to furnish services in the MyCare Ohio waiver program meet the requirements in Chapter 173-39, 5160-45, 5160-46, or 5160-44 of the Administrative Code, as appropriate.
(1) Waiver services can be furnished to MyCare Ohio waiver members, or if the services are document on the members' services plans as described in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code. Individuals who are not enrolled on the waiver are unable to receive waiver services.
(2) In order to be eligible for payment of claims for services provided to MyCare Ohio waiver members, providers need to enroll with ODM and the MyCare Ohio plan, or enroll with the financial management services (FMS), if the member participates in self direction.
(C) MyCare Ohio waiver covered services are limited to the following and exclude any reimbursement provisions in the Ohio Administrative Code rules cited therein:
(1) Adult day health services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.1 or 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Alternative meal services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.2 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Assisted living services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code;
(4) Choices home care attendant services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code except MyCare waiver providers are not required to submit task sheets to the FMS, as identified in rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code;
(5) Community integration services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.15 or 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code;
(6) Community transition services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.17 or 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code;
(7) Enhanced community living services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Homemaker services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code;
(9) Home care attendant services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.24 or 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code;
(10) Home delivered meal services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.14 or 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code;
(11) Home maintenance and chore services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.5 or 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code.
(12) Home medical equipment and supplemental adaptive and assistive devices services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.7 of the Administrative Code;
(13) Home modification services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.9 or 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code;
(14) Nutrition consultation services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.10 of the Administrative Code;
(15) Out-of- home respite services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.23 or 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code;
(16) Personal care aide services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.11 or 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code;
(17) Personal emergency response services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.6 or 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code;
(18) Self-directed goods and services as set forth in rule 5160-45-03.5 of the Administrative Code;
(19) Social work counseling services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.12 of the Administrative Code;
(20) Supplemental adaptive and assistive devices as set forth in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code;
(21) Structured family caregiving services as set forth in rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code;
(22) Vehicle modifications as set forth in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code;
(23) Waiver nursing services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.22 or 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code;
(24) Non-medical transportation services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.18 or 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code; and
(25) Any other HCBS waiver services included in Chapter 5160-44, 5160-45, 5160-46 or Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code, if not specifically mentioned in this rule.
(D) If a member enrolled in the MyCare Ohio waiver is also a participant in the helping ohioans move, expanding (HOME) choice demonstration program pursuant to Chapter 5160-51 of the Administrative Code, the member may use the HOME choice community transitions service in lieu of, but not in addition to, the community transition service available through the MyCare Ohio waiver.
(E) If a member receives enhanced community living services, the member shall not also receive personal care or homemaker services available through the MyCare Ohio waiver.
(F) The following services may be self-directed using budget or employer authority. To exercise these authorities, members must demonstrate the ability to direct providers in accordance with paragraph (D) of rule 5160-58-03.2 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Employer authority which includes, but is not limited to, the ability of the member to hire, fire, and train employees is available for the following services:
(a) Choices home care attendant services provided by a self-directed individual provider;
(b) Home care attendant services provided by a self-directed provider;
(c) Personal care services provided by a self-directed personal care provider;
(d) Waiver nursing provided by a self-directed provider; and
(e) Any additional services that are permitted to be self-directed under an ODM-administered waiver in Chapter 5160-45 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Budget authority which includes the ability of the member to negotiate rates of reimbursement is available in the following services:
(a) Alternative meals;
(b) Choices home care attendant services;
(c) Home care attendant services;
(d) Home maintenance and chore services;
(e) Home modification services;
(f) Home medical equipment and supplemental adaptive and assistive devices;
(g) Self-directed goods and services;
(h) Waiver nursing; and
(i) Any additional services that are permitted to be self-directed under an ODM-administered waiver in rule 5160-45-03.2 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 8:57 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-05
(A) For purposes of determining an individual's nursing-facility (NF) based level of care, the following definitions apply unless a term is otherwise defined in a specific rule:
(1) "Activity of daily living (ADL)" means a personal or self-care task that enables an individual to meet basic life needs. "ADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Bathing" means the ability of an individual to cleanse one's body by showering, tub, or sponge bath, or any other generally accepted method.
(b) "Dressing" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to dress oneself and includes the following two components:
(i) Putting on and taking off an item of clothing or prosthesis; and
(ii) Fastening and unfastening an item of clothing or prosthesis.
(c) "Eating" means the ability of an individual to feed oneself. Eating includes the processes of getting food into one's mouth, chewing, and swallowing, or the ability to use and self-manage a feeding tube.
(d) "Grooming" means the ability of an individual to care for one's appearance and includes the following three components:
(i) Oral hygiene;
(ii) Hair care; and
(iii) Nail care.
(e) "Mobility" means the ability of an individual to use fine and gross motor skills to reposition or move oneself from place to place and includes the following three components:
(i) "Bed mobility" means the ability of an individual to move to or from a lying position, turn from side to side, or otherwise position the body while in bed or alternative sleep furniture;
(ii) "Locomotion" means the ability of an individual to move between locations by ambulation or by other means; and
(iii) "Transfer" means the ability of an individual to move between surfaces, including but not limited to, to and from a bed, chair, wheelchair, or standing position.
(f) "Toileting" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to eliminate and dispose of bodily waste and includes the following four components:
(i) Using a commode, bedpan, or urinal;
(ii) Changing incontinence supplies or feminine hygiene products;
(iii) Cleansing self; and
(iv) Managing an ostomy or catheter.
(2) "Adverse level of care determination" means a determination that an individual does not meet the criteria for a specific level of care.
(3) "Alternative form" means a form that is used in place of and contains all of the data elements of, the ODM 03697, "Level of Care Assessment" to request a level of care determination from the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee.
(4) "Assistance" means the hands-on provision of help in the initiation or completion of a task.
(5) "Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(6) "Current diagnoses" means a written medical determination by the individual's attending physician, whose scope of practice includes diagnosis, listing those diagnosed conditions that currently impact the individual's health and functional abilities.
(7) "Delayed in-person visit" means an in-person visit that occurs within a specified period of time after a desk review has been conducted that includes the elements of a long-term care consultation, in accordance with Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code, for the purposes of exploring home and community-based services (HCBS) options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate.
(8) "Desk review" means a level of care determination process that is not conducted in person.
(9) "Developmental disabilities level of care" means the level of care as described in rule 5123-8-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "ICF-IID" means an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Immediate need" means an individual has a need that may result in substantial harm or decline in functioning if waiver services and supports are not received within thirty calendar days.
(12) "In-person" means a level of care assessment and determination process conducted in the physical presence of the individual for the purposes of exploring nursing facility services or HCBS options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate, that is not conducted by a desk review only.
(13) "Individual" means a medicaid recipient or person applying for medicaid eligibility.
(14) "Instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)" means the ability of an individual to complete community living skills. "IADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Community access" means the ability of an individual to use available community services and supports to meet one's needs and includes the following three components:
(i) "Accessing transportation" means the ability to get and use transportation.
(ii) "Handling finances" means the ability of an individual to manage one's money. Handling finances includes all of the following:
(a) Knowing where money is;
(b) Knowing how to get money;
(c) Paying bills; and
(d) Knowing how to get and use benefits and services, including but not limited to:
(i) Health benefits and insurance;
(ii) Social benefits; and
(iii) Home utilities.
(iii) "Telephoning" means the ability to make and answer telephone calls or use technology to connect to community services and supports.
(b) "Environmental management" means the ability of an individual to maintain the living arrangement in a manner that ensures the health and safety of the individual and includes the following three components:
(i) "Heavy chores" means the ability to move heavy furniture and appliances for cleaning, turn mattresses, and wash windows and walls; and
(ii) "House cleaning" means the ability to make beds, clean the bathroom, sweep and mop floors, dust, clean and store dishes, pick up clutter, and take out trash;
(iii) "Yard work and maintenance" means the ability to care for the lawn, rake leaves, shovel snow, complete minor home repairs, and paint.
(c) "Meal preparation" means the ability of an individual to prepare or cook food for oneself.
(d) "Personal laundry" means the ability of an individual to wash and dry one's clothing and household items by machine or by hand.
(e) "Shopping" means the ability to obtain or purchase one's necessary items. Necessary items include, but are not limited to, groceries, clothing, and household items. Shopping does not include handling finances or accessing transportation.
(15) "Less than twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the presence of another person, or the presence of a remote monitoring device that does not need the individual to initiate a response, during a portion of a twenty-four hour period of time.
(16) "Level of care determination" means an assessment and evaluation by ODM or its designee of an individual's physical, mental, social, and emotional status, using the processes described in rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code, to compare the criteria for all of the possible levels of care as described in rules 5160-3-06 to 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, and make a decision about whether an individual meets the criteria for a level of care.
(17) "Level of care validation" means the verification process for ODM or its designee that includes verifying the preadmission screening and resident review criteria have been met for an individual as well as reviewing and entering an individual's current level of care in the electronic records that are maintained by ODM.
(18) "Long-term services and supports" means institutional or community-based medical, health, psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care services that may be provided to medicaid-eligible individuals.
(19) "Medication administration" means the ability of an individual to prepare and self-administer all forms of over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription medication. Intravenous medication administration will be considered a skilled nursing service for the purposes of determining NF-based level of care, OTC and all other self-administered prescription medication will not be considered a skilled nursing service.
(20) "Need" means the inability of an individual to complete a necessary and applicable task independently, safely, and consistently. An individual does not have a need when:
(a) The individual is not willing to complete a task or does not have the choice to complete a task.
(b) The task can be completed with the use of available assistive devices and accommodations.
(21) "Nursing facility (NF)" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code. A facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of health is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification and will be treated as a NF for the purposes of this rule.
(22) "NF-based level of care" means the intermediate and skilled levels of care, as described in rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.
(23) "NF-based level of care program" means a NF, a home and community-based services medicaid waiver that uses a NF-based level of care, or other medicaid program that uses a NF-based level of care.
(24) "PASRR" means the preadmission screening and resident review requirements mandated by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act and implemented in accordance with rules 5160-3-14, 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03, and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(25) "Physician" means a person licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or licensed in another state as defined by applicable law, to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(26) "Skilled nursing services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, provided by a licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of a registered nurse or by a registered nurse directly.
(27) "Skilled rehabilitation services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Title 47 of the Revised Code, provided directly by a licensed or other appropriately certified technical or professional health care personnel.
(28) "Supervision" means either of the following:
(a) Reminding an individual to perform or complete an activity; or
(b) Observing while an individual performs an activity to ensure the individual's health and safety.
(29) "Twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the continuous presence of another person throughout the course of the entire day and night during a twenty-four hour period of time.
(30) "Unstable medical condition" means clinical signs and symptoms are present in an individual and a physician has determined that:
(a) The individual's signs and symptoms need extensive monitoring and ongoing evaluation of the individual's status and care and there are supporting diagnostic or ancillary testing reports that justify the need for frequent monitoring or adjustment of the treatment regimen; and
(b) Changes in the individual's medical condition are uncontrollable or unpredictable and may need immediate interventions.
Last updated July 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.1
(A) "Adult day service" ("ADS") means a regularly-scheduled service provided at an adult day center (center) in a non-institutional, community-based setting and consisting of the activities authorized in an individual's person-centered services plan. ADS includes recreational and educational programming to support an individual's health and independence goals; at least one, but no more than two, meals per day; and, sometimes, health status monitoring, skilled therapy services, and transportation to and from the center. Table 1 to this rule defines the levels and activities of ADS.
Table 1: ADS Activities by Level of ADS
| | ENHANCED ADS | INTENSIVE ADS | | --- | --- | --- | | Structured activity programming | Yes | Yes | | Health assessments | Yes | Yes | | Supervision of ADLs | All ADLs | All ADLs | | Hands-on assistance with ADLs | Yes, one or more ADL (bathing excluded) | Yes, minimum of two ADLs (bathing included) | | Hands-on assistance with medication administration | Yes | Yes | | Comprehensive therapeutic activities | Yes | Yes | | Monitoring of health status | Intermittent | Regular, with intervention | | Hands-on assistance with personal hygiene activities | Yes | Yes | | Social work services | No | Yes | | Skilled nursing services and rehabilitative nursing services | No | Yes | | Rehabilitative and restorative services | No | Yes |
(B) Requirements to become, and to remain, an ODA-certified provider of ADS:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Service requirements:
(a) Transportation: The provider shall transport each individual to and from the center by performing transportation that complies with rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code, unless the provider subcontracts with another provider that complies with rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code, or unless the caregiver transports or designates another person, other than the center's provider, to transport the individual to and from the center.
(b) Provider's initial assessment:
(i) The provider shall assess the individual before the end of the individual's second day of attendance at the center. The provider may substitute a copy of the case manager's assessment of the individual if the case manager assessed the individual no more than thirty days before the individual's first day of attendance at the center.
(ii) The initial assessment shall include both of the following components:
(a) The individual's functional, cognitive, and social needs.
(b) A social profile including social activity patterns, major life events, community services, caregiver data, formal and informal support systems, and behavior patterns.
(c) Health assessment: No later than thirty days after the individual's initial attendance at the center or before the individual receives the first ten units of service at the center, whichever comes first, the provider shall obtain a health assessment of each individual from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes health assessments or an employee who is such a licensed healthcare professional to perform a health assessment of each individual. The health assessment shall include the individual's psychosocial profile and identify the individual's risk factors, diet, and medications. If the licensed healthcare professional who performs the health assessment is not an employee of the provider, the provider shall retain a record of the professional's name and phone number.
(d) Activity plan: No later than thirty days after the individual's initial attendance at the center or before the individual receives the first ten units of service at the center, whichever comes first, the provider shall obtain the services of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes developing activity plans to draft an activity plan for each individual or an employee who is such a licensed healthcare professional to draft an activity plan for each individual. The plan shall do all of the following:
(i) Identify the individual's strengths, needs, problems or difficulties, and objectives.
(ii) Describe the individual's interest, preferences, and social rehabilitative needs.
(iii) Describe the individual's health needs.
(iv) Describe the individual's specific goals, objectives, and planned interventions of ADS that meet the goals.
(v) Describe the individual's level of involvement in the drafting of the plan, and, if the individual has a caregiver, the caregiver's level of involvement in the drafting of the plan.
(vi) Describe the individual's ability to provide a unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
(e) Plan of treatment: Before administering medication or meals with a therapeutic diet, and before providing a nursing service, nutrition consultation, physical therapy, or speech therapy, the provider shall obtain a plan of treatment from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment. The provider shall obtain the plan of treatment at least every ninety days for each individual that receives medication, a nursing service, nutrition consultation, physical therapy, or speech therapy. For diet orders that may be part of a plan of treatment, a new diet order is not required every ninety days. Instead, the provider is subject to the diet-order requirements for therapeutic diets under rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code.
(f) Interdisciplinary care conference (conference):
(i) Frequency: The provider shall conduct a conference for each individual at least once every six months.
(ii) Participants: The provider shall conduct the conference between the provider's staff and invitees who choose to participate. At least seven days before the conference begins, the provider shall invite the following persons to participate in the conference and provide those persons with the date and time of the conference:
(a) The individual's case manager.
(b) Any licensed healthcare profession who does not work for the provider, but who provided the provider with a health assessment of the individual or an activity plan for the individual.
(c) The individual's caregiver, if the individual has a caregiver.
(iii) Revise activity plan: If the conference participants identify changes in the individual's health needs, condition, preferences, or responses to the service, the provider shall obtain the services of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes developing activity plans to revise the activity plan accordingly or an employee who is such a licensed healthcare professional to revise the activity plan accordingly.
(g) Activities: The provider shall announce daily and monthly planned activities through two or more of the following media:
(i) Posters in prominent locations throughout the center.
(ii) An electronic display (e.g., a television) in a prominent location in the center.
(iii) The center's website.
(iv) Email sent to individuals (and others) who agree to receive the email.
(v) Monthly newsletters distributed to individuals by mail, email, or at the center.
(h) Lunch and snacks:
(i) The provider shall provide lunch and snacks to each individual who is present during lunchtime or snack time.
(ii) Each meal the provider provides shall comply with all the requirements for home-delivered meals under rules 173-39-02.14 and 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code, except for the requirements in those rules pertaining to the delivery of the meal.
(3) Center requirements: A provider qualifies to be an ODA-certified ADS provider only if the provider's center has the following specifications:
(a) If the center is housed in a building with other services or programs other than ADS, the provider uses a separate, identifiable space and staff for ADS during all hours that the provider provides ADS in the center.
(b) The center complies with the "ADA Accessibility Guidelines for Buildings and Facilities" in appendix A to 28 C.F.R. part 36.
(c) The center has at least sixty square feet per individual that it serves (not just individuals who are enrolled in an ODA-administered program), excluding hallways, offices, rest rooms, and storage areas.
(d) The provider stores individuals' medications in a locked area the provider maintains at a temperature complying with the storage requirements of the medications.
(e) The provider stores toxic substances in an area which is inaccessible to individuals.
(f) The center has at least one working toilet for every ten individuals present that the center serves (not just individuals who are enrolled in an ODA-administered program) and at least one wheelchair-accessible toilet.
(g) If the center seeks certification to provide intensive ADS, the center has bathing facilities suitable to the needs of individuals who need intensive ADS.
(4) Staffing levels:
(a) The provider shall have at least two staff members present, with at least one of those staff members having a certification in CPR, when more than one individual is present in the center.
(b) The provider shall maintain a staff-to-individual ratio of at least one staff member to six individuals at all times.
(c) The provider shall have an RN, or LPN under the direction of an RN, available to provide nursing services that need the skills of an RN, or LPN under the direction of an RN, and that are based on the needs of the individuals and within the nurse's scope of practice.
(d) The provider shall employ an activity director to direct activities.
(5) Provider qualifications:
(a) Type of provider:
(i) Only an agency provider qualifies for ODA's certification to provide ADS.
(ii) For each provider that ODA certifies, ODA shall certify the provider as an enhanced or intensive provider. If ODA certifies a provider to provide an intensive service level, the provider may also directly provide, or arrange for, the enhanced service level.
(b) Staff qualifications:
(i) Every person who is an RN, LPN under the direction of an RN, social worker, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, speech therapist, licensed dietitian, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, or other licensed professional qualifies to practice in the center only if the person has a current, valid license to practice in their profession.
(ii) A person qualifies to be an activity director only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A baccalaureate or associate degree in recreational therapy or a related degree.
(b) At least two years of experience as an activity director, activity coordinator, or a related position.
(c) Compliance with the qualifications under rule 3701-17-07 of the Administrative Code for directing resident activities in a nursing home.
(d) A certification from the national certification council for activity professionals (NCCAP).
(iii) A person qualifies to be an activity assistant only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A high school diploma.
(b) A high school equivalence diploma as defined in section 5107.40 of the Revised Code.
(c) At least two years of employment in a supervised position to provide personal care, to provide activities, or to assist with activities.
(iv) A person qualifies to be a PCA only if the person has at least one of the following:
(a) A high school diploma.
(b) A high school equivalence diploma as defined in section 5107.40 of the Revised Code.
(c) At least two years of employment in a supervised position to provide personal care, to provide activities, or to assist with activities.
(d) The successfully completion of a vocational program in a health or human services field.
(v) A person qualifies to transport individuals for the provider only if the person meets the qualifications for drivers under rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Staff training:
(i) Orientation: The provider shall comply with the requirements for the orientation of PCAs in rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) Task-based training: Before each new PCA provides ADS, the provider shall provide task-based training.
(iii) Continuing education and in-service training: Each PCA, activity director, and activity assistant shall successfully complete at least eight hours of continuing education or in-service training each calendar year. Any hour of continuing education or in-service training successfully completed during a calendar year to comply with the requirements for certification as an activity director or activity assistant counts towards the eight-hour requirement in this paragraph.
(iv) Verification of compliance: The provider shall comply with paragraph (C)(3)(f) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code regarding records of each PCA's successful completion of any training and competency evaluation program, orientation, and in-service training.
(6) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items that a provider retains for each ADS session to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a)(i) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Service date.
(c) Individual's arrival time.
(d) Individual's departure time.
(e) Individual's mode of transportation.
(f) Unique identifier of the individual to attest to receiving the service.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) The units of ADS attendance.
(b) The units of ADS transportation.
(c) The maximum rates allowable per unit of ADS attendance or ADS transportation.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, the rate-setting methodology is established in rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code and in the following paragraphs:
(a) Attendance:
(i) Units of ADS attendance are calculated as follows:
(a) One-half day unit is less than four hours of ADS per day.
(b) One day unit is four to eight hours of ADS per day.
(c) A fifteen-minute unit is each fifteen-minute period of time over eight hours up to, and including, a maximum of twelve hours of ADS per day.
(ii) A unit of ADS attendance does not include transportation time.
(b) Transportation: If the service is provided to an individual enrolled in the PASSPORT program, a unit of ADS transportation is a round trip, a one-way trip, or one mile with the trip cost based on a case manager's pre-determined calculation of distance between the individual's home and the center multiplied by an established ADS mileage rate. If the provider provides the transportation simultaneously to more than one PASSPORT-enrolled individual who resides in the same household in the same vehicle to the same destination, the provider's payment rate for that trip is seventy-five per cent of the per-unit rate.
Last updated July 30, 2026 at 8:51 AM
History
- Effective: December 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-01
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs planning and service area designations and changes to designations; an intrastate funding formula; AGE's area agency on aging designations and changes to designations; area plans; monitoring and corrective actions; and withdrawal of an AAA designation.
(B) Definitions for this chapter and Chapters 173-3 and 173-4 of the Administrative Code:
"AAA-provider agreement" (agreement) means a contract or grant agreement between an AAA and a provider for the provision of services to consumers.
"Activities of daily living" (ADLs) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a provider hiring persons to provide services to consumers.
"Area agency on aging" (AAA) means an entity that AGE designates as an area agency on aging under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.19.
"Assessment" means a gathering of information about a person's strengths, problems, financial resources, and care needs in the following major functional areas: physical health, use of medical care, ADLs, IADLs, mental and social functioning, physical environment, and use of services and supports.
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Caregiver" and "family caregiver" have the same meaning as "family caregiver" in 42 U.S.C. 3022.
"Case management" has the same meaning as "case management service" in 42 U.S.C. 3002.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (which may include written testing) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the consumer to be served.
"Congregate dining project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.1 of the Administrative Code.
"Congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.3 of the Administrative Code.
"Consumer" means, for the purposes of services paid for, in whole or in part, with Older Americans Act funds, any person sixty years of age or older, unless a different age is required by a state or federal law.
"Contract" has the same meaning as "AAA-provider agreement," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Coordination" means the development and implementation of an integrated service delivery system to ensure appropriate care, service levels, and continuity for consumers. This includes integration with other federal, state, and local programs and services to promote synchronization of planning, policy development, priority setting, and evaluation of activities related to the objectives of the Older Americans Act without, to the extent possible, duplicating services and/or compromising the consumer's goals and objectives.
"Day" means a twenty-four-hour period beginning and ending at midnight.
"Dietary Guidelines for Americans" means the version of the dietary guidelines in effect on a day of service as published by the United States departments of agriculture and health and human services on https://www.dietaryguidelines.gov/.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code or an unencumbered license from another state with compact privilege under section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Greatest economic need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Greatest social need" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3002 and 45 C.F.R. 1321.3.
"Groceries" mean foods for a household to eat, such as breads and cereals; fruits and vegetables; meats, fish, and poultry; and dairy products.
"Grocery store" has the same meaning as "retail food establishment" in rule 3717-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"Home-delivered meals project" means a nutrition project that complies with rule 173-4-05.2 of the Administrative Code.
"Incident" means an event that is inconsistent with the routine care or routine provision of services to a consumer. An incident may involve a consumer, caregiver (to the extent it impacts a consumer), provider, provider's staff or facility, another facility, an AAA's staff, AGE's staff, or other administrative authorities. Examples of an incident are abuse, neglect, abandonment, an accident, or an unusual situation resulting in an injury to a person or damage to the person's property or equipment.
"Instrumental activities of daily living" (IADLs) means preparing meals, shopping for personal items, medication management, managing money, using the telephone, doing heavy housework, doing light housework, and the ability to get and use available transportation without assistance.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code. "Licensed healthcare professional" also includes an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Licensed practical nurse" also includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Limited basis" in context of a Title III-E supplemental service means the extent to which a service compliments a family caregiver's care. "Limited basis" means that the services are not universally available or provided continuously. Services are typically provided to address a specific, temporary need or gap in the caregiving situation.
"Nutrition project" means a congregate dining project, home-delivered meals project, or a congregate dining project based in restaurants and supermarkets. Under 45 C.F.R. 1321.87(b), a nutrition project also considers the availability of resources and the community's need for nutrition services described in state and area plans.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"Older Americans Act" means 42 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
"Older Americans Act funds" means the federal funds awarded to AGE through Title III of the Older Americans Act (42 U.S.C. Chapter 35, Subchapter III) and any state or local funds used to match those federal funds, regardless of whether the local funds are public or private funds. For the purposes of this chapter and Chapter 173-4 of the Administrative Code, "Older Americans Act funds" does not mean funds for an ombudsman program.
"Older Americans Act nutrition program" means the program created under 42 U.S.C. 3030d-21 to 3030g-23 (2020).
"Older relative caregiver" has the same meaning as in 42 U.S.C. 3030s.
"Participant-directed provider " means a provider (e.g., relative, friend, neighbor, or other person) a consumer hired and directs to provide services to the consumer.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Planning and service area" (PSA) means a multi-county region that AGE designates as a planning and service area under section 173.011 of the Revised Code and 45 C.F.R. 1321.13.
"Provider" means a person or entity entering into an AAA-provider agreement with an AAA to provide services to consumers. The three categories of providers are agency providers, self-employed providers, and participant-directed providers.
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" also includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Restaurant" has the same meaning as "food service operation" in rule 3717-1-0 1 of the Administrative Code.
"RFP" means "request for proposal."
"Rural area" means any area not designated as urban by the United States census bureau.
"Self-employed provider" means a provider who provides services to consumers and who does not hire, or contract with, other persons to provide those services.
"Shelf-stable meal" means a meal that is non-perishable, ready-to-eat, stored at room temperature, and eaten without heating.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor that identifies only that consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver, or instructor. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. A consumer, caregiver, provider, aide, PCA, driver or instructor offers their unique identifier as an attestation that a provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service or as an authorization for a plan or agreement.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 8:52 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4723-13-02
(A) A nursing task may be delegated to an unlicensed person only by a licensed nurse who shall delegate in accordance with this chapter.
(B) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent any person registered, certified, licensed, or otherwise legally authorized in this state under any law from engaging in the practice for which such person is registered, certified, licensed, or authorized.
"Otherwise legally authorized" may include, but is not limited to, authorization for medication administration pursuant to section 3313.713 of the Revised Code, DODD personnel authorized to perform tasks or activities pursuant to sections 5123.41 to 5123.47 of the Revised Code, and individuals authorized to administer medications or perform tasks pursuant to Title 47 of the Revised Code.
(C) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an unlicensed person from assisting an individual who can safely self direct his or her own care, including, helping the individual with self-administration of medications in a facility where the substantial purpose of the setting is other than the provision of health care. An unlicensed person assisting with self-administration of medications may do only the following:
(1) Remind an individual when to take the medication and observe to ensure that the individual follows the directions on the container;
(2) Assist an individual in the self-administration of medication by taking the medication in its container from the area where it is stored and handing the container with the medication in it to the individual. If the individual is physically unable to open the container, the unlicensed person may open the container for the individual;
(3) Assist upon request by or with the consent of, a physically impaired but mentally alert individual, in removing oral or topical medication from the container and in taking or applying the medication. If an individual is physically unable to place a dose of medicine in the individual's mouth without spilling or dropping it, an unlicensed person may place the dose in another container and place that container to the mouth of the individual; or
(4) Assisting an individual with self-administration does not mean that an unlicensed person can administer medication to an individual, whether orally, by injection, or by any other route.
(D) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an unlicensed person from administering medication under the following circumstances:
(1) The giving of oral or the applying of topical medication in accordance with sections 5123.41 to 5123.47 of the Revised Code and in accordance with rules 5123-6-01 and 5123-6-07 of the Administrative Code;
(2) When medication is administered by an individual employed by a board of education, or a school charted by the state board of education, who has been designated according to section 3313.713 of the Revised Code to administer to a student a drug prescribed by an authorized prescriber; or
(3) In accordance with any other law or rule that authorizes an unlicensed person to administer medications.
Last updated February 1, 2022 at 8:56 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03
(A) Initial steps:
(1) A person may apply for certification by completing an application in the provider management system, which includes electronic submission of all supporting records required as part of the application. An incomplete application expires if the person does not complete the application within ninety days.
(2) ODA shall review an application to determine if the application meets the requirements for the certification the provider is seeking.
(a) ODA shall initiate the process for a pre-certification review if ODA determines that a provider submitted a complete application.
(b) ODA may request supplemental information which the provider shall provide within five business days.
(B) Voluntary withdrawal of application for certification:
(1) A provider may withdraw its application at any time before ODA denies the provider's application or sends the provider's application to ODA's designee for a pre-certification review, whichever comes first.
(2) A provider that withdrew its application may later reapply for certification.
(C) Pre-certification review:
(1) For all providers except providers of community transition provided through the home choice program under rule 5160-51-10 of the Administrative Code and participant-directed providers:
(a) ODA's designee shall visit the provider's business site to determine if the provider meets the applicable requirements in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and any additional requirements in this chapter regulating a service the provider is seeking certification to provide. During a state of emergency declared by the governor, a federal public health emergency, or as authorized in ODA's discretion, ODA's designee may conduct a desk review of the provider's business site in lieu of a visit.
(b) ODA's designee shall complete the review and notify ODA of its recommendation within sixty days after receiving a complete application to become a provider, unless ODA approves an extended deadline at ODA's discretion.
(c) ODA's designee shall recommend approval or denial of the provider's application.
(d) Paragraph (D) of this rule applies if ODA's designee determines that an ADS or assisted living provider complies with all applicable requirements.
(2) For providers of community transition provided through the home choice program under rule 5160-51-10 of the Administrative Code:
(a) ODA may direct its designee to conduct the pre-certification review to determine if the provider meets the applicable requirements in rules 173-39-02 and 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code.
(b) ODA or its designee shall determine whether the provider complies with all applicable requirements and either approve or deny the provider's application pursuant to this rule.
(3) For participant-directed providers, ODA's designee shall conduct a pre-certification review within thirty days after receiving a complete application to determine whether the provider meets the applicable requirements in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and any additional requirements in this chapter regulating a service the provider is seeking certification to provide, unless ODA approves an extended deadline.
(D) HCBS settings requirements: For ADS or the assisted living service, a provider is subject to the HCBS settings requirements in 42 C.F.R. 441.301 and rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code. ODA may certify the provider if ODA determines the setting is presumed to have the qualities of a HCBS setting. The setting is subject to the heightened scrutiny described in rule 173-39-03.1 of the Administrative Code if ODA determines the setting is presumed to have the qualities of an institution.
(E) Final determination: ODA bases its final determination of whether to certify a provider on the review of the application materials and the recommendation of ODA's designee.
(F) Approved application:
(1) Applications for all services except community transition provided through the home choice program under rule 5160-51-10 of the Administrative Code:
(a) When ODA approves an application, ODA notifies ODA's designee for the region in which the provider is being certified to provide services.
(b) ODA's designee shall enter into an agreement with each provider specifying, at a minimum, the following:
(i) The time period during which the agreement is in effect.
(ii) The region for which the provider is certified.
(iii) The rate of payment per unit the provider is willing to accept subject to any limits ODM established in rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code and the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code for the PASSPORT program, and rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code and the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code for the assisted living program.
(2) Applications for community transition provided through the home choice program under rule 5160-51-10 of the Administrative Code: After ODA approves an application to be a provider of community transition through the home choice program, ODA's designee shall enter into an agreement with the provider specifying the items under paragraph (F)(1) of this rule.
(G) Provider moving to Ohio from other state: Section 173.391 of the Revised Code establishes a requirement for ODA to certify an applicant moving to Ohio from another state according to Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code if the applicant meets all the following qualifications:
(1) The applicant seeks certification to provide either of the following in Ohio:
(a) One of the following services as a non-agency provider: home maintenance and chores, home medical equipment and supplies, home modification, nutritional consultation, social work or counseling, non-medical transportation, home care attendant, or waiver nursing.
(b) One of the following services as a participant-directed provider: choices home care attendant service or personal care.
(2) The applicant meets the qualifications in section 4796.03, 4796.04, or 4796.05 of the Revised Code.
(3) The provider is not disqualified from a paid direct-care position under Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code or section 173.38 or 173.381 of the Revised Code.
(4) The provider is not disqualified from being a provider under rule 5160-1-17.8 of the Administrative Code.
(5) The provider meets the insurance requirement under paragraph (A)(5) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(H) Denied application:
(1) ODA may deny a provider's application for any of the following reasons:
(a) The provider made false representations, by omission or commission, on the provider's application.
(b) The provider made false statements, provided false information, or altered records or documents.
(c) The provider is disqualified under section 173.38 or 173.381 of the Revised Code or under Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(d) The provider does not meet the applicable requirements in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code or any requirements in this chapter regulating a service that the provider is seeking certification to provide.
(e) ODA previously revoked the provider's certification.
(f) ODA previously denied an application submitted by the provider within the past three years for any of the reasons stated in paragraphs (H)(1)(a) and (H)(1)(b) of this rule.
(g) Any reason permitted or required by state or federal law.
(2) ODA complies with the administrative appeals procedures established in section 173.391 of the Revised Code.
(3) The provider is ineligible to reapply for certification for one year after the mailing date of ODA's final adjudication order denying a provider's application.
Last updated August 14, 2024 at 9:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03.1
Introduction: In 42 C.F.R. 441.301(c)(5)(v), HHS requires heightened scrutiny by HHS's secretary to determine if a setting presumed to have the qualities of an institution meets HCBS settings requirements. This rule applies to settings subject to heightened scrutiny to become or remain an ODA-certified provider.
(A) Scope: A setting presumed to have the qualities of an institution requires heightened scrutiny by HHS's secretary, based on information presented by the state or other parties, to determine whether the setting has the qualities of an institution or has the qualities of a HCBS setting. A setting is presumed to have the qualities of an institution if it has any of the following characteristics:
(1) The entire setting is located in a building that is also a publicly or privately-operated facility that provides inpatient institutional treatment.
(2) The setting is in a building on the grounds of, or immediately adjacent to, a public institution.
(3) The setting has the effect of isolating individuals receiving medicaid HCBS from the broader community of individuals not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(B) Process: ODA shall determine if a setting requires heightened scrutiny by HHS's secretary. If ODA determines a setting requires heightened scrutiny under paragraph (A) of this rule, ODA shall review information submitted by the provider, conduct an on-site visit of the setting, and complete form ODM10204, "Heightened Scrutiny Evidence Package" (February 2017). ODA may recommend the provider undertake remediation of any possible deficiencies in its compliance with HCBS settings requirements and may establish deadlines for completion of any remediation. If the provider fails to complete requested remediation or provide evidence of the same to ODA, ODA may withhold submission of the provider's application for heightened scrutiny.
(C) Public-comment periods: Before providing an application for heightened scrutiny to the HHS secretary, ODA shall offer the public a thirty-day opportunity to comment on the application. ODM, on behalf of ODA, shall offer public-comment periods four times per year.
(D) Request for heightened scrutiny: Following the completion of the public-comment period, ODM, on behalf of ODA, shall provide form ODM 10204 and any supplemental material, if requested, to HHS's secretary for heightened scrutiny of the setting.
(E) HHS heightened scrutiny determination:
(1) For providers seeking ODA certification:
(a) If HHS's secretary determines the setting meets HCBS settings requirements, ODA may approve the provider's application for certification.
(b) If HHS's secretary determines the provider's setting does not meet HCBS settings requirements, ODA shall notify the provider of the final determination and any applicable hearing rights established in section 173.391 of the Revised Code. If ODA denies a provider's certification, the provider is ineligible to reapply for certification for one year after the mailing date of ODA's final determination.
(2) For certified providers:
(a) If HHS's secretary determines the provider's setting meets HCBS settings requirements, the provider shall retain its certification so long as it continues to comply with this chapter.
(b) If HHS's secretary determines the provider's setting does not meet HCBS settings requirements, ODA may impose discipline against the provider and notify the provider of any applicable hearing rights established in section 173.391 of the Revised Code.
Last updated June 10, 2024 at 8:01 AM
History
- Effective: April 4, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03.2
Introduction: Section 173.39 of the Revised Code prohibits ODA from paying a provider for services provided to individuals enrolled in the PASSPORT or assisted living programs unless the provider is an ODA-certified provider. ODA-certification is assigned to a provider's federal taxpayer identification number (TIN) and is not transferable. This rule applies in all instances where there is a change of ownership interest involving an ODA-certified provider obtaining a new TIN according to any rule adopted by the internal revenue service (IRS) or any change in organizational structure of an ODA-certified provider involving a person with an ownership or management interest, including a non-profit provider.
(A) Requirements:
(1) Notification: The provider's current owner(s) shall email ODA at provider_enrollment@age.ohio.gov with an original signed statement that includes all the following information to announce a change of ownership interest or change of organizational structure (change) no later than forty-five days before the change, unless this chapter requires notifying ODA sooner. By sending the statement, the owner is certifying that the following information is accurate, truthful, and complete:
(a) Name of the provider undergoing the change.
(b) Name of each current owner, and, if any, the name of each current owner's authorized agent.
(c) Medicaid provider number and NPI of the provider after the change, if known. ODA considers the notice to be complete if the notice is complete except for indicating the provider's number if ODM has not yet granted the provider a number, so long as the provider provides the number to ODA as soon as it is available.
(d) The following information about each new owner(s):
(i) Name.
(ii) Date of birth.
(iii) Social security number.
(iv) Percentage of ownership or control in the provider.
(v) Whether each new owner has been a resident of Ohio for the five-year period immediately preceding the date of the change.
(e) Date the change takes effect, as evidence by a bill of sale or purchase contract executed by both parties.
(f) Statement indicating whether the provider intends to seek payment from ODA for services it provides after the change.
(g) Names and addresses of the persons to whom ODA and its designee should send correspondence regarding the change.
(h) Any information required to show the ongoing compliance required by paragraph (B) of this rule.
(i) Signatures of the current and new owner(s).
(2) Supplemental notification: If the provider's current owner(s) are unable to provide all the information under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule forty-five days before the change, the current owner(s) may provide as much information as possible in the notice no later than forty-five days before the change, then provide the remaining information to ODA as soon as it is available.
(3) Current certification ends: If IRS rules mandate a provider to obtain a new TIN, the provider's certification ends on the date the change is finalized. The relinquishment of the provider's certification means a provider is ineligible to bill ODA after the date the change is finalized.
(4) New certification required: A provider with a new TIN may apply to become an ODA-certified provider according to the application process in rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code to seek payment from ODA for services that it provides after a change.
(5) Payment for authorized services: If ODA approves an application to become an ODA-certified provider, ODA may pay for authorized services provided during a change back to the first date on which both of the following have occurred:
(a) The provider provided evidence that the change was finalized to ODA, such as a bill of sale or an executed purchase.
(b) The new owner(s) provided a complete application, as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code, to become an ODA-certified provider.
(6) Discharging residents: After an assisted-living provider has applied for new certification from ODA during a change, neither the current nor the new owner(s) may discharge residents from the RCF for non-payment until ODA submits the request to HHS for its review under 42 C.F.R. 441.301(c)(5)(v).
(B) Compliance with HCBS settings requirements:
(1) Every provider is subject to the HCBS settings requirements in state and federal law, including rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R. Part 441, as as a requirement to become and to remain certified in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code, from the effective date of ODA certification and thereafter.
(2) For a provider that is subject to federal heightened scrutiny under rule 173-39-03.1 of the Administrative Code, the new owner(s) shall, at a minimum, implement policies and procedures to maintain compliance with the HCBS settings requirements under rules 173-39-02 and 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R. Part 441 at the time of the change and thereafter and email a signed statement demonstrating compliance with this requirement to ODA at "provider_enrollment@age.ohio.gov."
Last updated September 5, 2024 at 12:03 PM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03.3
Introduction: After ODA initially certifies a provider in a region, the provider may apply to become certified to provide an additional service in that region, including an ODA-certified provider of enhanced ADS applying for certification to provide intensive ADS and an ODA-certified provider of the basic assisted living service applying for certification to provide memory care.
(A) Application: A certified provider may apply for certification to provide an additional service by completing an application in the provider management system, including electronic submission of all supporting records required as part of the application. An incomplete application expires if the provider does not complete the application within ninety days.
(B) Pre-certification review: ODA's designee shall visit the provider's business site to conduct an on-site pre-certification review to determine if the provider meets the requirements of this chapter to be certified to provide the additional service. During a state of emergency declared by the governor, a federal public health emergency, or during another time if authorized by ODA, ODA's designee may conduct a desk review of the provider's business site in lieu of a visit.
(C) Approved application: ODA and its designee shall follow the process under paragraph (F) of rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code for an approved application.
(D) Denied application: ODA and its designee shall follow the process under paragraph (H) of rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code for a denied application.
Last updated August 14, 2024 at 9:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03.4
.
(A) Introduction:
(1) This rule applies to the following scenarios:
(a) A provider certified to provide a service in a region wants to be certified to provide the same service in another region.
(b) A provider certified to provide a service in a region wants to be certified to provide the same service from an additional business site in the same region.
(c) A certified assisted living provider wants confirmation that more designated resident units in its RCF qualify as resident units under paragraph (C)(2)(c) of rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code than ODA's designee previously confirmed.
(2) This rule does not apply to the following scenarios:
(a) A certified assisted living provider wants to operate a separately-licensed RCF, because each certification applies to only one licensed RCF.
(b) A certified assisted living provider wants to operate from an additional building and ODH allows the provider to operate out of the existing and new buildings under one RCF license.
(B) Application: A certified provider may apply for certification in an additional region or from an additional business site in the same region, or for confirmation that more designated resident units in its RCF qualify as resident units under paragraph (C)(2)(c) of rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code than ODA's designee previously confirmed. An incomplete application expires if the provider does not complete the application within ninety days.
(C) Review: ODA's designee shall visit the provider's business site to conduct an on-site review to determine if the provider meets the requirements of this chapter to provide the service for which it is already certified in the additional region or from an additional business site in the same region, or to confirm that more designated resident units in its RCF qualify as resident units under paragraph (C)(2)(c) of rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code than ODA's designee previously confirmed. During a state of emergency declared by the governor, a federal public health emergency, or during another time if authorized by ODA, ODA's designee may conduct a desk review of the provider's business site in lieu of an on-site review. ODA's designee may conduct a desk review of the provider's business site instead of an on-site review if the provider's business site is outside of the designee's region.
(D) Approved application: ODA and its designee shall follow the process under paragraph (F) of rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code for an approved application or confirmation of designated resident units under paragraph (C)(2)(c) of rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Denied application: ODA and its designee shall follow the process under paragraph (H) of rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code for a denied application.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 8:40 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-02
(A) The purpose of this rule is to define the terms used in Chapter 5160-31 of the Administrative Code governing the preadmission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver program.
(B) "Assessment" means an evaluation used to obtain information about an individual including their condition, personal goals and preferences, functional limitations, health status, and other factors that are relevant to the authorization and provision of services. Information obtained from the assessment supports the determination of program eligibility and the development of the person-centered services plan.
(C) "Authorized representative" means as defined in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(D) "Case manager" means as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(E) "Centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS)" means the federal agency that is part of the United States department of health and human services, and that administers the medicaid program and approves HCBS waivers.
(F) "Financial management service (FMS)" means a support provided to waiver participants who direct some or all of their waiver services. In the PASSPORT waiver, this support is conducted as an administrative activity through an entity under contract with the state of Ohio. When used in conjunction with the participant-directed authorities available to individuals enrolled in PASSPORT, this support includes operating a payroll service for participant-employed workers and making required payroll withholdings.
(G) "Home and community-based services (HCBS)" means services furnished under the provisions set forth in 42 C.F.R. 441 Subpart G (October 1, 2024) that permit individuals to live in a home setting rather than in a facility. HCBS waiver services are approved by CMS for specific populations and are not otherwise available under the medicaid state plan.
(H) "Home first" means the component of the PASSPORT HCBS waiver program that offers priority enrollment in the waiver for certain individuals in accordance with section 173.521 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance or home and community-based services.
(J) "Level of care (LOC)" means the designation describing an individual's person's functional levels and nursing needs pursuant to the criteria defined in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(K) "Nursing Facility (NF)" means as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
(L) "ODA's designee" means as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(M) "ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" as defined in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(N) "PASSPORT" or "PASSPORT HCBS waiver program" means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code and approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid services.
(O) "Person-centered services plan" means as defined in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(P) "Provider" means an agency or a person with a signed medicaid provider agreement with ODM and certified by ODA.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:44 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-02
(A) Person-centered planning process.
Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) will lead the person-centered planning process where possible. The individual's authorized representative should have a participatory role, as needed, and as defined by the individual, unless Ohio law confers decision-making authority to the legal representative. All references to individuals include the role of the individual's authorized representative. In addition to being led by the individual receiving services and supports, the person-centered planning process will:
(1) Include a team of people chosen by the individual.
(2) Provide necessary information and support to ensure that the individual directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions.
(3) Be timely and occur at times and locations of convenience to the individual.
(4) Reflect cultural considerations of the individual. The process will be conducted by providing information in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited English proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Include strategies for solving conflict or disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants.
(6) Ensure that providers of HCBS for the individual, or those who have an interest in or are employed by a provider of HCBS for the individual will not provide case management, provider oversight, or develop the person-centered services plan.
(7) Offer informed choices to the individual regarding the services and supports he or she receives and from whom.
(8) Include a method for the individual to request updates to the person-centered services plan as needed. The individual may request a person-centered services plan review at any time.
(B) Person-centered services plan.
(1) The person-centered services plan describes the person-centered goals, objectives and interventions selected by the individual and team to support him or her in his or her community of choice. The person-centered services plan addresses the assessed needs of the individual by identifying medically-necessary services, natural supports, medical and professional staff, and community resources. The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify the setting in which the individual resides is chosen by the individual and document the alternative home and community-based settings that were considered by the individual.
(b) Reflect the individual's strengths.
(c) Reflect the individual's preferences.
(d) Reflect clinical and support needs as identified through the assessment process.
(e) Include the individual's identified goals and desired outcomes.
(f) Identify the services and supports (paid and unpaid) that will assist the individual to achieve identified goals, and the providers of those services and supports, including natural supports and those services the individual elects to self-direct. This includes all services and supports provided through private insurance, medicare, medicaid state plan, and waiver services.
(g) Address any risk factors and measures in place to minimize them, when needed.
(h) Include back-up plans that meet the needs of the individual.
(i) Reflect that the setting chosen by the individual is integrated in, and supports the full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as people not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(2) The person-centered services plan will document that any modification of the additional conditions for provider-owned or controlled residential settings set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code is supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the person-centered services plan. In these cases, the person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify a specific and individualized assessed need;
(b) Document the positive interventions and supports used prior to any modifications to the person-centered services plan;
(c) Document less intrusive methods of meeting the need that have been attempted but were unsuccessful;
(d) Include a clear description of the condition that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Include a regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the modification;
(f) Include established time limits for periodic reviews to determine if the modification is still necessary or can be terminated;
(g) Include informed consent of the individual; and
(h) Include an assurance that interventions and supports will not cause any harm to the individual.
(3) The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Be understandable to the individual receiving services and supports, and the people important in supporting him or her. At a minimum, it will be written in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited english proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) Identify the person and/or entity responsible for monitoring the plan.
(c) Be finalized and agreed to, with the informed consent of the individual in writing, and signed by all people and providers responsible for its implementation. Acceptable signatures include, but are not limited to a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. Any accommodations to the individual's or authorized representative's signature will be documented on the plan.
(d) Be distributed to the individual and other people involved in the plan.
(e) Prevent the provision of unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(f) Be reviewed and revised upon reassessment of functional need as required by 42 CFR 441.365(e) (as in effect on October 1, 2023), at least every twelve months, when the individual experiences a significant change, or at the request of the individual.
(C) Documentation standards.
(1) Documentation standards apply to entities delegated to perform assessments and care coordination activities for nursing facility-based waiver programs. Assessments and care coordination activities include in-person visits, telephone conversations, or email exchanges.
(2) Documentation for each assessment and care coordination activity will include the following:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Name and relationship to the individual for all that participate.
(c) Date of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(d) Location of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(e) Type of assessment or care coordination activity.
(f) Detailed description of the assessment or care coordination activity, including the reason for the activity, actions completed, outcome and next steps.
(3) Documentation of all assessments and care coordination activities will be:
(a) Written in a manner that is objective, accurate, and understandable to the individual as described in paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) Completed within three business days of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(c) Accessible to ODM in the system designated by ODM.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:51 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-2-02
(A) ODA publishes the list of PSA designations on its website. The existing PSA designations as of July 1, 2024 are retained unless changed through the process listed in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(B) ODA designates and make changes to designated PSAs according to 45 C.F.R. 1321.13 and section 173.011 of the Revised Code.
(C) Any person may submit an application to ODA requesting a change to one or more PSA designations, with supporting documentation addressing the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d), by emailing legal@age.ohio.gov and copying elderconnections@age.ohio.gov.
(D) ODA may initiate a change to one or more PSA designations by publishing a proposed order that includes consideration of the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d).
(E) ODA uses the following process on receipt of a complete application, or issuance of an ODA-proposed order, to change one or more PSA designations:
(1) Publish a notice of public hearing on ODA's website that includes instructions on ways to participate in the hearing, along with the ODA-proposed order or application, as applicable.
(2) Provide an email notice directly to affected AAAs, and interested parties who have subscribed to ODA's announcements on rules review that announces the publication of the public notice on ODA's website.
(3) Conduct a public hearing on the ODA-proposed order or application, as applicable, no fewer than thirty days after issuing the notice of public hearing.
(4) Prepare or revise the ODA-proposed order, as applicable, after considering all public testimony, then publish the proposed order or revised order on ODA's website.
(5) Comply with the adjudication hearing procedures in sections 119.05 to 119.09 of the Revised Code.
(6) Provide a notice of opportunity for hearing, with a proposed order that considers the factors in 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d) and any other relevant factor identified by ODA, to any applicant and each affected AAA.
(F) Any applicant or affected AAA may appeal an adverse ODA final order pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 1321.17.
(G) ODA may issue a provisional designation of a PSA if circumstances exist in which a provisional designation is needed to maintain service to consumers and comply with the Older Americans Act. The following standards apply to a provisional designation:
(1) The ODA order of provisional designation includes consideration of the factors under 45 C.F.R. 1321.13(d) and identifies the geographic boundaries of the provisional PSA.
(2) ODA may divide a PSA into one or more provisional PSAs.
(3) The provisional order remains in effect until ODA issues a final order of PSA designation, but not longer than one hundred eighty days, unless ODA extends the provisional order for an additional ninety days for good cause.
Last updated February 3, 2025 at 8:17 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.18
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Non-medical transportation" (transportation) means using a provider's vehicle and driver to transport individuals from one place to another for a non-medical purpose. "Non-medical transportation" does not include the following:
(a) Transportation otherwise available, or funded by, Ohio's medicaid program or another source.
(b) Transportation for a non-emergency medical purpose.
(c) Transportation being provided through a similar service in this chapter.
(d) Transportation that the individual's family, neighbors, friends, or community agencies are willing or legally responsible to provide to the individual free of charge.
(e) Escort or transportation by a participant-directed provider. (See rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code.)
(2) "Board of EMFTS" means the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services created under section 4765.02 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Bus" has the same meaning as in section 4513.50 of the Revised Code.
(4) "CLIA-certified laboratory" means a laboratory that ODH lists as a "CLIA Lab" in active status on the "Long-Term Care, Non Long-Term Care, & CLIA Health Care Provider Search" (http://publicapps.odh.ohio.gov/eid/Provider_Search.aspx).
(5) "EMT" means any of the emergency medical technicians defined in division (A), (B), or (C) of section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(6) "First responder" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified providers of non-medical transportation:
(1) General requirements:
(a) The provider is subject to the requirements for every ODA-certified provider in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Availability: The provider shall possess a back-up plan for transporting individuals when an agency provider's driver or vehicle is unavailable or when a non-agency provider or the provider's vehicle is unavailable.
(c) Transferring: As part of each trip, the driver shall help the individual safely transfer between the pick-up point and the vehicle, safely enter and exit the vehicle, and safely transfer between the vehicle and the destination point.
(d) Two-way communication: Providers are subject to the requirement in division (A)(1) of section 4766.14 of the Revised Code to provide drivers with a means of two-way communication, using either ambulette vehicle radios or cellular telephones, while transporting individuals.
(e) Provider types: ODA certifies only agency and non-agency providers to provide the transportation under this rule.
(2) Vehicle requirements:
(a) Maintenance: The provider shall maintain vehicles according to the manufacturer's maintenance schedule for each vehicle used to transport individuals. If the vehicle includes a wheelchair lift, the provider shall maintain the wheelchair lift according to the manufacturer's maintenance schedule for the wheelchair lift.
(b) Inspections: The provider shall conduct the following inspections on each vehicle used to transport individuals:
(i) An annual vehicle inspection on an ODA-approved form. The provider may use a vehicle for transporting individuals only if a mechanic who is certified by the national institute for automotive service excellence (i.e., "ASE-certified") or another mechanic approved by ODA's designee, inspected the vehicle no more than twelve months before and answers all questions on the form in the affirmative.
(ii) A daily inspection of any vehicle that transports individuals in a wheelchair. The provider may use a vehicle to transport individuals in a wheelchair only if, before the firs trip of the day, the provider inspected the vehicle to ensure that permanent fasteners, safety harnesses or belts, and access ramp or hydraulic lift are working and only if the provider retains a record of this inspection.
(c) Exemptions:
(i) A vehicle possessing a current, valid ambulette license is deemed to comply with paragraph (B)(2)(b)(i) of this rule by providing ODA or its designee with evidence of the vehicle's current, valid ambulette license.
(ii) A bus displaying a current, valid safety-inspection decal issued by the state highway patrol under Chapter 4501-52 of the Administrative Code is deemed to comply with paragraph (B)(2)(b)(i) of this rule.
(3) Driver requirements:
(a) Statutory requirements to hire: The provider may hire a person to be a driver only if the person meets all the requirements for drivers under divisions (A)(3) and (B) of section 4766.14 of the Revised Code, as amplified in paragraph (A) (8) of rule 4766-3-13 of the Administrative Code, subject to the following conditions:
(i) The applicant's first-aid training and cardiopulmonary-resuscitation training came from a training organization approved by the board of EMFTS (http://www.ems.ohio.gov/medical-transportation-faq.aspx).
(ii) The applicant's drug test results came from a CLIA-certified laboratory that declared the applicant to be free of alcohol, amphetamines, cannabinoids (THC), cocaine, opiates, or phencyclidine (PCP).
(iii) The provider complies with the background-check requirements in Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Additional requirements to hire: The provider may hire a person to be a driver only if the person meets all the following requirements:
(i) The applicant has held a current, valid driver's license for at least two years.
(ii) The applicant holds any driver's license endorsement necessary to operate the type of vehicle the applicant would drive.
(iii) The applicant understands written and oral instructions.
(iv) The applicant has the ability to comply with paragraph (B)(1)(c) of this rule.
(v) The applicant has the ability to conduct the daily vehicle inspection in paragraph (B)(2)(b)(ii) of this rule.
(vi) The applicant has the ability to collect the mandatory reporting items under paragraph (B)(4) of this rule.
(c) Passenger-assistance training: The provider may retain a driver only if the driver successfully completes a passenger-assistance training course approved by the board of EMFTS (http://www.ems.ohio.gov/medical-transportation-faq.aspx) no later than six months after the provider hires the driver.
(d) Exempted professionals: Providers hiring an applicant with a current, valid license or certificate to be one or more of the following professionals may demonstrate compliance with paragraphs (B)(3)(a), (B)(3)(b), and (B)(3)(c) of this rule by providing ODA or its designee with evidence the applicant possesses a current, valid license or certificate as one of the following professionals:
(i) An ambulette driver.
(ii) An EMT or first responder who passed the board of EMFTS' curriculum for an EMT or first responder, but does not necessarily hold a current, valid certification for either profession.
(iii) A driver for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission.
(4) Trip verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each trip provided to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a)(i) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Date of trip.
(c) Pick-up point and time of the pick up.
(d) Destination point and time of the drop off.
(e) Driver's name.
(f) Unique identifier of the driver to attest to providing the trip.
(g) Unique identifier of the individual to attest to receiving the trip.
(C) Jobs and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following for a job of non-medical transportation:
(a) The job as one trip, whether a one-way or round trip.
(b) The maximum rate allowable for a job.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for non-medical transportation.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.4
(A) "Choices home care attendant service" (service) means a service that provides one or more of the following activities to support the needs of an individual with impaired physical or cognitive functioning:
(1) Assisting the individual with money management and correspondence as directed by the individual, managing the home, handling personal affairs, and providing assistance with self-administration of medications, as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Assisting the individual with ADLs and IADLs.
(3) Homemaker activities listed in rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code when those activities are specified in the individual's service plan and are incidental to the activities in paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) of this rule or are essential to the health and welfare of the individual instead of other persons living with the individual.
(4) Escort and transportation.
(5) Providing an errand outside of the presence of the individual that is needed by the individual to maintain the individual's health and safety (e.g., picking up a prescription or groceries for the individual).
(6) The activities included in home maintenance and chores under rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code, including seasonal yard care and snow removal.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the choices home care attendant service:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Availability and scheduling:
(a) The provider shall maintain availability to provide this service as agreed upon with the individual and as authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(b) No participant-directed provider may provide this service in excess of the following limits:
(i) To more than five individuals per week.
(ii) For more than forty hours per week for any individual who employs the provider, unless the individual's case manager authorizes working more than forty hours per week due to an emergency that cannot be resolved by allowing another provider to provide the service after the fortieth hour.
(iii) For more than a total of fifty-six hours per week regardless of the number of individuals who employ the provider.
(3) Oversight: The individual who receives this service is the employer of record. As used in this paragraph, "employer of record" means the individual who employs the provider; supervises the provider; pays the appropriate state, federal, and local taxes; and pays premiums for worker's compensation and unemployment compensation insurance. A financial management service (FMS) acts as the agent of the common-law employer with the participant-directed provider the individual employs.
(4) Provider qualifications:
(a) Initial qualifications: A person may qualify to provide this service only if the person meets all the following qualifications:
(i) The person is an ODA-certified participant-directed provider or an ODA-certified agency provider.
(ii) The person is at least eighteen years of age.
(iii) The person has a valid social security number and at least one of the following current, valid, government-issued, photographic identification cards:
(a) Driver's license.
(b) State of Ohio identification card.
(c) United States of America permanent residence card.
(iv) The person reads, writes, and understands English at a level which enables the person to comply with this rule and rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(v) The person is able to effectively communicate with the individual.
(b) Qualifications to transport the individual:
(i) If the provider intends to transport the individual, before providing the first episode of transportation, the provider shall show ODA's designee a valid driver's license and valid insurance identification card to show that the provider has liability insurance for driving a vehicle which complies with the financial responsibility requirements in Chapter 4501:1-02 of the Administrative Code. A provider may transport an individual in a vehicle only if ODA's designee has verified that the vehicle is insured.
(ii) If the provider does not intend to transport the individual, the provider shall provide a written or electronic attestation to ODA's designee declaring the provider will not transport the individual unless the provider complies with paragraph (B)(4)(b)(i) of this rule before the first episode of transportation.
(c) Initial training: The provider shall successfully complete any training that the individual determined the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs by the deadline the individual establishes.
(d) Continuing education: The provider shall successfully complete eight units of training that the individual determined the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs by the deadline the individual establishes, but no later than the provider's anniversary certification date. A unit of training includes a course or training activity lasting up to an hour.
(5) Service verification:
(a) Until rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires a provider of this service to use EVV, the following are the mandatory reporting items that a provider retains on a time sheet that the individual provides through the FMS for each episode of service to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a)(i) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Individual's name.
(ii) Service date.
(iii) Provider's name.
(iv) Provider's arrival time.
(v) Provider's departure time.
(vi) Unique identifier of the individual to attest to receiving the service.
(vii) Unique identifier of the provider to attest to providing the service.
(b) The following are the mandatory reporting items that a provider retains on a task sheet that the individual provides through the FMS for each episode of service to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a)(i) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Description of the activities provided.
(ii) Unique identifier of the provider to attest to providing the service.
(iii) Unique identifier of the individual to attest to receiving the service.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following for the choices home care attendant service:
(a) The unit as fifteen minutes.
(b) The maximum rate allowable for a unit.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for the choices home care attendant service.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.8
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Homemaker" means a service enabling individuals to achieve and maintain clean, safe and healthy environments, assisting individuals to manage their personal appointments and day-to-day household activities, and ensuring individuals maintain their current living arrangements. Homemaker activities include the following when authorized in the person-centered services plan:
(a) Assistance with meal planning.
(b) Meal preparation, grocery purchase planning, and assisting individuals with shopping and other errands.
(c) Laundry, including washing, drying, folding, ironing, and putting away laundry in the individual's home and washing and drying at a laundromat if the individual does not have a working washer and dryer.
(d) House cleaning including dusting furniture, sweeping, vacuuming, and mopping floors; kitchen care including dishes, appliances, and counters; bathroom care; emptying and cleaning bedside commodes; changing bed linens; washing inside windows within reach from the floor; and removing trash.
(e) Errands outside of the presence of the individual which are needed by the individual to maintain the individual's health and safety (e.g., picking up a prescription or groceries for the individual).
(f) Acting as a travel attendant for individuals.
(2) "Aide" means the person who provides homemaker activities.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified providers of homemaker:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Eligible providers of homemaker are ODA-certified agency providers.
(3) Availability: The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to provide the service at least five days per week, including having a back-up plan for providing the service when the provider has no aide or aide supervisor available.
(4) Provider policies: The provider shall develop written or electronic personnel requirements, including all the following:
(a) Job descriptions for each position.
(b) Documentation of each employee's qualifications for the homemaker activities to be provided.
(5) Staff qualifications:
(a) Aides:
(i) General standard: No aide may provide an activity under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule unless the aide successfully completes training and competency evaluation on that activity.
(ii) Initial qualifications: A person qualifies to serve as an aide only if the person meets at least one of the following qualifications:
(a) The person meets at least one of the qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code, the training and competency evaluation comply with paragraph (C)(3)(e) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code, and the provider meets the verification requirements under paragraph (C)(3)(f) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The person successfully completed training and competency evaluation on any activity listed under paragraph (A)(1) of this rule that the person would provide as an aide. For example, a person who would provide only laundry activities as an aide would qualify to be an aide by successfully completing training and competency evaluation on laundry activities.
(iii) Before providing activities to individuals, the provider shall conduct a competency evaluation of any aide not listed on ODH's nurse aide registry as "active," "in good standing," or "expired" for any activity the aide is expected to provide to individuals.
(b) Supervisors: A person qualifies to serve as an aide supervisor only if the person meets one or more of the following qualifications:
(i) The person has a bachelor's or associate's degree in a health and human services area.
(ii) The person is an RN or LPN.
(iii) The person is a licensed independent social worker (LISW) or licensed social worker (LSW).
(iv) The person completed at least two years of work as an aide, as defined by this rule.
(c) All staff:
(i) Orientation: Before allowing any staff member to provide homemaker activities to an individual, the provider shall ensure that the aide successfully completes orientation on all the following topics:
(a) The provider's expectations of homemaker staff.
(b) The provider's ethical standards under rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(c) An overview of the provider's personnel policies.
(d) The organization and lines of communication of the provider's agency.
(e) Person-centered planning process.
(f) Incident-reporting procedures.
(g) Emergency procedures.
(h) Standard precautions for infection control, including hand washing and the disposal of bodily waste.
(ii) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each aide successfully completes a minimum of six hours of ODA-approved in-service training every twelve months on a topic related to an activity that the aide provides or may provide after successfully completing training with competency evaluation.
(6) Supervisory requirements:
(a) Initial: The supervisor shall complete an initial visit, which may occur at the aide's initial homemaker visit to the individual to define the expected activities of the homemaker aide and prepare a written or electronic activities plan consistent with the individual's person-centered services plan. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or federal public health emergency, the supervisor may conduct the visit by telephone, video conference, or in person at the individual's home.
(b) Subsequent: The supervisor shall complete an evaluation of the aide's compliance with the activities plan, the individual's satisfaction, and job performance during a home visit with the individual at least every ninety days. The supervisor may conduct each visit with or without the presence of the aide being evaluated. The supervisor may conduct the visit by telephone, video conference, or in person.
(c) Verification: In the individual's activity plan, the supervisor shall retain a record of the initial visit and each subsequent visit that includes either of the following:
(i) For an in-person visit, the date of the visit, an indication that the visit occurred in person at the individual's home, the supervisor's name, the supervisor's unique identifier, the individual's name, and a unique identifier of the individual or the individual's caregiver. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify that the supervisor provided the initial or subsequent visit without collecting a unique identifier of the individual or the individual's caregiver.
(ii) For a visit by telephone or video conference, the date of the visit, an indication of whether the visit was provided by telephone or video conference, the supervisor's name, the individual's name, and evidence that a visit occurred by telephone or video conference (e.g., a record automatically generated by telehealth software, a record showing that the supervisor's phone called the individual's phone, or clinical notes from the supervisor).
(7) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each episode of service: the individual's name, the date of service, a description of the activities provided, the name of the aide providing the activities, the aide's arrival and departure times, the unique identifier of the aide, and the unique identifier of the individual to attest to receiving the service.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of homemaker service as fifteen minutes.
(b) The maximum rate allowable for a unit of homemaker activities.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.11
(A) "Personal care" means hands-on assistance with ADLs and IADLs (when incidental to providing ADLs) in the individual's home and community.
(1) Personal care activities include the following when authorized in a person-centered services plan:
(a) Assisting the individual with managing the home, handling personal affairs, and providing assistance with self-administration of medications, as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Assisting the individual with ADLs and IADLs.
(c) Homemaker activities listed in rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code when those activities are specified in the individual's service plan and are incidental to the activities in paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) of this rule or are essential to the health and welfare of the individual rather than the individual's family.
(d) Providing an errand outside of the presence of the individual that is needed by the individual to maintain the individual's health and safety (e.g., picking up a prescription or groceries for the individual).
(2) Personal care activities do not include providing respite to the individual's caregiver.
(B) Qualifying provider types: Eligible providers of personal care are ODA-certified agency providers and ODA-certified participant-directed personal care providers.
(C) Requirements for ODA-certified agency providers of personal care:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Availability and staffing:
(a) The provider may accept a referral to provide personal care to an individual only if the provider has adequate staffing levels of PCAs and PCA supervisors to provide the number of hours ODA's designee authorized for each individual.
(b) The PCA receives supervision from an RN or LPN under the direction of an RN during all hours that PCAs are scheduled to work.
(c) The provider shall maintain a back-up plan for providing personal care when the provider has no PCA or PCA supervisor available.
(3) PCA qualifications and requirements:
(a) Initial qualifications: The provider may allow a person to serve as a PCA only if the person meets at least one of the following qualifications, the training and competency evaluation comply with paragraph (C)(3)(e) of this rule, and the provider meets the verification requirements under paragraph (C)(3)(f) of this rule:
(i) STNA: The person successfully completed a nurse aide training and competency evaluation program approved by ODH under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code.
(ii) Medicare: The person met the qualifications to be a medicare-certified home health aide according to one of the following sets of standards:
(a) The standards in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 and 484.36, if the person met those standards on or before January 12, 2018.
(b) The standards in 42 C.F.R. 484.80 and 484.115, if the person met those standards on or after January 13, 2018.
(iii) Previous experience: The person has at least one year of supervised employment experience as a home health aide or nurse aide, and has successfully completed a competency evaluation covering the topics listed under paragraph (C)(3)(a)(v)(b) of this rule.
(iv) Vocational programs: The person successfully completed the COALA home health training program or a certified vocational training and competency evaluation program in a health care field covering the topics listed under paragraph (C)(3)(a)(v)(b) of this rule.
(v) Other programs: The person successfully completed a training and competency evaluation program with the following characteristics:
(a) The training lasted at least thirty hours.
(b) All the following subjects were included in the program's training and its competency evaluation:
(i) Communication skills, including the ability to read, write, and make brief and accurate reports (oral, written, or electronic).
(ii) Observation, reporting, and retaining records of an individual's status and activities provided to the individual.
(iii) Reading and recording an individual's temperature, pulse, and respiration.
(iv) Basic infection control.
(v) Basic elements of body functioning and changes in body function that should be reported to a PCA supervisor.
(vi) Maintaining a clean, safe, and healthy environment, including house cleaning and laundry, dusting furniture, sweeping, vacuuming, and washing floors; kitchen care (including dishes, appliances, and counters), bathroom care, emptying and cleaning beside commodes and urinary catheter bags, changing bed linens, washing inside window within reach from the floor, removing trash, and folding, ironing, and putting away laundry.
(vii) Recognition of emergencies, knowledge of emergency procedures, and basic home safety.
(viii) The physical, emotional, and developmental needs of individuals, including privacy and respect for personal property.
(ix) Appropriate and safe techniques in personal hygiene and grooming including bed, tub, shower, and partial bath techniques; shampoo in sink, tub, or bed; nail and skin care; oral hygiene; toileting and elimination; safe transfer and ambulation; normal range of motion and positioning; and adequate nutrition and fluid intake.
(x) Meal preparation and nutrition planning, including special diet preparation; grocery purchase, planning, and shopping; and errands such as picking up prescriptions.
(b) Orientation: Before allowing a PCA or other employee to have direct, in-person contact with an individual, the provider shall ensure the PCA or other employee successfully completed orientation, which, at a minimum, addressed the following topics:
(i) The provider's expectations of employees.
(ii) The provider's ethical standards under rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) An overview of the provider's personnel policies.
(iv) The organization and lines of communication of the provider's agency.
(v) Incident-reporting procedures.
(vi) Emergency procedures.
(vii) Standard precautions for infection control, including hand washing and the disposal of bodily waste.
(c) Additional training: The provider shall ensure each PCA successfully completes additional training and competency evaluation if the PCA is expected to perform activities for which the PCA did not receive training or undergo competency evaluation under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of this rule.
(d) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each PCA complies with the requirement in section 173.525 of the Revised Code to successfully complete six hours of ODA-approved in-service training every twelve months. Agency- and program-specific orientation do not count toward the six hours.
(e) Acceptable training, orientation, and competency evaluation:
(i) An organization other than the provider may provide the orientation and training under paragraphs (C)(3)(b) to (C)(3)(d) of this rule. The training completed through https://mylearning.dodd.ohio.gov/ is free of charge.
(ii) The portion of training that is not competency evaluation may occur online.
(iii) The portion of competency evaluation that involves return demonstration only qualifies as competency evaluation under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of this rule if it is conducted in person.
(iv) ODA considers any person who meets one of the qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of this rule to meet the requirement under section 173.525 of the Revised Code for each PCA to successfully complete thirty hours of ODA-acceptable pre-service training even if the qualification did not involve thirty hours of training.
(f) Verification of compliance with PCA qualifications and requirements:
(i) The provider shall either retain copies of certificates of completion earned by each PCA after the PCA meets qualifications/requirements under paragraph (C)(3) of this rule for successfully completing any training and competency evaluation program, orientation, additional training, and in-service training under paragraph (C)(3) of this rule or record the following information for each PCA, and retain it, if it does not appear on the PCA's certificate of completion (or if the PCA did not receive a certificate of completion): name of the school or training organization, name of the course, training dates, and training hours successfully completed.
(ii) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of this rule by successfully completing a nurse aide training and competency evaluation program described in paragraph (C)(3)(a)(i) of this rule, the provider shall retain a copy of the search results from ODH's nurse aide registry (https://nurseaideregistry.odh.ohio.gov/Public/PublicNurseAideSearch) to verify that the registry listed the person as "active," "in good standing," or "expired."
(iii) If a person meets the initial qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of this rule only by the previous employment experience described in paragraph (C)(3)(a)(iii) of this rule, the provider shall also retain records to verify the former employer's name and contact information, the former PCA supervisor's name, the date the person began working for the former employer, and the date the person stopped working for the former employer.
(4) PCA supervisors:
(a) Qualifications: Section 173.525 of the Revised Code allows only an RN or LPN under the direction of an RN to qualify as a PCA supervisor.
(b) PCA supervisor visits:
(i) Initial: The PCA supervisor shall visit each individual in person at the individual's home to define the expected activities of the PCA and develop a written or electronic activity plan with the individual either before allowing a PCA to provide an episode of service to the individual or during the PCA's initial episode of service to the individual. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the PCA supervisor may conduct the initial visit by telephone, video conference, or in person at the individual's home.
(ii) Subsequent:
(a) The PCA supervisor shall visit the individual at least once every sixty days after the PCA's initial episode of service with the individual to evaluate compliance with the activities plan, the individual's satisfaction, and the PCA's performance. The PCA supervisor may conduct subsequent visits with or without the presence of the PCA being evaluated.
(b) If the PCA supervisor conducts at least two in-person visits per year, the PCA supervisor may conduct the remainder of the subsequent visits during the same year by telephone, video conference, or in person based upon the individual's needs. To comply, the PCA supervisor may conduct two subsequent in-person visits in the same year or the combination of an initial in-person visit and an in-person subsequent visit in the same year.
(iii) Verification: In the individual's record, the PCA supervisor shall retain a record of the initial visit and each subsequent visit that includes either of the following:
(a) For an in-person visit, the date of the visit, an indication that the visit occurred in person at the individual's home, the PCA supervisor's name, the PCA supervisor's unique identifier, the individual's name, and a unique identifier of the individual or the individual's caregiver. During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, the provider may verify that the PCA supervisor provided the initial or subsequent visit without collecting a unique identifier of the individual or the individual's caregiver.
(b) For a visit by telephone or video conference, the date of the visit, an indication of whether the visit was provided by telephone or video conference, the PCA supervisor's name, the individual's name, and evidence that a visit occurred by telephone or video conference (e.g., a record automatically generated by telehealth software, a record showing that the PCA supervisor's phone called the individual's phone, or clinical notes from the PCA supervisor).
(5) Provider policies: The provider shall develop, implement, comply with, and maintain written or electronic policies on all the following topics:
(a) Job descriptions for each position.
(b) Retaining records on how each PCA meets the qualifications in paragraph (C)(3) of this rule.
(6) Service verification:
(a) The following are the mandatory reporting items that a provider retains for each episode of personal care to comply with the requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a)(i) of rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code:
(i) Service date.
(ii) PCA's arrival time.
(iii) PCA's departure time.
(iv) Description of the activities provided.
(v) Name of each PCA in contact with the individual.
(vi) Unique identifier of each PCA in contact with the individual to attest to the accuracy of the record.
(vii) Unique identifier of the individual.
(b) The provider is subject to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code regarding EVV.
(c) The provider is subject to section 121.36 of the Revised Code.
(D) Every ODA-certified participant-directed provider of personal care shall comply with the requirements under paragraph (B) of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of personal care as fifteen minutes.
(b) The maximum rate allowable for one unit of personal care.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for personal care. According to that rule, if the same provider provides personal care during the same visit to more than one but fewer than four PASSPORT individuals in the same home, as identified in the individuals' person-centered services plans, the provider's payment rate for personal care provided to one person in the home is one hundred per cent of the per-unit rate listed in the provider agreement and seventy-five per cent of the per-unit rate for each subsequent PASSPORT individual in the home receiving services during the visit. As used in this paragraph, "in the same home" does not refer to a PASSPORT individual who resides alone in an apartment building where another individual may reside alone in a separate apartment.
Last updated August 28, 2025 at 8:54 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.20
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Enhanced community living" (ECL) means a service promoting aging in place, in multi-family affordable housing, through access to on-site, individually-tailored, health-related, and supportive interventions for individuals who have functional deficits resulting from one or more chronic health conditions.
(a) ECL includes the following activities:
(i) The establishment of measurable health goals.
(ii) The identification of modifiable healthcare risks.
(iii) The provision of regular health-status monitoring interventions. "Health-status monitoring interventions" mean taking and recording vital signs, weight, nutrition, and hydration statuses.
(iv) Assistance with accessing additional allied health services.
(v) The provision of, or arrangement for, education on self-managing chronic diseases or chronic health conditions.
(vi) Daily wellness checks. "Daily wellness check" means an activity of ECL through which a PCA observes any changes in the individual's level of functioning and determine what, if any, modifications to the activity plan are needed.
(vii) Access to planned and intermittent personal care under rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(viii) Activities to assist an individual who is returning home following a hospital or nursing facility stay.
(b) ECL does not include activities provided while the individual is receiving a similar service under this chapter.
(2) "Chronic health condition" means a condition that lasts twelve months or longer and meets one or both of the following tests:
(a) It places limitation on self-care, independent living, and social interactions.
(b) It results in the need for ongoing intervention with medical services, products, and equipment.
(3) "Intermittent" means stopping and starting at intervals; pausing from time to time; periodic, not pre-determined designated time periods (e.g., ten a.m. to eleven a.m.) or for designated lengths of time (e.g., fifteen minutes or two hours).
(4) "Multi-family affordable housing" means a housing site meeting all of the following requirements:
(a) The housing site uses a landlord-tenant rental agreement that complies with Chapter 5321. of the Revised Code.
(b) The housing site provides a minimum of six units of housing under one roof.
(c) The housing site receives assistance through one of the following programs:
(i) Federally-assisted housing program under 24 C.F.R. Part 5.
(ii) Project-based voucher program under 24 C.F.R. Part 983.
(iii) Low-income housing tax credit program based on Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(5) "Person-centered activity" means an activity directed by the individual's informed choices that is offered at the time and place most preferable to the individual, in a safe and unhurried manner, and in a way that honors the individual's individuality and preferences.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified providers of ECL:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Person-centered activity plan:
(a) Development: Before the provider provides the initial episode of ECL to an individual, the PCA supervisor shall do both of the following:
(i) Assess the individual's health goals, modifiable health risks, and planned and anticipated intermittent personal care needs.
(ii) Develop a person-centered activity plan with the individual that describes the interventions the individual has chosen to reach the individual's identified health goals, to minimize the individual's modifiable health risks, and to meet the individual's planned and anticipated intermittent personal care needs. The provider shall obtain a unique identifier of the individual to attest that the individual was involved in the development of the person-centered activity plan.
(b) Regular monitoring: After the individual begins to receive ECL, the PCA supervisor shall do both of the following:
(i) Revise the person-centered activity plan in fewer than five days after each hospital or nursing facility stay, and as otherwise needed to reflect changes in the individual's status, condition, preferences, and response to ECL.
(ii) Facilitate an in-person review of the person-centered activity plan with the individual, the primary team, the individual's case manager, the individual's caregiver (if the individual has a caregiver), and the housing site's service coordinator (if the housing site has a service coordinator) every sixty days to evaluate the effectiveness of the plan in addressing the individual's health goals, reducing modifiable risks, and meeting planned and anticipated intermittent personal care needs.
(3) Primary team: The provider shall provide person-centered activities to individuals through a primary team that consists of PCAs and PCA supervisors who regularly provide activities within a given housing site and, as a result, are familiar with the individuals in the housing site.
(4) Staffing levels:
(a) The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to provide each ECL activity.
(b) The PCA supervisor shall maintain accessibility to respond to individuals' emergencies in the housing site during any time that a PCA is providing ECL to an individual in the housing site.
(c) The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to provide person-centered ECL seven days a week for a minimum of six hours a day.
(d) During each hour the provider has a PCA providing ECL to an individual in a housing site, the provider shall ensure that any other individual has a mechanism to contact a PCA to request assistance with intermittent and unplanned personal care needs related to the measurable health goals and modifiable healthcare risks described in the individual's activity plan.
(e) Each day, the provider shall provide adequate staffing levels of on-site PCAs for no fewer than six hours (or, twenty-four units) to meet the individuals' assessed, intermittent, and unscheduled healthcare needs.
(f) The PCA supervisor or another RN (or LPN under the direction of an RN) shall monitor the health status of individuals for no fewer than three hours (or, twelve units) each week.
(g) The provider shall replace any PCA on the primary team who is absent with a back-up PCA who is familiar with the housing site and the individuals residing in the housing site. A PCA supervisor shall supervise the primary team and any back-up PCAs.
(5) Provider qualifications:
(a) Type of provider: A provider qualifies to provide ECL only if both of the following conditions are met:
(i) ODA certifies the provider as an agency provider of both personal care and ECL.
(ii) The provider is a legal entity distinct from the housing site owner and property manager so the site is not subject to licensure, as defined in Chapters 3721. and 5119. of the Revised Code, and safeguards are in place to prevent any unremedied conflicts of interest.
(b) Staff qualifications:
(i) PCA supervisor: A person qualifies to be a PCA supervisor only if the person meets the qualifications in paragraph (C)(4)(a) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PCAs: A person qualifies to serve as a PCA only if the person meets at least one of the qualifications under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Staff training:
(i) A PCA qualifies to have direct, in-person contact with an individual only after the PCA complies with the orientation requirements in paragraphs (C)(3)(b), (C)(3)(e), and (C)(3)(f) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) In-service training: Each PCA is subject to the in-service training requirements in paragraphs (C)(3)(d), (C)(3)(e), and (C)(3)(f) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(6) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items to include in each individual's daily activity record:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Date of service.
(c) Activities provided as authorized in the person-centered activity plan.
(d) Activities provided in response to daily, intermittent needs.
(e) Description of the individual's status and response to the activities provided.
(f) Total number of units provided to the individual.
(g) Name and unique identifier of the provider's staff person who provided the activities to attest to providing the activities.
(h) Unique identifier of the individual, to attest to receiving the activities.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of ECL as fifteen minutes.
(b) The maximum rate allowable for one unit of ECL.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for ECL.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02 ODA provider certification: requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified.
Introduction: This rule presents requirements for every type of provider to become, and to remain, certified. For agency and assisted living providers, the requirements in this rule include requirements for each provider's employees.
(A) Requirements for every type of provider to become certified:
(1) Qualifications: The provider shall meet all of the following:
(a) Any qualification (e.g., licensure, training requirements, staffing levels) required by this chapter.
(b) Any qualification (e.g., licensure, certification, registration) required by applicable federal, state, and local laws, including the requirement under 45 C.F.R. Part 162 to have a national provider identifier (NPI), if applicable.
(2) Criminal records checks and database reviews: Sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code establish the requirements for criminal records checks and database reviews. Rule 173-9-02 of the Administrative Code lists exceptions to the applicability of those requirements. Rule 5160-1-17.8 of the Administrative Code establishes additional provider screening requirements for participation in a medicaid-funded program. Section 3721.121 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-13 of the Administrative Code apply to assisted living providers. Section 3740.11 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code apply to providers who need a home health license.
(3) Business site:
(a) The provider shall maintain a business site(s) from which to conduct business, unless the provider is a participant-directed provider.
(b) The provider's business site(s) for providing services are subject to the HCBS setting requirements in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code. Additionally, any such business site used for providing ADS or assisted living services may be subject to federal heightened scrutiny under 42 C.F.R. 441.301(c)(5)(v) and rules 173-39-03 and 173-39-03.1 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Each business site in which the provider retains records (e.g., headquarters, regional offices) shall have a designated, locked storage space for retaining records that is accessible to ODA and its designee, HHS, the state auditor's office, and ODM.
(4) Contact information: The provider shall have a valid email address and telephone number.
(5) Insurance: The provider shall have the following, unless the provider is a participant-directed provider:
(a) A minimum of one million dollars in commercial liability insurance, which includes coverage for individuals' losses due to theft or property damage. In lieu of commercial liability insurance, a non-agency provider may have a minimum of one million dollars in professional liability insurance, which includes coverage for individuals' losses due to theft or property damage.
(b) Written instructions any individual may use to obtain payment for loss due to theft or property damage caused by the provider, or if applicable, the provider's employee.
(6) Provider agreements: The provider shall enter into, comply with, and maintain an active status with the following:
(a) A medicaid provider agreement under rules 5160-1-17.2 and 5160-1-17.4 of the Administrative Code.
(b) A provider agreement, with ODA's designee for the region in which the provider seeks certification to provide services pursuant to rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code
(7) Incident reporting: The provider shall have a written or electronic policy on documenting incidents which complies with paragraph (B)(3)(b) of this rule.
(8) Electronic visit verification (EVV): Rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code (until July 1, 2024) or Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code (on or after July 1, 2024) establishes the requirements for certain providers to have an ODM-approved EVV system in place.
(B) Requirements for every type of provider to remain certified:
(1) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraph (A) of this rule.
(2) Service-related: For any service ODA certified the provider to furnish, the provider shall report all mandatory reporting items to verify the service to ODA or its designee and comply with any rule in this chapter regulating the provision of the service.
(3) Reporting:
(a) APS: Section 5101.63 of the Revised Code, as applicable, establishes a requirement for the provider to report any reasonable cause to believe an individual suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation to the local adult protective services program. The provider shall also notify ODA or its designee within one business day after becoming aware of the reasonable cause.
(b) Significant changes: The provider shall notify ODA or its designee no later than one business day after the provider is aware of any significant change that may affect the individual's service needs or safety, including one or more of the following:
(i) The provider does not provide an authorized service at the time, or for the period of time, authorized by ODA's designee.
(ii) The individual moves to another address.
(iii) The individual's repeated refusal of services.
(iv) Any incident that is subject to the incident-reporting requirements in rule 5160-44-05 of the Administrative Code.
(v) Any other significant change in the individual's physical, mental, or emotional status or the individual's environment that affects the individual's service needs or safety.
(c) Contact information: The provider shall notify ODA or its designee of any change in the provider's telephone number, mailing address, or email address within seven days after the change.
(d) Last day of service: The provider shall notify the individual and ODA's designee in writing at least thirty days before the last day the provider provides services to the individual, unless one or more of the following occurs:
(i) The individual has been hospitalized, placed in a long-term care facility, or is deceased.
(ii) The health or safety of the individual or provider is at serious, imminent risk.
(iii) The individual chooses to no longer receive services from the provider.
(iv) The provider is an assisted living provider, in which case paragraph (D)(4)(d) of this rule applies.
(4) Confidentiality: The provider is subject to all state and federal laws and regulations governing individual confidentiality including sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code, 42 C.F.R. 431.300 to 431.307, and 45 C.F.R. parts 160, 162, and 164.
(5) Direct-care worker relationships: Rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code establishes standards for which relationships are eligible for payment for providing services.
(6) Volunteers: The provider shall supervise the provider's volunteers.
(7) Person-centered planning: The provider is subject to the person-centered planning requirements in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Ethical, professional, respectful, and legal service standards: The provider shall not engage in any unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior including the following:
(a) Consuming alcohol while providing services to the individual.
(b) Consuming medicine, drugs, or other chemical substances in a way that is illegal, unprescribed, or impairs the provider from providing services to the individual.
(c) Accepting, obtaining, or attempting to obtain money, or anything of value, including gifts or tips, from the individual or his or her household or family members.
(d) Engaging the individual in sexual conduct, or in conduct a reasonable person would interpret as sexual in nature, even if the conduct is consensual.
(e) Leaving the individual's home when scheduled to provide a service for a purpose not related to providing the service without notifying the agency supervisor, the individual's emergency contact person, any identified caregiver, or ODA's designee.
(f) Failing to cooperate with or treating ODA or its designee respectfully.
(g) Engaging in any activity while providing a service that may distract the provider from providing the service as authorized, including the following:
(i) Watching television, movies, videos, or playing games on computers, personal phones, or other electronic devices whether owned by the individual, provider, or the provider's staff.
(ii) Non-care-related socialization with a person other than the individual (e.g., a visit from a person who is not providing care to the individual; making or receiving a personal telephone call; or, sending or receiving a personal text message, email, or video).
(iii) Providing care to a person other than the individual.
(iv) Smoking tobacco or any other material in any type of smoking equipment, including cigarettes, electronic cigarettes, vaporizers, hookahs, cigars, or pipes.
(v) Sleeping.
(vi) Bringing a child, friend, relative, or anyone else, or a pet, to the individual's place of residence.
(vii) Discussing religion or politics with the individual and others.
(viii) Discussing personal issues with the individual or any other person.
(h) Engaging in behavior that causes, or may cause, physical, verbal, mental, or emotional distress or abuse to the individual including publishing photos of the individual on social media without the individual's written or electronic consent.
(i) Engaging in behavior a reasonable person would interpret as inappropriate involvement in the individual's personal relationships.
(j) Making decisions, or being designated to make decisions, for the individual in any capacity involving a declaration for mental health treatment, power of attorney, durable power of attorney, guardianship, or authorized representative, unless otherwise permitted under rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code.
(k) Selling to, or purchasing from, the individual products or personal items, unless the provider is the individual's family member who does so only when not providing services.
(l) Consuming the individual's food or drink, or using the individual's personal property without his or her consent.
(m) Taking the individual to the provider's business site, unless the business site is an ADS center, RCF, or (if the provider is a participant-directed provider) the individual's home.
(n) Engaging in behavior constituting a conflict of interest, or taking advantage of, or manipulating services resulting in an unintended advantage for personal gain that has detrimental results to the individual, the individual's family or caregivers, or another provider.
(9) Training: The provider shall participate in ODA's or its designee's mandatory free provider training sessions.
(10) Records and monitoring:
(a) Records retention:
(i) Service records: The provider shall retain all records necessary (including activity plans, assessments (if required), permits (if required), and all mandatory reporting items to verify an episode of service), and in such form, so as to fully disclose the extent of the services the provider provided, and significant business transactions, until all of the following periods of time have passed:
(a) Six years after the date the provider receives payment for the service.
(b) The date on which ODA, its designee, ODM, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes a review of the records and any findings are resolved.
(c) The date on which the auditor of the state of Ohio, the inspector general, or a duly-authorized law enforcement official concludes an audit of the records and any findings are resolved.
(ii) Qualification records: Each provider shall retain all records regarding the provider's or an employee's qualifications to provide a service for the duration of the provider's certification or the duration of the employee's employment and for six years after the provider is no longer certified or no longer retains the employee. Qualification records include records on background checks, initial qualifications, orientation, and training.
(iii) Electronic records: The provider may use an electronic system to collect or retain records.
(b) Compliance reviews: The provider shall participate in good faith in any compliance reviews under rule 173-39-04 of the Administrative Code and assist ODA and its designee with scheduling those reviews.
(c) Access: The provider shall, upon request, immediately provide representatives of ODA, its designee, HHS, the state auditor's office, and ODM with access to its business site(s) during the provider's normal business hours, a place to work in its business site(s), and access to policies, procedures, and records for each unit of service billed.
(11) Payment:
(a) The provider may bill for a service only if the provider complies with the requirements under all applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including service-verification requirements.
(b) ODA's obligation to pay the provider for the costs of services provided as a certified provider is subject to the hold and review process described in rule 5160-1-27.2 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The provider shall accept the payment rates established in its provider agreement with ODA's designee as payment in full for the services it provides, and not seek any additional payment for services from the individual or any other person.
(d) The provider may provide a service not authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan, but ODA (or its designee) pays a provider only for providing services authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan.
(12) Other laws: The provider is subject to all applicable federal, state, and local laws, rules, and regulations and is responsible for ensuring all subcontractors comply with all applicable federal, state, and local laws, rules, and regulations.
(13) Rules updates: The provider shall subscribe to receive email updates on ODA's rules through https://aging.ohio.gov.
(C) Requirements for specific types of providers to become certified:
(1) Agency providers:
(a) Disclosures: The provider shall disclose the following:
(i) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider.
(ii) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider who was convicted of a felony under a state or federal law.
(iii) A table of organization clearly identifying lines of administrative, advisory, contractual, and supervisory responsibilities.
(iv) The active registration as a business entity with the Ohio secretary of state.
(b) Attestations: The provider shall provide ODA or its designee with written or electronic attestations on the following:
(i) The provider's compliance with 45 C.F.R. 80.4 regarding the provision of services.
(ii) The provider's compliance with the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972, federal wage-and-hour laws, and workers' compensation laws regarding the recruitment and employment of persons.
(iii) The provider's payment of all applicable federal, state, and local income and employment taxes for the most recent year.
(c) Policies: The provider shall have written policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation (or an electronic record of policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation) that include requirements for its employees to provide services in a manner compliant with paragraph (B)(8) of this rule.
(2) Non-agency providers: The provider shall provide a written or electronic attestation to ODA or its designee that the provider paid all applicable federal, state, and local income and employment taxes.
(3) Participant-directed providers: A person may qualify to become a participant-directed provider only if the person meets the requirements in rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Assisted living providers:
(a) Preemption: The provider shall acknowledge that any statute governing, or rule regulating, the assisted living program supersedes any clause in the RCF's resident agreement.
(b) License: The provider shall have an RCF license issued under Chapter 3701-16 of the Administrative Code and comply with section 3721.121 of the Revised Code.
(c) Identifying key persons: The provider shall disclose the following:
(i) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider.
(ii) The name of any person with an ownership interest in the provider who was convicted of a felony under a state or federal law.
(iii) A table of organization clearly identifying lines of administrative, advisory, contractual, and supervisory responsibilities.
(d) Attestations: The provider shall provide ODA or its designee with written or electronic attestations on the following:
(i) The provider's compliance with 45 C.F.R. 80.4 regarding the provision of services.
(ii) The provider's compliance with the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972, federal wage-and-hour laws, and workers' compensation laws regarding the recruitment and employment of persons.
(e) Policies: The provider shall have written policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation (or an electronic record of policies, bylaws, or articles of incorporation) that include the following:
(i) A requirement for the residents' rights policy that the provider adopts under section 3721.12 of the Revised Code to apply the prohibition against unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior under paragraph (B)(8) of this rule to its employees.
(ii) A requirement for the policy that the provider adopts under rule 3701-64-02 of the Administrative Code on reporting abuse, neglect, or exploitation to ODH to apply the requirement under paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule to report abuse, neglect, or exploitation to ODA or its designee to its employees.
(iii) A requirement for the policy that the provider adopts under paragraph (B) of rule 3701-16-12 of the Administrative Code to apply the requirement under paragraph (B)(3)(b) of this rule to report incidents to ODA or its designee to its employees.
(D) Requirements for specific types of providers to remain an ODA-certified provider:
(1) Agency providers: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(1) of this rule.
(2) Non-agency providers: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(2) of this rule.
(3) Participant-directed providers:
(a) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(3) of this rule.
(b) Records retention: In addition to the records-retention requirements under paragraph (B)(10)(a) of this rule, the provider shall store the individual's records in the home of the individual in a physical location or an electronic device that is accessible to the provider, individual, and ODA or its designee.
(4) Assisted living providers:
(a) Continuation: The provider shall remain in compliance with all requirements under paragraphs (B) and (C)(4) of this rule.
(b) Payment:
(i) The assisted living program does not pay for any service the provider provides to an individual before ODA's designee enrolls the individual into the program and before ODA's designee authorizes the service in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) If an individual is absent from the RCF, the provider shall not accept a payment for the service under rules 173-39-02.16 and 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code or charge the individual an additional fee for the service or to hold the unit during the individual's absence.
(c) Transfers/discharges: Section 3721.16 of the Revised Code establishes the terms for transferring or discharging an individual.
(d) Last day of service: If the provider terminates its medicaid provider agreement, pursuant to section 3721.19 of the Revised Code, or if the provider plans to stop providing services to an individual, then it shall provide written notification to the individual and to ODA's designee at least ninety days before terminating the medicaid provider agreement or provision of services to the individual.
Last updated April 1, 2025 at 7:45 AM
History
- Effective: April 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-9-02
(A) Applicability: This chapter applies to every paid direct-care position unless this rule states otherwise. (For more information, please see the tables to appendix A to rule 173-9-04 of the Administrative Code.)
(B) Inapplicability: This chapter does not apply to the following positions:
(1) A volunteer position.
(2) A position whose sole duty is transporting consumers under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code (i.e., while working for a county transit system, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission).
(3) An ambulette driver employed by an organization licensed under Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.
(4) A position in a residential care facility. (See the background check requirements in Chapter 3701-13 of the Administrative Code.)
(5) A position providing direct care, as defined in section 3740.01 of the Revised Code, for a provider that needs a home health license under Chapter 3740. of the Revised Code. (See the background check requirements in Chapter 3701-60 of the Administrative Code.)
(6) An attorney licensed to practice law in this state.
(7) A person who is not licensed to practice law in this state, but, at the direction of an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, assists the attorney in the attorney's provision of legal services.
Last updated February 2, 2026 at 8:00 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-17.8
(A) In accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.410 (as in effect October 1, 2019) and rule 5160-1-17 of the Administrative Code in order to become an eligible provider, a provider must meet the screening requirements described in this rule and in section 5164.34 of the Revised Code and pay an applicable application fee if required in the appendix to this rule. Provider screening and application fees are required at the time of enrollment and revalidation as defined in rule 5160-1-17.4 of the Administrative Code.
(1) Exemptions.
(a) If a provider is required to participate in the medicare program as a condition of enrollment in medicaid or elects to participate in the medicare program and has met the provider screening requirements and paid an applicable application fee to the centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS) or its designee, the provider is exempt from the application fee requirements set forth in this rule.
(b) If a provider has met the provider screening requirements and paid an applicable application fee to another state medicaid agency or its designee, the provider is exempt from the application fee requirements set forth in this rule.
(c) A provider must provide documentation to support it meets the criteria for an exemption described in paragraphs (A)(1)(a) and (A)(1)(b) of this rule.
(d) When employed by or independently contracted with an entity certified by the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services, the following are exempt from the provisions of paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(4) of this rule when providing services for the entity.
(i) Certified peer recovery supporters as defined in rule 5122-29-15.1 of the Administrative Code;
(ii) Practitioners licensed or certified under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code;
(iii) Practitioners licensed or certified under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code.
(2) The appendix to this rule sets forth:
(a) The screening risk level assigned to each provider type in accordance with paragraph (B) of this rule; and
(b) The provider types that must pay an application fee in accordance with paragraph (G) of this rule.
(B) The appropriate screening based on screening risk level must be given to all service locations of an enrolled provider. Providers must disclose all service locations at time of enrollment and notify the department of changes or additional service locations within thirty days of the change in order to be reimbursed for services delivered at that location.
(C) In accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.452 (as in effect October 1, 2019), the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) reserves the right to conduct additional screenings and background checks as determined necessary by ODM or its designee.
(D) Screening requirements differ by risk level. If more than one risk level could apply to a provider, the highest level of screening is required.
(1) Limited.
(a) Providers are subject to verification that they meet any applicable medicaid requirements as stated in agency 5160 of the Administrative Code for their provider type; and
(b) Providers are subject to license verifications, including state licensure verification in states other than Ohio; and
(c) Providers are subject to database checks on a pre- and post-enrollment basis to ensure that providers continue to meet the enrollment criteria for their provider type.
(i) Database checks must confirm the identity and exclusion status of providers and any person with a five per cent or greater ownership or control interest; or any person who is an agent or an individual (including a general manager, business manager, administrator, director, or consultant) who directly or indirectly manages, advises, or supervises any element of the practices, finances, or operations of the provider entity.
(ii) Databases to be checked include, but are not limited to, the social security administration's death master file, the national plan and provider enumeration systems (NPPES), the list of excluded individuals/entities maintained by the office of the inspector general, health and human services, the medicare exclusion database (MED), or the system for awards management (SAM), the list of providers terminated by another state's medicaid program, the nurse aid registry maintained by the Ohio department of health and the abuser registry maintained by the Ohio department of developmental disabilities.
(iii) A provider is disqualified from receiving a medicaid provider agreement during the time the provider is on one or more of the following registries or databases:
(a) The social security administration's death master file;
(b) The list of excluded individuals or entities maintained by the office of the inspector general, health and human services;
(c) The medicare exclusion database (MED;
(d) The list of providers terminated by another state's medicaid program;
(e) The abuser registry maintained by the Ohio department of developmental disabilities;
(f) The system for awards management (SAM) list of individuals or entities with an exclusion;
(g) The nurse aid registry abuse listing maintained by the Ohio department of health.
(2) Moderate.
(a) Providers are subject to the requirements in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule; and
(b) Providers are subject to on-site visits.
(i) Pre- and post-enrollment site visits by ODM or its designee will verify that information provided to ODM or its designee is accurate and to determine compliance with medicaid enrollment requirements.
(ii) Once enrolled, providers must allow CMS or its agents or contractors, or ODM or its agents or contractors to conduct unannounced on-site inspections of any and all provider locations.
(3) High.
(a) Providers are subject to the requirements in paragraphs (D)(1) and (D)(2)(b) of this rule; and
(b) Each person with a five per cent or greater ownership or control interest with the provider is subject to a criminal background check and is required to submit to a fingerprint-based background check within thirty days of submission of the application in a form and manner determined by ODM, or its designee.
(E) The following sets forth the exclusionary offenses and exclusion time periods from participation in the medicaid program:
(1) Tier I. Permanent exclusion.
(a) Individuals who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code are permanently excluded from participation in the medicaid program:
(i) 2903.01 (aggravated murder);
(ii) 2903.02 (murder);
(iii) 2903.03 (voluntary manslaughter);
(iv) 2903.11 (felonious assault);
(v) 2903.15 (permitting child abuse);
(vi) 2903.16 (failing to provide for a functionally-impaired person);
(vii) 2903.34 (patient abuse or neglect);
(viii) 2903.341 (patient endangerment);
(ix) 2905.01 (kidnapping);
(x) 2905.02 (abduction);
(xi) 2905.32 (human trafficking);
(xii) 2905.33 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents);
(xiii) 2907.02 (rape);
(xiv) 2907.03 (sexual battery);
(xv) 2907.04 (unlawful sexual conduct with a minor, formerly corruption of a minor);
(xvi) 2907.05 (gross sexual imposition);
(xvii) 2907.06 (sexual imposition);
(xviii) 2907.07 (importuning);
(xix) 2907.08 (voyeurism);
(xx) 2907.12 (felonious sexual penetration, as that offense existed prior to September 3, 1996);
(xxi) 2907.31 (disseminating matter harmful to juveniles);
(xxii) 2907.32 (pandering obscenity);
(xxiii) 2907.321 (pandering obscenity involving a minor);
(xxiv) 2907.322 (pandering sexually-oriented matter involving a minor);
(xxv) 2907.323 (illegal use of a minor in nudity-oriented material or performance);
(xxvi) 2909.22 (soliciting or providing support for act of terrorism);
(xxvii) 2909.23 (making terroristic threats);
(xxviii) 2909.24 (terrorism);
(xxix) 2913.40 (medicaid fraud);
(xxx) If related to another offense under paragraph (E)(1)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity); or
(b) A conviction related to fraud, theft, embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other financial misconduct involving a federal or state-funded program, excluding the disqualifying offenses set forth in section 2913.46 of the Revised Code (illegal use of supplemental nutrition assistance program (SNAP) or women, infants, and children (WIC) program benefits) and paragraph (E)(2)(a)(xiii) of this rule; or
(c) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in paragraph (E)(1)(a) or (E)(1)(b) of this rule.
(2) Tier II. Ten-year exclusionary period.
(a) Individuals who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code are excluded from participation in the medicaid program for a period of ten years from the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole:
(i) 2903.04 (involuntary manslaughter);
(ii) 2903.041 (reckless homicide);
(iii) 2905.04 (child stealing, as that offense existed prior to July 1, 1996);
(iv) 2905.05 (child enticement);
(v) 2905.11 (extortion);
(vi) 2907.21 (compelling prostitution);
(vii) 2907.22 (promoting prostitution);
(viii) 2907.23 (enticement or solicitation to patronize a prostitute; procurement of a prostitute for another);
(ix) 2909.02 (aggravated arson);
(x) 2909.03 (arson);
(xi) 2911.01 (aggravated robbery);
(xii) 2911.11 (aggravated burglary);
(xiii) 2913.46 (illegal use of SNAP or WIC program benefits);
(xiv) 2913.48 (worker's compensation fraud);
(xv) 2913.49 (identity fraud);
(xvi) 2917.02 (aggravated riot);
(xvii) 2923.12 (carrying concealed weapons);
(xviii) 2923.122 (illegal conveyance or possession of deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone);
(xix) 2923.123 (illegal conveyance, possession, or control of deadly weapon or ordnance into courthouse);
(xx) 2923.13 (having weapons while under a disability);
(xxi) 2923.161 (improperly discharging a firearm at or into a habitation or school);
(xxii) 2923.162 (discharge of firearm on or near prohibited premises);
(xxiii) 2923.21 (improperly furnishing firearms to minor);
(xxiv) 2923.32 (engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity);
(xxv) 2923.42 (participating in a criminal gang);
(xxvi) 2925.02 (corrupting another with drugs);
(xxvii) 2925.03 (trafficking in drugs);
(xxviii) 2925.04 (illegal manufacture of drugs or cultivation of marijuana);
(xxix) 2925.041 (illegal assembly or possession of chemicals for the manufacture of drugs);
(xxx) 3716.11 (placing harmful or hazardous objects in food or confection); or
(xxxi) If related to an offense under paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity); or
(b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described under paragraph (E)(2)(a) of this rule.
(c) If the individual has been convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed in paragraph (E)(2)(a) or (E)(2)(b) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed in paragraph (E)(2)(a), (E)(3)(a), (E)(3)(b), (E)(4)(a), or (E)(4)(b) of this rule, the individual is subject to a fifteen-year exclusionary period beginning on the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole for the most recent offense.
(3) Tier III. Seven-year exclusionary period.
(a) Individuals who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code are excluded from participation in the medicaid program for a period of seven years from the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole:
(i) 959.13 (cruelty to animals);
(ii) 959.131 (prohibitions concerning companion animals);
(iii) 2903.12 (aggravated assault);
(iv) 2903.21 (aggravated menacing);
(v) 2903.211 (menacing by stalking);
(vi) 2905.12 (coercion);
(vii) 2909.04 (disrupting public services);
(viii) 2911.02 (robbery);
(ix) 2911.12 (burglary);
(x) 2913.47 (insurance fraud);
(xi) 2917.01 (inciting to violence);
(xii) 2917.03 (riot);
(xiii) 2917.31 (inducing panic);
(xiv) 2919.22 (endangering children):
(xv) 2919.25 (domestic violence);
(xvi) 2921.03 (intimidation);
(xvii) 2921.11 (perjury);
(xviii) 2921.13 (falsification, falsification in a theft offense, falsification to purchase a firearm, or falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license);
(xix) 2921.34 (escape);
(xx) 2921.35 (aiding escape or resistance to lawful authority);
(xxi) 2921.36 (illegal conveyance of weapons, drugs or other prohibited items onto the grounds of a detention facility or institution);
(xxii) 2925.05 (funding drug trafficking);
(xxiii) 2925.06 (illegal administration or distribution of anabolic steroids);
(xxiv) 2925.24 (tampering with drugs);
(xxv) 2927.12 (ethnic intimidation); or
(xxvi) If related to an offense under paragraph (E)(3)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity); or
(b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described under paragraph (E)(3)(a) of this rule.
(c) If an individual has been convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses, including an offense listed in paragraph (E)(3)(a) or (E)(3)(b) of this rule, and another offense or offenses listed in paragraph (E)(3)(a), (E)(3)(b), (E)(4)(a), or (E)(4)(b) of this rule, the individual is subject to a ten-year exclusionary period beginning on the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole for the most recent offense.
(4) Tier IV. Five-year exclusionary period.
(a) Individuals who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code are excluded from participation in the medicaid program for a period of five years from the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole:
(i) 2903.13 (assault);
(ii) 2903.22 (menacing);
(iii) 2907.09 (public indecency);
(iv) 2907.24 (soliciting);
(v) 2907.25 (prostitution);
(vi) 2907.33 (deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles);
(vii) 2911.13 (breaking and entering);
(viii) 2913.02 (theft);
(ix) 2913.03 (unauthorized use of a vehicle);
(x) 2913.04 (unauthorized use of computer, cable or telecommunication property);
(xi) 2913.05 (telecommunication fraud);
(xii) 2913.11 (passing bad checks);
(xiii) 2913.21 (misuse of credit cards);
(xiv) 2913.31 (forgery - forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards);
(xv) 2913.32 (criminal simulation);
(xvi) 2913.41 (defrauding a rental agency or hostelry);
(xvii) 2913.42 (tampering with records);
(xviii) 2913.43 (securing writings by deception);
(xix) 2913.44 (personating an officer);
(xx) 2913.441 (unlawful display of law enforcement emblem);
(xxi) 2913.45 (defrauding creditors);
(xxii) 2913.51 (receiving stolen property);
(xxiii) 2919.12 (unlawful abortion);
(xxiv) 2919.121 (unlawful abortion upon minor);
(xxv) 2919.123 (unlawful distribution of an abortion-inducing drug);
(xxvi) 2919.23 (interference with custody);
(xxvii) 2919.24 (contributing to the unruliness or delinquency of a child);
(xxviii) 2921.12 (tampering with evidence);
(xxix) 2921.21 (compounding a crime);
(xxx) 2921.24 (disclosure of confidential information);
(xxxi) 2921.32 (obstructing justice);
(xxxii) 2921.321 (assaulting or harassing a police dog, horse, or service animal);
(xxxiii) 2921.51 (impersonation of peace officer);
(xxxiv) 2925.09 (illegal administration, dispensing, distribution, manufacture, possession, selling, or using of any dangerous veterinary drug);
(xxxv) 2925.11 (drug possession, other than a minor drug possession offense);
(xxxvi) 2925.13 (permitting drug abuse);
(xxxvii) 2925.22 (deception to obtain a dangerous drug);
(xxxviii) 2925.23 (illegal processing of drug documents);
(xxxix) 2925.36 (illegal dispensing of drug samples);
(xl) 2925.55 (unlawful purchase of pseudoephedrine product);
(xli) 2925.56 (unlawful sale of pseudoephedrine product);
(xlii) If related to an offense under paragraph (E)(4)(a) of this rule, 2923.01 (conspiracy), 2923.02 (attempt), or 2923.03 (complicity); or
(b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described under paragraph (E)(4)(a) of this rule.
(c) If an individual has been convicted of multiple disqualifying offenses listed in paragraph (E)(4)(a) or (E)(4)(b) of this rule, the individual is subject to a seven-year exclusionary period beginning on the date the individual was fully discharged from all imprisonment, probation or parole for the most recent offense.
(5) Tier V. No exclusionary period.
(a) Individuals who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, an offense in any of the following sections of the Revised Code are not subject to an exclusionary period and may participate in the medicaid program:
(i) 2919.21 (non-support/contributing to non-support of dependents);
(ii) 2925.11 (drug possession that is a minor drug possession offense); or
(iii) 2925.14 (drug paraphernalia); or
(iv) 2925.141 (illegal use or possession of marijuana drug paraphernalia); or
(b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described under paragraph (E)(5)(a) of this rule.
(F) Pardons and certificates. A conviction of, or a plea of guilty to, an exclusionary offense as set forth in paragraph (E) of this rule shall not prevent a provider from enrollment if any of the following circumstances apply:
(1) The provider has been granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code;
(2) The provider has been granted an unconditional pardon for the offense pursuant to an existing or former law of the state of Ohio, any other state, or the United States, if the law is substantially equivalent to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code;
(3) The provider has been granted a conditional pardon for the offense pursuant to Chapter 2967. of the Revised Code, and the condition(s) under which the pardon was granted have been satisfied;
(4) The provider's conviction or guilty plea has been set aside pursuant to law; or
(5) A certificate of qualification for employment has been issued by an Ohio court of common pleas pursuant to section 2953.25 of the Revised Code, or an equivalent certification has been issued by an out of state or federal jurisdiction.
(6) Provider applications that include a certificate of qualification for employment or an equivalent certification associated with a permanent exclusion offense as stated in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, will be reviewed by ODM and a decision will be rendered by ODM on a case-by-case basis as to whether a provider agreement will be approved or not in accordance with section 2953.25 of the Revised Code.
(G) Application fee.
(1) Provider types identified as subject to an application fee in the appendix to this rule must submit the fee in a form and manner determined by ODM at the time of application for enrollment or revalidation as a medicaid provider. If proof of fee payment is not submitted with the provider's application, the application will be rejected as incomplete.
(2) Individual physicians and non-physician practitioners are exempt from paying an application fee in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.460, (October 1, 2019).
(3) ODM may waive an application fee if:
(a) ODM determines that imposing the fee would have an adverse impact on beneficiary access to services; and
(b) ODM has requested and CMS has approved a waiver of the fee.
(4) If ODM receives approval from CMS to waive a medicaid application fee, providers are still subject to the screening requirements set forth in this rule.
(5) The application fee is equal to the amount established by CMS and includes an annual adjustment for inflation in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 1395cc(j)(2)(C)(i) (January 1, 2020).
(6) The application fee will not be refunded if:
(a) Enrollment is denied as a result of failure to meet the provider screening requirements described in this rule;
(b) If enrollment is denied based on the results of the provider screening.; or
(c) If ODM or its designee identifies other circumstances under which refunding the application fee is not warranted.
(H) If enrollment is denied as a result of failure to meet the provider screening requirements or failure to pay any associated application fee, the provider may request a hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
View Appendix
Last updated June 25, 2025 at 5:56 PM
History
- Effective: January 31, 2020
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-01
(A) Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2023) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2023) have to reside in and/or receive HCBS in a private residence or another setting that meets the home and community-based setting requirements set forth in this rule.
(1) A private residence is presumed to be a home and community-based setting provided it meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (B) of this rule. For the purposes of this rule, provider owned or controlled settings are not private residences.
(2) Home and community-based settings do not include any of the following:
(a) A nursing facility;
(b) An institution for mental diseases;
(c) An intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities;
(d) A hospital;
(e) A psychiatric residential treatment facility; or
(f) Any other locations as determined by the ODM or its designee.
(B) Home and community-based settings will have all of the following characteristics, and such other characteristics as the secretary of the U.S. department of health and human services determines to be appropriate, based on the needs of the individual as indicated in their person-centered services plan:
(1) The setting is integrated in and supports full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community, to the same degree of access as individuals not receiving services through the ODM or ODA-administered waiver programs authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2023) or Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2023).
(2) The setting is selected by the individual from among setting options, including non-disability specific settings and an option for a private unit in a residential setting.
(a) The setting options are identified and documented in the person-centered services plan and are based on the individual's needs, preferences, and for residential settings, resources available for room and board.
(b) For the purposes of this rule, non-disability specific setting means a home and community-based setting that is not limited to same or similar types of disabilities, or any disabilities at all.
(3) The setting ensures an individual's rights of privacy, dignity and respect, and freedom from coercion and restraint.
(4) The setting optimizes, but does not regiment, individual initiative, autonomy and independence in making life choices, including but not limited to, daily activities, physical environment and with whom to interact.
(5) The setting facilitates individual choice regarding services and supports, and who provides them.
(C) In addition to the characteristics set forth in paragraph (B) of this rule, in a provider-owned or controlled residential setting, the following additional conditions will be met, consistent with the individual's person-centered services plan.
(1) The individual's unit or dwelling is a specific physical place that can be rented or occupied under either:
(a) A legally enforceable agreement between the individual receiving services, and the owner of the dwelling pursuant to Chapter 5321. of the Revised Code.
(b) For settings in which Chapter 5321. of the Revised Code does not apply, a lease, residency agreement or other legally enforceable agreement in effect for the individual which provides protections that address eviction processes and appeals comparable to those provided under Chapter 5321. and Chapter 1923. of the Revised Code. The agreement will:
(i) Specify the responsibilities of the individual and the home and community-based setting;
(ii) Specify the circumstances under which the individual would be required to relocate, resulting in the termination of the agreement;
(iii) Address the steps an individual will follow in order to request a review and/or appeal of the transfer or discharge from the setting that results in termination of the agreement; and
(iv) Permit the additional conditions set forth in paragraphs (C)(2) to (C)(5) of this rule unless modified in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(2) The individual has privacy in their sleeping or living unit including all of the following:
(a) The unit has entrance doors lockable by the individual, with only appropriate staff having keys; and
(b) An individual sharing a unit has a choice of roommates in that setting.
(3) The individual has the freedom to furnish and decorate their sleeping or living unit within the lease or legally enforceable agreement.
(4) The individual has the freedom and support to control their own schedule and activities, and has access to food at any time.
(5) The individual is able to have visitors of their choosing at any time.
(6) The setting is physically accessible to the individual.
(D) Any modification of the additional conditions set forth in paragraphs (C)(1) to (C)(6) of this rule will be supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the individual's person-centered services plan in accordance with rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-17.2
Provisions of provider agreements for long term care nursing facilities are defined in Chapter 5160-3 of the Administrative Code. Provisions for provider agreements for medicaid contracting managed care plans are defined in Chapter 5160-26 of the Administrative Code.
A valid provider agreement with medicaid will act as a provider agreement for participation in the medicaid program. All medicaid provider applications must be submitted through the medicaid information technology system (MITS) web portal. Provider applications submitted in paper format will be returned to the provider unprocessed.
If a provider application requires additional supporting documentation by the department for the application process to be completed, the supporting documentation may be sent through the MITS web portal or sent to the department through regular mail service.
A provider agreement is a contract between the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and a provider of medicaid covered services. By signing this agreement the provider agrees to comply with the terms of the provider agreement, Revised Code, Administrative Code, and federal statutes and rules; and the provider certifies and agrees:
(A) To render medical services as medically necessary for the patient and only in the amount required by the patient without regard to race, creed, color, age, sex, national origin, source(s) of payment, or disability; submit claims only for services actually performed; and, bill ODM for no more than the usual and customary fee charged other patients for the same service.
(B) To ascertain and recoup any third-party resource(s) available to the consumer prior to billing ODM. ODM will then pay any unpaid balance up to the lesser of the provider's billed charge or the maximum allowable reimbursement as set forth in agency 5160 of the Administrative Code.
(C) To accept the allowable reimbursement for all covered services as payment-in-full, except as required in paragraph (B) of this rule. The provider will not seek reimbursement for that service, except as defined in rule 5160-1-09 of the Administrative Code, from the patient, any member of the family, or any other person.
(D) To maintain all records necessary and in such form so as to fully disclose the extent of services provided and significant business transactions. The provider will maintain such records for a period of six years from the date of receipt of payment or until any audit initiated within the required six year record maintenance period is completed.
(E) To furnish to ODM, the secretary of the department of health and human services, or the Ohio medicaid fraud control unit or their designees any information maintained under paragraph (D) of this rule for audit and review purposes. Audits may use statistical sampling. Failure to supply requested records within thirty days shall result in withholding of medicaid payments and may result in termination from the medicaid program.
(F) To inform ODM within thirty days of any changes including, but not limited to changes in licensure, certification, or registration status; ownership; specialty; additions, deletions, or replacements in group membership and hospital-based physician affiliations; and address, including all locations where services are rendered.
(G) To disclose ownership and control information, and to disclose the identity of any person who has been convicted of a criminal offense related to medicare, medicaid, or services provided under Title XX of the Social Security Act as in effect on November 15, 2018 (Title XX), as specified in rule 5160-1-17.3 of the Administrative Code.
(H) That neither the individual practitioner, nor the company, nor any owner, director, officer, or employee of the company, nor any independent contractor retained by the company, is currently subject to sanction under medicare, medicaid, or Title XX; or, is otherwise prohibited from providing services to medicare, medicaid, or Title XX beneficiaries.
(I) To provide to ODM, through the court of jurisdiction, notice of any bankruptcy action brought by the provider. Notice shall be mailed to: office of legal services, Ohio department of medicaid.
(J) To comply with the appropriate advance directives requirements for hospitals, providers of home health care, personal care services, and hospices as specified in Chapter 3701-83 of the Administrative Code.
(K) To comply with the confidentiality safeguards and the use and release of information regarding public assistance recipients as described in section 5101.27 of the Revised Code.
(L) To comply with section 121.36 of the Revised Code and rule 5160-1-39 of the Administrative Code when providing home care services.
Last updated September 1, 2023 at 12:55 PM
History
- Effective: September 19, 2019
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-05
This rule sets the standards and procedures for managing incidents that may have a negative impact on individuals. The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedures for reporting and addressing critical incidents and reportable incidents and to prevent and reduce the risk of harm to individuals. This rule applies to multiple programs administered by the Ohio department of aging (AGE) and the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM). AGE and ODM may designate other entities to perform one or more of the incident management functions set forth in this rule.
(A) For the purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Case Management Agency" or "CMA" means an entity delegated or contracted by AGE or ODM to perform case management activities and related functions for individuals enrolled on a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver program.
(2) "Health and safety action plan" or "HSAP" means a document developed by the waiver case management agency or recovery management agency that identifies situations, circumstances, and behaviors that without intervention may jeopardize the individual's health and welfare and potentially risk the individual's program enrollment. The HSAP sets forth the interventions necessary to mitigate risks to the health and welfare of an individual and to ensure the individual's needs are met.
(3) "Incident" means an alleged, suspected, or actual event that is not consistent with the routine care of or service delivery to an individual that may have a negative impact on the health and welfare of the individual.
(4) "Incident management system" means the system in which reported incidents are entered, including investigative and review notes, findings and results, and prevention plans.
(5) "Individual" means a person enrolled on an HCBS waiver or in the specialized recovery services (SRS) program.
(6) "Investigative entity" means ODM, AGE, or their designee.
(7) "Recovery management agency" or "RMA" means the agency delegated or contracted by ODM to perform case management activities via the recovery manager and related functions for individuals enrolled in the SRS program.
(8) "Restraint" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Restrictive intervention" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Seclusion" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(11) "Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of evidence to indicate the reported incident is more likely to have occurred than not to have occurred.
(12) "Unauthorized restraint" means any restraint which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver or program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(13) "Unauthorized restrictive intervention" means any restrictive intervention which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver or program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(14) "Unauthorized seclusion" means any seclusion which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(B) The following incidents will be reported and investigated or reviewed as described in paragraph (E) of this rule:
(1) Critical incidents:
(a) Abuse: the injury, confinement, control, intimidation, or punishment of an individual that has resulted in physical harm, pain, fear, or mental anguish. Abuse includes, but is not limited to physical, emotional, psychological, verbal, and sexual abuse.
(b) Behavioral support misuse: the use of unauthorized restraint, unauthorized restrictive intervention, or unauthorized seclusion.
(c) Neglect: when there is a duty to do so, failing to provide an individual with any treatment, care, goods, or services necessary to maintain the health or welfare of the individual.
(d) Exploitation: the unlawful or improper act of using an individual or an individual's resources through the use of manipulation, intimidation, threats, deceptions, or coercion for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or gain.
(e) Misappropriation: the act of depriving, defrauding, or otherwise obtaining the money or real or personal property (including prescribed medication) of an individual that could potentially impact the health and welfare of the individual.
(f) Unnatural or accidental death: death of an individual resulting from an accident or death that otherwise could not have reasonably been expected, including but not limited to death caused by abuse, neglect, suicide, medication error, and homicide.
(g) Self-harm or suicide attempt: self-harm or suicide attempt that includes a physical attempt by an individual to harm themselves that results in emergency department treatment, in-patient observation, or hospital admission.
(h) Medication error: any medication error that results in a consultation with a poison control center (including telephone calls), an emergency department or urgent care visit, hospitalization, or death, involving:
(i) A medication prescribed to the individual; or
(ii) Any supplement, over-the-counter medication, or medication not prescribed to the individual.
(i) The health and welfare of the individual is at risk due to the individual being lost or missing.
(2) Reportable incidents
(a) Natural deaths that are not due to events such as accidents, injuries, homicide, suicide, or overdoses.
(b) Individual or family member behavior, action, or inaction resulting in the creation of, or adjustment to, a health and safety action plan.
(c) The health and welfare of the individual is at risk due to any of the following:
(i) Loss of the individual's paid or unpaid caregiver;
(ii) Prescribed medication issue not resulting in a consultation with a poison control center, an emergency department of urgent care visit, hospitalization, or death; or
(iii) Eviction or housing crisis.
(d) Suicide attempt that does not result in emergency room treatment, in-patient observation, or hospital admission.
(C) Programs to which this rule applies.
(1) The nursing facility-based level of care HCBS waiver programs administered by AGE and ODM including the assisted living waiver as set forth in Chapter 173-38 of the Administrative Code, the preadmission screening system providing options and resources today waiver as set forth in Chapter 173-42 of the Administrative Code, the Ohio home care waiver as set forth in Chapter 5160-46 of the Administrative Code, and the MyCare Ohio waiver as set forth in Chapter 5160-58 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The SRS state plan program as set forth in Chapter 5160-43 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Upon an individual's enrollment on an HCBS waiver or the SRS program and at the time of each annual reassessment the CMA or RMA will do the following:
(1) Obtain written confirmation that the individual received information about how to report abuse, neglect, exploitation, and all other incidents as defined in this rule.
(2) Document and maintain the written confirmation within the individual's case record.
(E) The following process will be followed upon the occurrence of an incident.
(1) Initial incident report.
(a) Upon discovering an incident, ODM, AGE, their delegates, and all service providers of nursing facility-based level of care HCBS waiver services or services under the SRS program will:
(i) Take immediate action to ensure the health and welfare of the individual.
(ii) Report the incident to the relevant CMA or RMA immediately upon discovery of the incident, but no later than one business day after discovering the incident, unless bound by federal, state, or local law, or the requirements of professional licensure or certification to report sooner.
(b) All incident reports will include the following information when available:
(i) The facts relevant to the incident;
(ii) A description of what happened;
(iii) The incident type;
(iv) The date of the incident;
(v) The location of the incident;
(vi) The names and contact information of all persons involved; and
(vii) All actions taken to ensure the health and welfare of the individual.
(2) Receipt of report and documentation of the incident.
(a) The CMA or RMA will do the following upon discovering or receiving report of an incident.
(i) Ensure immediate action was taken to protect the health and welfare of the individual. If such action was not taken, take action immediately, but no later than twenty-four hours after becoming aware of the incident.
(ii) Notify all of the appropriate entities with investigative or protective authority, and the appropriate additional regulatory, oversight, or advocacy agencies including but not limited to:
(a) Local law enforcement if the incident involves suspected criminal conduct;
(b) The local coroner's office when the death of an individual is reportable in accordance with section 313.12 of the Revised Code;
(c) The local county board of developmental disabilities;
(d) The local child protective services agency (CPS);
(e) The local adult protective services agency (APS);
(f) The Ohio department of health, or other licensure or certification board or accreditation body if the incident involves a provider regulated by that entity;
(g) The local probate court if the incident may involve the legal guardian of the recipient.
(iii) Enter all critical incidents into the incident management system within one business day of becoming aware of the incident.
(iv) Enter all reportable incidents into the incident management system within three business days of becoming aware of the incident.
(3) Critical incident investigation.
(a) The investigative entity will investigate all critical incidents and do the following upon receipt of a reported incident.
(i) Within one business day of receiving a report of an incident, review the reported incident and verify the following:
(a) Immediate action was taken to protect the health and welfare of the individual and any other recipients of service who may be at risk. If such action was not taken, take action immediately, but no later than twenty-four hours after discovering the need for such action.
(b) The appropriate entities with investigative or protective authority, and the appropriate additional regulatory, oversight, or advocacy agencies were notified. If such action was not taken, do so as soon as possible.
(ii) Within two business days of receiving a report of an incident, initiate an investigation.
(iii) Conduct a review of all relevant documents, including person-centered care plans, service plans, assessments, clinical notes, communication notes, results from an investigation conducted by a third-party entity when available, provider documentation, provider billing records, medical reports, police and fire department reports, and emergency response system reports.
(iv) Conduct and document interviews with everyone who may have information relevant to the incident.
(v) Identify, to the extent possible, all causes and contributing factors.
(vi) Determine whether the incident is substantiated.
(vii) Document all investigative activities in the incident management system.
(viii) Conclude the investigation no later than forty-five business days after the investigative entity's initial receipt of the incident report, unless a longer time frame has been previously approved by ODM or AGE.
(ix) For investigations conducted by ODM's designee, at the conclusion of the investigation, provide a summary of the investigative findings and whether or not the incident was substantiated to the appropriate CMA or RMA.
(4) Reportable incident review and remediation: For each reportable incident, the CMA or RMA will address and remediate the incident as determined appropriate by the CMA or RMA.
(5) Follow up and closeout responsibilities of the CMA or RMA.
(a) Upon receipt of the findings for a substantiated incident, review the investigation results and include the information from the results when developing a person-centered prevention plan or updating the care plan to ensure the health and safety of the individual.
(b) Communicate a summary of the investigative findings with the individual and their authorized representative or legal guardian using trauma informed care, unless such action could jeopardize the health and welfare of the individual.
(i) The summary will be provided through verbal communication, unless the individual or their authorized representative or legal guardian requests the summary in writing.
(ii) The CMA or RMA will retain documentation that the summary was provided.
(c) For incidents that resulted in a CPS or APS referral, communicate a summary of the investigative findings to the relevant agency within seven business days after being notified that the investigation is complete.
(d) For all substantiated critical incidents, except in the case of death, enter a prevention plan into the incident management system no later than seven business days after the conclusion of the investigation, indicating closure of the incident.
(e) For all reportable incidents, address and remediate the incident as determined appropriate, and close the incident in the incident management system no later than forty-five business days after submission of the incident in the incident management system.
(F) AGE and ODM may request further review of any incident, conduct a separate independent review or investigation of any incident, determine necessary additional action, or assume responsibility for conducting an investigation or review.
Last updated August 27, 2026 at 8:02 AM
History
- Effective: August 27, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-32
(A) This rule is applicable to the following waiver programs and services:
(1) Individual options services, as described in Chapter 5123-9 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Homemaker/personal care, participant-directed and provided through an agency; and
(b) Waiver nursing, provided through an agency.
(2) Level one homemaker/personal care services, participant-directed and provided through an agency, as described in Chapter 5123-9 of the Administrative Code.
(3) MyCare Ohio services, as described in Chapter 5160-58 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Choices home care attendant, participant-directed;
(b) Homemaker services provided through an agency;
(c) Personal care services provided through an agency and participant-directed; and
(d) Waiver nursing services provided through an agency.
(4) Ohio home care services, as described in Chapter 5160-46 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Personal care aide services provided through an agency; and
(b) Waiver nursing services provided through an agency.
(5) Pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) services, as described in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code:
(a) Choices home care attendant, participant-directed;
(b) Homemaker services provided through an agency;
(c) Personal care services provided through an agency and participant-directed; and
(d) Waiver nursing services provided through an agency.
(6) Self-empowered life funding participant-directed homemaker/personal care services, as described in Chapter 5123-9 of the Administrative Code.
(B) For the purpose of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Agency" refers to the following:
(a) A home health agency provider of Ohio home care waiver services, as described in Chapter 5160-46 of the Administrative Code;
(b) An Ohio department of aging (ODA) agency provider certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code; and
(c) A department of developmental disabilities (DODD) agency provider certified under section 5123.045 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Appendix K" refers to a standalone appendix that may be utilized by states during emergency situations to request amendment to approved 1915(c) waivers. It includes actions that states can take under the existing section 1915(c) home and community-based waiver authority in order to respond to an emergency.
(3) "Care management agency" and "service and support administration entity" refers to an agency or entity delegated or contracted by ODA, ODM, or DODD to perform care coordination activities and related functions for individuals enrolled on a fee for service or managed care waiver program.
(4) "Direct care worker" refers to the person providing hands on care to an individual receiving a medicaid 1915(c) waiver program service.
(5) "Extraordinary care" refers to hands-on assistance with activities of daily living, incidental activities of daily living, and supervisory monitoring care exceeding the range of activities a parent of a minor child would ordinarily perform in the household on behalf of an individual without a disability or chronic illness of the same age, or on behalf of a spouse without a disability or chronic illness.
(6) "Financial Management Service (FMS)" refers to the entity contracted with ODA, Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), DODD, or their designee to process payment of participant-directed waiver services.
(7) "Home and community-based services (HCBS)" refers to services available to individuals to help maintain their health and safety in a community setting in lieu of institutional care as described in 42 C.F.R. 440 subpart A (October 1, 2023). Programs which provide HCBS include the assisted living waiver, the individual options waiver, the level one waiver, the MyCare Ohio waiver, the Ohio home care waiver, pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT), and the self-empowered life funding waiver.
(8) "Individual" refers to a medicaid recipient receiving services through an HCBS waiver program authorized under 1915(c) of the Social Security Act.
(9) "Legal representative" refers to a person or entity who has a legal standing to make decisions on behalf of another person (e.g., a guardian who has been appointed by the court or an individual who has power of attorney granted by the individual).
(10) "Non-agency provider" refers to the following:
(a) A non-agency provider of Ohio home care waiver services, as described in Chapter 5160-46 of the Administrative Code;
(b) An ODA certified non-agency provider, certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code; and
(c) A DODD certified independent provider, certified under section 5123.045 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Parent" refers to an adoptive, biological, or step-parent of an individual.
(12) "Relative" refers to children, grandparents, grandchildren, great-grandparents, great grand-children, brothers, sisters, aunts, uncles, nephews, nieces, and step-relations and parents of an individual above the age of seventeen.
(C) Unless otherwise permitted in this rule or other home and community based services (HCBS) waiver program rules or other ODM rules, a parent of a minor child, a spouse, and other legal representatives are not eligible to bill for medicaid reimbursable waiver services to an individual for whom they serve as legal representative.
(D) Unless otherwise permitted in other HCBS waiver program rules, an agency fully or partially owned by an individual's legal representative is not eligible to bill for medicaid reimbursable waiver services to an individual for whom they serve as legal representative.
(E) Parents of minor child and spouse of an individual:
(1) A parent of a minor child, or the spouse of an individual may only provide HCBS waiver services to an individual if both of the following conditions are met:
(a) There is no other willing and able provider or direct care worker available to provide the HCBS waiver services to the individual.
(b) ODM, ODA, DODD, or their designee has determined the health and safety needs of the individual can be ensured.
(2) When conditions set forth in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule are present, a parent of a minor child, or the spouse of an individual may serve as a direct care worker, within the following parameters:
(a) The parent of a minor child is employed through an agency provider or provides an eligible participant-directed service through an FMS.
(b) The spouse is employed through an agency provider or provides an eligible participant-directed service through an FMS.
(c) Unless otherwise permitted in HCBS waiver program rules, or determined by ODM, DODD or their designee, as necessary to ensure the health and safety of the individual and authorized on the PCSP, an individual who is a minor child may receive a maximum of forty hours per week of paid care from a parent or combination of parents and may not exceed the amount of service the individual is assessed to need. ODM, ODA, DODD or their designee may grant an exception to this limitation, in accordance with departmental program operational processes.
(d) Unless otherwise permitted in HCBS waiver program rules, or determined by ODM, ODA, DODD or their designee, as necessary to ensure the health and safety of the individual and authorized on the PCSP, an individual may receive a maximum of forty hours per week of paid care from their spouse and may not exceed the amount of service the individual is assessed to need. ODM, ODA, DODD or their designee may grant an exception to this limitation, in accordance with departmental program operational processes.
(e) HCBS waiver services provided by a parent of a minor child or by a spouse must meet extraordinary care requirements, as determined through prescribed form, ODM 10372 "Ohio Extraordinary Care Instrument";
(f) Services provided by a parent of a minor child or by a spouse may not be provided for respite purposes;
(g) Individuals agree to and cooperate with monthly care management agency or services and supports administrator contacts. Contacts may be a combination of telephonic and in-person visits, with no more than sixty calendar days between in-person visits.
(h) The parent of a minor child or spouse participates in contact and visit requirements described in the individual's person-centered services plan (PCSP).
(3) HCBS waiver services may not be provided to an individual by the foster parent of the individual or by an agency in which the foster parent of the individual has an ownership interest.
(4) A spouse appointed as a legal guardian of an individual must maintain evidence of the guardian's ability to be a direct care worker for the individual in accordance with Rule 66.04 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio.
(F) Relatives of an individual above the age of seventeen years with a legal representative designation:
(1) A parent of an individual above the age of seventeen years may provide the services described in paragraph (A) of this rule while holding the designation of:
(a) Authorized representative,
(b) Declaration for mental health treatment,
(c) General power of attorney,
(d) Healthcare (medical) power of attorney,
(e) Representative payee, or
(f) Guardian appointed by the probate court who is authorized by the court to be a direct service provider for the individual under court order as permitted by Rule 66.04 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio.
(2) Unless otherwise permitted in HCBS waiver program rules, adult children, grandparents, grandchildren, great-grandparents, great-grandchildren, brothers, sisters, aunts, uncles, nephews, nieces, and step-relations may provide the services described in paragraph (A) of this rule while holding the designation of:
(a) Authorized representative,
(b) Declaration for mental health treatment,
(c) General power of attorney,
(d) Healthcare (medical) power of attorney, or
(e) Guardian appointed by the probate court who is authorized by the court to be a direct service provider for the individual under court order as permitted by Rule 66.04 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio.
(3) Unless otherwise permitted in HCBS waiver program rules or determined by ODM, ODA, DODD or their designee, as necessary to ensure the health and safety of the individual and authorized on the PCSP, paid care is limited to forty hours per week per relative with legal decision-making authority, and may not exceed the amount of service the individual is assessed to need.
(G) Limitations
(1) A direct care worker providing services described in paragraph (A) of this rule may not verify service provision on behalf of the individual.
(2) A direct care worker may not receive payment from any source for activity other than the direct care for the individual during the time authorized to provide HCBS waiver services.
(3) A direct care worker may not provide care to a person other than the authorized individual(s) during medicaid billed hours.
(4) Participant directed services: if an individual chooses to designate a representative through the FMS, the FMS designated representative(s) may not serve as a direct care worker.
(H) The PCSP will document that the conditions set forth in paragraphs (E) and (F) of this rule are met.
(I) Within ninety days of the effective date of this rule, parents of minor children and spouses of individuals who were authorized to provide paid services under the Appendix K authority will be assessed by care management agencies or service and support administration entities, as appropriate, to determine whether they meet the requirements outlined in this rule in order to continue to provide services. The authorized parents of minor children and spouses of individuals may continue to provide paid services until the assessment has been completed or the ninety-day period has expired, whichever comes first.
(J) A decision by ODM, ODA, DODD, or their designee related to whether someone qualifies under this rule to serve as a provider or a direct care worker for an individual is not subject to notice and appeal rights under division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 9:03 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-04
Introduction: Each ODA-certified provider is subject to a regular structural compliance review (review) to ascertain if it complies with this chapter.
(A) Deadline for ODA's designee to conduct the first review: The one-year anniversary of the provider's certification date.
(B) Deadlines for ODA's designee to conduct subsequent reviews:
(1) The one-year anniversary of the previous review if the provider is one of the following:
(a) A provider of an adult day service.
(b) A provider of an assisted living service.
(c) A provider of personal care, enhanced community living, waiver nursing, or structured family caregiving that is neither certified by medicare nor accredited by the accreditation commission for health care, the community health accreditation partner, the joint commission, or another national accreditation organization that is approved by CMS and ODH.
(d) A provider of the choices home care attendant service.
(e) A provider of the home care attendant service.
(2) The three-year anniversary of the previous review if the provider is not listed under paragraph (B)(1) of this rule.
(C) Deadline extensions: ODA may extend a deadline for ODA's designee under paragraph (A) or (B) of this rule if ODA's designee provides ODA with a request for an extension that includes the rationale for a delay and a forecast on the time needed to complete the review.
(D) ODA or its designee may conduct an unannounced review of a provider at any time to review compliance with this chapter.
(E) ODA's designee may review a provider at any time without waiting for a deadline in paragraph (A), (B), or (C) of this rule to near.
(F) Responsible designees, type of reviews to conduct, and scope of reviews:
(1) Based on the provider type and situation, Appendix A to this rule establishes when a designee is responsible for conducting a review, the type of review it is responsible to conduct, and the scope of that review.
(2) ODA may authorize a designee to conduct a desk review even if Appendix A to this rule establishes a requirement for an on-site review.
(G) Review components: For each review, ODA's designee shall do the following:
(1) Inform the provider of the review in writing before beginning the review and before conducting an introductory conference with the provider, unless the review is an unannounced review under paragraph (D) of this rule.
(2) Conduct an introductory conference with the provider to explain the purpose and scope of the review.
(3) Review compliance with each applicable requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code other than the records and monitoring requirements in that rule, unless Appendix A to this rule determines that this paragraph is not a component of the review.
(4) Review compliance with each applicable requirement in rules 173-39-02.1 to 173-39-02.24 of the Administrative Code and the records and monitoring requirements in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Verify that a sample of paid service units were provided according to the applicable requirements in rules 173-39-02.1 to 173-39-02.24 of the Administrative Code and the records and monitoring requirements in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(6) Review a sample of paid service units for ten per cent of the individuals that the provider served during the previous three months (if a subsequent review of a provider listed under paragraph (B)(1) of this rule) or the previous six months (if a subsequent review of a provider listed under paragraph (B)(2) of this rule), so long as the ten-per-cent sample contains no fewer than three individuals and no more than thirty individuals, with the following exceptions:
(a) If non-compliance is identified, ODA or its designee may review a larger sample size or order an independent audit at the provider's expense.
(b) If the provider operates from multiple business sites, ODA's designee shall review a sample of paid service units for ten per cent of the individuals that the provider served from each business site.
(c) If the provider did not bill ODA for providing a service to any individual during the period in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule, ODA or its designee shall indicate in the review record that ODA did not pay the provider for providing a service to any individual during the review period, then complete the remaining elements of the review under this rule.
(d) If the provider is a participant-directed provider, ODA or its designee shall review records for each individual served during the review period in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule. If the provider did not bill ODA for providing any units of service during the review period in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule, ODA or its designee shall indicate in the review record that ODA did not pay the provider to provide any units of service during the review period, then complete the remaining elements of the review under this rule.
(e) If the provider is certified to provide both personal care and homemaker, ODA or its designee shall combine the review for each service so that the aggregate sample size for the combined services equals the sample size in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule.
(f) During a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, ODA may determine a lesser review sample and issue this determination by notice.
(7) Review the qualifications of the employees who provided services to individuals in the sample in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule according to the following standards:
(a) The sample size of employees corresponds to the sample size of individuals in Appendix B to this rule.
(b) If the provider hired or subcontracted with RNs or LPNs under the direction of RNs, the number of RNs or LPNs in the sample corresponds to the sample size of individuals in Appendix B to this rule.
(c) The sample of employees includes any employees providing services to individuals in the sample in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule that the provider hired since the previous review.
(d) The sample of employees does not need to include an employee providing services to individuals in the sample in paragraph (G)(6) of this rule if one or more of ODA's designees already reviewed the employee's qualifications when conducting a review of the same provider at a different business site within the past three hundred sixty-five days.
(e) For a provider that provides only home-delivered meals or a personal emergency response system, the maximum sample size is ten employees.
(H) At the conclusion of the review:
(1) If ODA's designee determines a provider is out of compliance, then ODA's designee shall ensure all of the following occur:
(a) ODA's designee notifies the provider at the exit interview or, if the provider is unavailable for the exit interview, with a detailed communication within one business day after the review.
(b) ODA's designee records the method of notification in paragraph (H)(1)(a) of this rule in PIMS.
(c) ODA or its designee determine whether to impose an immediate disciplinary action under rule 173-39-05 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Within ten business days after the review, ODA's designee shall issue a summary letter to the provider, including a summary of all areas of non-compliance, request for a plan of correction or evidence of compliance, and disciplinary action if imposed by ODA or its designee.
(3) Within ten business days after the date ODA's designee issues the summary letter to the provider, the provider shall provide a plan of correction or evidence of compliance with the laws, rules, or regulations determined to have been violated during the review which were not subject to disciplinary action under rule 173-39-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) ODA or its designee may impose a disciplinary action under rule 173-39-05 of the Administrative Code if either of the following occur:
(a) The provider did not provide ODA or its designee with a plan of correction or evidence of compliance.
(b) The provider remains out of compliance after ODA or its designee receives a plan of correction or evidence of compliance from the provider.
(5) If a unit-of-service error is detected during unit-of-service verification, the provider shall return the overpayment of funds to ODA or its designee using appropriate auditing procedures.
(I) ODA may suspend any review during a state of emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency.
(J) ODA's designee or the provider may email any plan of correction, evidence of compliance, notice, communication, or summary letter required in this rule.
View AppendixView Appendix
Last updated January 2, 2025 at 11:36 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-27.2
(A) "Medicaid administrative agency" means a state agency other than the Ohio department of medicaid that:
(1) Administers a component of the medicaid program under the terms of a contract with ODM under section 5162.35 of the Revised Code; and
(2) Pays claims for medicaid services or reimburses local entities for claims paid for medicaid services.
(B) "Hold and Review" is defined in accordance with rule 5160-1-27 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Hold and review may be initiated by ODM or a medicaid administrative agency for the following reasons:
(1) When the information is used to complement or follow-up a provider or certification or other quality review process;
(2) In response to allegations of fraud or willful misrepresentation of claims submission;
(3) Upon the request of the office of the attorney general, the office of inspector general, or the auditor of state;
(4) When a provider's medicaid provider agreement is subject to termination;
(5) When a provider has been indicted for a criminal offense; or
(6) For reasons otherwise necessary to assure the basic integrity of claims submission and payment.
(D) The hold and review may be applied without regard to date of service.
(E) Hold and review initiated by medicaid administrative agencies.
(1) The medicaid administrative agency shall have formal written approval from ODM to initiate a hold and review process.
(2) The medicaid administrative agency may recruit the assistance of local governmental entities to review records subject to hold and review.
(3) The medicaid administrative agency may initiate hold and review without prior notification to the provider when the medicaid administrative agency receives a request to initiate hold and review from the office of the attorney general, the office of inspector general, the auditor of state, or ODM.
(4) When the medicaid administrative agency initiates hold and review without prior notification to the provider, the medicaid administrative agency shall provide written notice to the provider, including a copy of ODM written approval within ten business days of initiating a hold and review.
(5) The medicaid administrative agency may initiate hold and review with prior notification to the provider for any purpose contained in paragraph (C) of this rule. The medicaid administrative agency shall notify the provider at least ten business days prior to subjecting the provider's claims to hold and review.
(6) For claims payment that the medicaid administrative agency pays directly to the medicaid provider, the medicaid administrative agency may subject the medicaid provider's claim(s) payment, in part or in whole, to hold and review.
(7) For reimbursements the medicaid administrative agency makes to local entities for claims that the local entity pays to the medicaid provider directly, the medicaid administrative agency:
(a) May require the local entity to hold the medicaid provider's claim(s) payment for claims subject to hold and review;
(b) May deny reimbursement to the local entity for the claims on which the hold and review was requested after allowing the local entity a reasonable time to comply; and
(c) Shall not deny reimbursement to the local entity for claims that the local entity paid prior to the request.
(8) A failure by the medicaid administrative agency to notify a provider of a hold and review process shall not impede the agency from taking actions under this rule.
(9) Review of the medicaid provider's claims and documentation for hold and review is subject to the provisions of rule 5160-1-27 of the Administrative Code.
(10) The notice from the medicaid administrative agency shall:
(a) State the general reasons for subjecting the medicaid provider's claims to hold and review, but need not disclose any specific information concerning an ongoing investigation involving alleged fraud and/or willful misrepresentation;
(b) State the date the medicaid administrative agency implements the hold and review;
(c) State the types of services and claims that are subject to hold and review;
(d) Identify the documentation required to submit to the medicaid administrative agency;
(e) Inform the provider of the right to submit evidence for consideration to the medicaid administrative agency; and
(f) State the contact at the medicaid administrative agency for questions regarding the hold and review and where to send the requested documentation.
(11) The medicaid administrative agency shall send copies of the notice to all local, state, and federal entities that are involved in the review or that need to be aware of the review in order to assure the integrity of claims submission and payment.
(12) Providers who submit medical claims electronically may be required under this rule to submit paper documentation supporting each claim submitted electronically. These claims will not be processed until both the claim and the supporting documentation are reviewed by the medicaid administrative agency.
(13) The medicaid administrative agency has one hundred twenty days from the date each claim for payment is received to review the claim and make a determination whether or not to do one of the following:
(a) Forward the claim for adjudication;
(b) Forward the claim for denial; or
(c) Issue a "Notice of Operation Deficiency."
(F) Hold and review process initiated by ODM.
(1) ODM may require a medicaid administrative agency to initiate a hold and review described in this rule or to cooperate in a hold and review initiated by ODM under rule 5160-1-27.1 of the Administrative Code.
(2) In cooperating with a request from ODM to initiate a hold and review, medicaid administrative agencies shall:
(a) Comply with the provider notification requirements of this rule; and
(b) Suspend payment or reimbursement of the claims that are subject to hold and review; and
(c) Require local entities to suspend payment for the claims subject to hold and review; and
(d) Obtain provider records, including client records, medical records, and other supporting documentation that ODM requests as part of the review from local entities and providers; and
(e) Participate in the review of records and other supporting documentation when requested by ODM; and
(f) Provide any other information requested by ODM in order to assure accurate tracking and timely resolution of the claims subject to hold and review.
(3) For claims associated with alcohol and drug addiction services, ODM shall rely on the Ohio department mental health and addiction services to obtain and review provider records, including client records and medical records, as necessary to assure the special confidentiality of these records required by 42 C.F.R., part 2 as amended through October 1, 2006.
(4) After requesting a hold and review and allowing the medicaid administrative agency a reasonable time to comply, ODM may stop drawing from the centers for medicare and medicaid services, and passing to the other agency, the federal match associated with the claims that are subject to the review. ODM will not withhold federal match for claims that other agencies or local entities paid prior to the ODM request.
(G) For purposes of determining whether time limits for the submission of claims have been met for claims subjected to hold and review, the date of claims submission shall be the date that the medicaid administrative agency received the original claim from the provider.
(H) The hold and review process is not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or any other appeal.
History
- Effective: September 3, 2015
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-64-02
(A) The director of health shall receive, review, and investigate allegations of abuse, or neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident by any individual used by a long-term care facility or a residential care facility to provide services to residents.
(B) Allegations of abuse, neglect, exploitation, or misappropriation may be presented orally or in writing to the Ohio department of health's bureau of survey and certification or bureau of regulatory operations.
(C) Allegations shall be investigated by appropriately qualified individuals, as determined by the director. No long-term care facility or a residential care facility shall do any of the following knowing that an investigation is in progress, or is about to be or likely to be instituted under this rule:
(1) Refuse to permit the director to enter the facility;
(2) Refuse to permit the director to interview employees or other personnel used by the facility, residents, or families of residents;
(3) Refuse to permit the director to review and copy any record kept by the facility or their agents, including but not limited to:
(a) Medical records;
(b) Personnel records; or
(c) Records reviewed by the facility, including:
(i) Written statements;
(ii) Audio recordings, if available;
(iii) Video recordings, if available; and
(iv) Other materials gathered during the course of the investigation; or
(4) Destroy any records or documentation reviewed by the facility, to include the overwriting of audio or video recordings.
(5) Otherwise hinder the director's investigation of an allegation of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident.
(D) If, after investigation, the director determines that there is a reasonable basis for an allegation, the director shall provide written notice to the accused in accordance with paragraphs (E) and (F) of this rule. The director also shall send a copy of the notice to any long-term care facility or a residential care facility that the director knows currently is using the accused to provide services.
(E) The written notice shall include all of the following items:
(1) A statement of the nature of the allegation;
(2) A statement advising the accused of his or her right to a hearing on the allegation and of the manner in which and time within which a hearing may be requested;
(3) An explanation that the director will report any finding that the accused abused, neglected, or exploited a resident or misappropriated a resident's property to the following entity, as applicable:
(a) The nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;
(b) The appropriate licensing authority, if the accused is a licensed health professional; and
(c) Any other entity that holds authority or association with the accused.
(4) A warning that if the accused fails to submit a written request for a hearing within thirty days after he or she receives or was deemed to have received the notice, the director may do both of the following:
(a) Make a finding adverse to the accused; and
(b) Pursuant to rule 3701-64-05 of the Administrative Code, report the finding to the nurse aide registry, the appropriate licensing authority, or other relevant entity that would benefit from the notice, whichever is applicable, the long-term care facility or a residential care facility where the incident occurred, any other long-term care facility or a residential care facility known by the director to be using the accused to provide services to residents at the time of his or her finding, and the appropriate law enforcement official.
(F) The director first shall provide the written notice to the accused by certified mail, return receipt requested, or by sending it by personal delivery to the accused's last known address.
(1) If a certified mail notice is returned because the party fails to claim the notice, the director then may send the notice to the accused's last known address by ordinary mail. The notice shall be deemed complete when the certificate of mailing is obtained unless the notice is returned showing failure of delivery.
(2) If any notice sent by certified or ordinary mail is returned for failure of delivery, the director shall publish notice to the department's website. The notice shall be published for twenty one days, shall summarize the information required by paragraph (E) of this rule, and shall refer the accused to the Ohio department of health's office of health assurance and licensing for additional information. When notice is given by publication, a proof of publication affidavit, with a copy of the the notice set forth in the affidavit, shall be mailed by ordinary mail to the party at the party's last known address and the notice shall be deemed received as of the twenty first day of publication. An employee or agent of the agency may make personal delivery of the notice upon a party at any time.
Refusal of delivery by personal service or by mail is not failure of delivery and service is deemed to be complete. Failure of delivery occurs only when a mailed notice is returned by the postal authorities marked undeliverable, address or addressee unknown, or forwarding address unknown or expired.
Last updated April 29, 2022 at 2:11 PM
History
- Effective: April 29, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-12
(A) In the event of a significant adverse change in residents' health status, the residential care facility is obligated to do all of the following:
(1) Take immediate and proper steps to see that the resident receives necessary intervention including, if needed, medical attention or transfer to an appropriate medical facility;
(2) Make a notation of the change in health status and any intervention taken in the resident's record;
(3) Provide pertinent resident information to the person providing the intervention as soon as possible; and
(4) Notify the sponsor unless the resident refuses or requests otherwise.
(B) As used in this paragraph, "incident" means any accident or episode involving a resident, staff member, or other individual in a residential care facility which presents a risk to the health, safety, or well-being of a resident. In the event of an incident, the facility is obligated to do both of the following:
(1) Take immediate and proper steps to see that the resident or residents involved receive necessary intervention including, if needed, medical attention or transfer to an appropriate medical facility;
(2) Investigate the incident and document the incident and the investigation and include information that will enable staff to identify to the director upon request, the resident involved in an incident. The facility is obligated to maintain an incident log separate from the resident record which is accessible to the director and contains the time, place, and date of the occurrence; a general description of the incident; and the care provided or action taken. The facility is obligated to document the incident in the resident's record.
(C) Each residential care facility will establish and implement appropriate written policies and procedures to assure a safe, sanitary, and comfortable environment for the residents and to control the development and transmission of infections and diseases. Each residential care facility is obligated to establish an infection prevention and control program to monitor compliance with the home's infection prevention and control policies and procedures, to prevent, investigate, and control infections in the home, to institute appropriate interventions, and ensure all staff are appropriately trained on the home's infection prevention and control protocol. An effective infection control program includes:
(1) Each residential care facility is obligated to designate one or more individuals as the infection prevention and control designee and provide that individuals name and contact information, including an electronic mail address, on an electronic system prescribed by the director no later than ten days after hiring or appointing the individual and no later than ten days after the individual's contact information changes or the designated individual is replaced. The infection control designee is responsible for the facility's infection prevention and control program. The infection prevention and control designee will have:
(a) Completed post-secondary education in a health-related field including but not limited to medicine, nursing, medical technology, laboratory technology, public health, epidemiology, or biology;
(b) Have education, training, or experience in infection control; and
(c) Work at least part-time at the facility or hold a contract to provide infection prevention and control at least part-time at the facility.
A residential care facility located in the same building as a nursing home, or on the same lot as a nursing home, both of which are owned and operated by the same entity, will be considered to have met this requirement if the nursing home has an infection prevention and control designee who is responsible for both the residential care facility and nursing home.
(2) A tuberculosis control plan that meets the standards set forth in rule 3701-15-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) A written surveillance plan outlining the activities for monitoring/tracking infections based on nationally-recognized surveillance criteria such as McGeer criteria and:
(a) Includes a surveillance system that includes a data collection tool;
(b) Uses surveillance data to:
(i) Implement timely corrective action when a greater than expected number healthcare-associated infections are detected; and
(ii) Implement timely corrective actions when transmission of targeted MDROs (e.g., CRE, Candida auris) are detected.
(4) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to:
(a) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections;
(b) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported;
(c) When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to:
(i) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved; and
(ii) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.
(5) Written standards, policies, and procedures under which the facility will prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease;
(6) The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact, including, but not limited to:
(a) Washing hands for twenty seconds with soap and water; or
(b) Cleaning of hands with an alcohol-based product used according to manufacturer's directions or other alternative methods accepted by the United States centers for disease control and prevention or US food and drug administration, as being an effective alternative, or handwashing with soap and water.
(7) Written standards, policies, and procedures for laundry to ensure personnel handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection including:
(a) Handling soiled laundry as little as possible;
(b) Placing of laundry that is wet or soiled with body substances in impervious bags that are secured to prevent spillage; and
(c) Wearing of impervious gloves and impervious gowns by individuals performing laundry services, and, if handling soiled or wet laundry on the unit, the wearing of gloves and, if appropriate, other personal protective equipment.
(D) Each residential care facility will establish and implement an effective water management program to identify hazardous conditions, and take steps to manage the risk of occurrence and transmission of waterborne pathogens, including but not limited to legionella, in building water systems in accordance with guidance from the United States centers for disease control and prevention (available at https://www.cdc.gov/legionella/wmp/overview.html) and recommendations of the United States centers for disease control and prevention healthcare infection control practices advisory committee, "Environmental Infection Control Guidelines" (2019) or its successors.
(E) If the residential care facility provides an adult day care program which is located, or shares space, within the same building as the residential care facility, shares staff between the program and the facility, or where the day care participants at any time intermingle with residents of the facility, the requirements of this rule are also applicable to participants of the adult day care program.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:35 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.16
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Assisted living service" means either a basic service or memory care that promotes aging in an RCF by supporting the individual's independence, choice, and privacy.
(2) "Basic service" means all of the following:
(a) A service that includes the following:
(i) Personal care under rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code, which includes hands-on assistance, supervision, and/or cuing of ADLs, and IADLs.
(ii) Nursing, including the following:
(a) The initial and subsequent health assessments under rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Other activities included in rules 3701-16-09 and 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Coordinating three meals per day and snacks according to rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code with access to food according to rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) Coordinating the social, recreational, and leisure activities under rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code to promote community participation and integration, including non-medical transportation to services and resources in the community.
(b) A service that does not include the following:
(i) Housing.
(ii) Meals.
(iii) Twenty-four-hour skilled nursing care.
(iv) One-on-one supervision of an individual.
(3) "Census" means the total number of residents in an RCF on a given day and includes any resident who is temporarily absent from the RCF without being discharged.
(4) "Memory care" means a service that a provider provides in compliance with paragraph (D) of this rule to an individual that a practitioner assessed, then issued a documented diagnosis of any form of dementia.
(5) "Practitioner" means a health care provider engaging in activities authorized by the provider's license, certification, or registration.
(6) "Resident call system" has the same meaning as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Staff member" and "staff" have the same meanings as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Certification types: ODA certifies each provider for either of the following:
(1) The basic service.
(2) The basic service and memory care.
(C) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) RCF qualifications:
(a) Licensure: Only a provider who maintains a current, valid RCF license from ODH and maintains compliance with Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and Chapters 3701-13 and 3701-16 of the Administrative Code qualifies to provide this service.
(b) Public information: The provider shall display the following on its website:
(i) Whether the provider is currently certified by ODA to provide the basic service or both the basic service and memory care.
(ii) Whether the provider is currently accepting individuals who are enrolling in the assisted living program or mycare Ohio.
(c) Resident units: A resident unit qualifies for this service only if the unit meets all the following standards:
(i) Occupancy:
(a) The resident unit is a single-occupancy resident unit designated solely for the individual, except as permitted under paragraph (C)(2)(c)(i)(b) of this rule.
(b) The provider may allow an individual to share a single-occupancy resident unit only if all of the following conditions exist:
(i) The individual requests to share the individual's unit.
(ii) The individual shares the individual's unit with a person with whom the individual has an existing relationship.
(iii) ODA's designee verifies that the conditions of paragraphs (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(i) and (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(ii) of this rule are met and authorizes sharing the unit in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Lock: The resident unit has a lock that allows the individual to control access to the resident unit at all times, unless the individual's person-centered services plan indicates otherwise.
(iii) Bathroom: The resident unit includes a bathroom with a toilet, a sink, and a shower or bathtub, all of which are in working order.
(iv) Social space: The resident unit includes identifiable space, separate from the sleeping area, that provides seating for the individual and one or more visitors for socialization.
(d) Common areas: The provider shall provide common areas accessible to the individual, including a dining area (or areas) and an activity center (or centers). A multi-purpose common area may serve as both a dining area and an activity center.
(3) Staff availability: The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to comply with rule 3701-16-05 of the Administrative Code in a timely manner in response to individual's unpredictable care needs, supervisory needs, emotional needs, and reasonable requests for services through the resident call system twenty-four hours per day.
(4) Minors: No staff member under eighteen years of age qualifies to do any of the following:
(a) Assist with medication administration.
(b) Provide transportation.
(c) Provide personal care without on-site supervision, in accordance with rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Initial staff qualifications: Only a staff member who successfully completes training in the following subject areas qualifies to provide this service:
(a) Principles and philosophy of assisted living.
(b) The aging process.
(c) Cuing, prompting, and other means of effective communication.
(d) Common behaviors for cognitively-impaired individuals, behaviorally-impaired individuals, or other individuals and strategies to redirect or de-escalate those behaviors.
(e) Confidentiality.
(f) The person-centered planning process in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code, which includes supporting individuals' full access to the greater community.
(g) The individual's right to assume responsibility for decisions related to the individual's care.
(6) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each staff member providing this service successfully completes any training requirements in rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code and makes verification of successful completion of those requirements available to ODA or its designee upon request.
(7) Quarterly assessments: The provider's RN or LPN shall contact the individual at least quarterly to assess, and retain a record of, all of the following:
(a) The individual's satisfaction with the individual's activity plan and whether the activity plan continues to meet the individual's needs.
(b) Whether the individual's records demonstrate that the individual is receiving activities as ODA or its designee authorized them in the individual's person-centered service plan.
(c) Whether staff are providing personal care services to the individual in a manner that complies with rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Subcontracting: The provider may subcontract to provide one or more, but not all, of the activities listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule that ODA or its designee authorizes for the individual. The provider is responsible to assure that any activity provided by a sub-contractor complies with this chapter.
(D) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service and memory care:
(1) The provider is subject to the standards in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards:
(a) The provider displays a purpose statement on its website that explains the difference between the provider's basic service and its memory care, or only a memory care purpose statement if that is the exclusive service the provider offers.
(b) The provider designates each single-occupancy resident unit in paragraph (C)(2)(c) of this rule in which it plans to provide memory care as one of the following:
(i) A resident unit in a memory care section of the RCF. The provider may add a single-occupancy resident unit to an existing memory care section even if the resident unit is not next door to the existing section.
(ii) A resident unit in an RCF that provides only memory care.
(c) A staff member who successfully completed the training requirement in paragraph (D)(3) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code provides or arranges for at least three therapeutic, social, or recreational activities listed in rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code per day with consideration given to individuals' preferences and designed to meet individuals' needs.
(d) The provider ensures safe access to outdoor space for individuals.
(e) The provider assists each individual who makes a call through the resident call system in person in fewer than ten minutes after the individual initiates the call.
(3) Staff availability: The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards in addition to the requirements in paragraph (C)(3) of this rule:
(a) The provider has a sufficient number of RNs or LPNs on call or on site at all times for individuals receiving memory care.
(b) The provider maintains the appropriate direct-care staff-to-resident ratio below for its memory care:
(i) If providing memory care and the basic service at the same time, a ratio for the provider's memory care that is at least twenty per cent higher than the provider's ratio for its basic service.
(ii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is readily available to the provider, then a ratio that is at least twenty per cent higher than that average ratio.
(iii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is not readily available to the provider, then a ratio of at least one direct-care staff member for every ten individuals receiving memory care with at least one direct-care staff member on each floor of the RCF if the RCF provides memory care on multiple floors.
(4) Initial staff qualifications: A staff member qualifies to provide memory care without in-person supervision only if the staff member successfully completes training all of the following topics in addition to the topics listed under paragraph (C)(5) of this rule:
(a) Overview of dementia: symptoms, treatment approaches, and progression.
(b) Foundations of effective communication in dementia care.
(c) Common behavior challenges specific to dementia and recommended behavior management techniques.
(d) Current best practices in dementia care.
(e) Missing resident prevention and response.
(5) In-service training: A staff member continues to qualify to provide memory care only if the staff member successfully completes dementia care training when complying with paragraph (C)(6) of this rule.
(E) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) The unit of service as one day.
(b) The maximum-allowable rates for a unit of a unit of the basic service and a unit of memory care.
(c) Critical access rates.
(2) For the assisted living program, rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for a unit of service.
(3) Requirements to obtain the critical access rate for certified assisted living providers:
(a) A certified provider of the service, whether the basic service or memory care, that provided the service for one or more state fiscal years qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) At least an average of fifty per cent of the residents in the RCF were enrolled in medicaid during the preceding state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information based on the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(b) A certified provider of the assisted living service, whether the basic service or memory care, that has not provided the service for one or more state fiscal years and intends to provide the service for the duration of the state fiscal year in which the provider was initially certified, qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) The provider projects and attests that at least an average of fifty percent of the residents in the RCF will be enrolled in medicaid during the state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information for the period beginning with the provider's attestation date in paragraph (E)(3)(b)(i) of this rule through the remainder of the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(c) A certified provider who fails to meet all requirements under paragraph (E)(3)(a) or (E)(3)(b) of this rule at the end of the fiscal year may requalify for the critical access rate by meeting the requirement in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(i) of this rule and satisfying the requirements in paragraph (E)(3)(a) of this rule.
(d) The critical access rate is payable for a qualifying provider for a resident receiving the basic service for the duration of the state fiscal year without adjustment. This rate is not payable for a resident also receiving memory care.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-33-07
(A) The purpose of this rule is to describe the methods used to determine provider rates for the assisted living HCBS waiver as set forth in appendix A to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Provider rates are determined for the following categories:
(1) Per-job bid rate or deposit made.
(2) Unit rate.
(C) A per-job bid rate or deposit made shall be determined on a per-job basis for the community transition service as set forth in rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code. The cost per job shall be paid at a per-job bid rate that is negotiated and approved by Ohio department of aging's (ODA) designee and accepted by the individual. The per-job bid rate includes the items and supports set forth in rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code and authorized on the person-centered services plan.
(D) A unit rate shall be based on a three-tiered model, and shall not exceed the amounts in appendix A to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code. These rates are used for assisted living services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(1) The rate for assisted living services for each individual shall be determined by the ODA's designee through an assessment of the individual's service needs in four areas:
(a) Cognitive impairments,
(b) Medication administration,
(c) Nursing services, and
(d) Functional impairments.
(2) The ODA-certified assisted living provider must agree to provide the services in the individual's person-centered service plan at the rate determined by the assessment.
(E) ODA certified assisted living providers shall only be paid for assisted living services authorized by ODA's designee and reflected on the individual's person-centered service plan.
(F) Assisted living service payment constitutes payment in full and may not be construed as a partial payment when the payment amount is less than the provider's charge. The provider may not bill an individual enrolled in the assisted living program for any difference between the medicaid payment and the provider's charge or request that the individual share in the cost through a co-payment or other similar charge.
(G) The assisted living service payment is for assisted living services as defined in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code and does not include payment for room and board as calculated pursuant to rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code, which is the responsibility of the individual.
History
- Effective: July 1, 2019
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-11
(A) The following definitions are applicable to this rule:
(1) "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Home delivered meals" is a meal delivery service based on an individual's need for assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs) and/or instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) in order to safely prepare meals, or ensure meals are prepared to meet the individual's dietary needs or specialized nutritional needs, including kosher meals. The type of home delivered meals are the following
(a) Standard meal means a meal that adheres to the version of the "Dietary Guidelines for Americans" in effect on the delivery day and at least thirty-three per cent of the individual's dietary reference intakes. A standard meal may include, but is not limited to, a reduced calorie meal, reduced sodium meal, reduced sugar meal, a gluten-free meal, or vegetarian meal, if the individual chooses the meal by personal preference.
(b) Kosher meal is a meal that complies with the kosher practices for meal preparation and dietary restrictions and certified as kosher by a recognized kosher certification or a kosher establishment under orthodox rabbinic supervision.
(c) Therapeutic meal means a meal provided in accordance to an order by a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes ordering therapeutic diets:
(i) For management of a disease or clinical condition;
(ii) To modify, eliminate, decrease or increase certain substances in the diet; or
(iii) To provide mechanically altered food when indicated.
(3) "Meals" are single portions that are ready to eat, frozen, vacuum-packed, modified-atmosphere-packed, or shelf-stable. Meals have all the following characteristics:
(a) It includes instructions on how to safely maintain, heat, reheat and/or assemble the meal, in a manner understandable to the individual and/or their caregiver.
(b) It adheres to the individual's medical restrictions as set forth in their person-centered services plan.
(B) Meal specifications.
(1) Meal menus will be approved in writing by a dietitian who is currently registered with the commission on dietetic registration, and who is also a licensed dietitian in the state in which the dietitian is located if that state licenses dietitians.
(a) Providers will furnish each individual with home delivered meals that accommodate the individual's religious, cultural, ethnic, and dietary preferences.
(b) Providers shall publish their current menu and ingredient information on their websites and offer written menus and ingredient information to individuals.
(2) An individual's person-centered services plan establishes meal delivery parameters which include all the following:
(a) Up to two meals per day. The maximum number of meals delivered will not exceed fourteen meals at one time.
(b) The type of meal.
(c) The frequency of delivery.
(d) The delivery-verification method which will include:
(i) Signature upon delivery by the individual or the individual's designee; or
(ii) The delivery driver's confirmation that delivery occurred. The provider may use an electronic system to verify.
(a) If a provider uses a common carrier to deliver meals, the provider will verify the success of the delivery by using the method in paragraph (B)(2)(d) of this rule; or
(b) By retaining the common carrier's tracking statement or other evidence showing successful delivery.
(e) A provider may deliver specifically identified items that are packaged in larger than single servings.
(3) Additional back up meals may be authorized at the discretion of the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), the Ohio department of aging (ODA), or their designee.
(C) Meals will not be:
(1) Processed, pre-packed and commercially available to the general public for purchase; or
(2) Provided in order to supplant or replace the purchase of food or groceries for others.
(D) Provider qualifications.
(1) A provider of home delivered meals will maintain evidence of:
(a) A current, valid food operations or other applicable license or certificate as required by licensing or regulatory agencies where the meal is produced.
(b) Good standing with all applicable federal, state and local regulatory agencies; and
(c) Meeting applicable licensing requirements for safety, storage, sanitation and other applicable provisions for food service.
(2) The provider will develop, implement and maintain evidence of a training plan that includes orientation and annual continuing education.
(a) The provider will ensure anyone who participates in meal preparation, handling or delivery receives orientation on topics relevant to the person's job duties before they perform those duties.
(b) The provider will ensure anyone who participates in meal preparation, handling or delivery completes continuing education annually on topics relevant to the person's job duties.
(E) Delivery requirements.
(1) Delivery will be based on a routine delivery date and range of time.
(2) The provider will notify the individual if meal delivery will be delayed or will not occur as planned.
(3) The provider will ensure that delivery provided by commercial or common carrier meets applicable federal, state and local food safety, storage and sanitation requirements.
(F) The provider will maintain the following documentation:
(1) Initial and subsequent person-centered services plans for each individual;
(2) All diet orders;
(3) Documentation of meal delivery, including:
(a) The individual's name;
(b) The date, time and number of meals in the delivery;
(c) Verification of delivery in accordance with the individual's person-centered services plan;
(d) Verification that the individual was notified if service delivery was not provided within the established delivery date or time; and
(e) Verification that the individual has been furnished clear instructions about how to safely heat, reheat and assemble each meal.
(4) A written record, including date and topics covered, during the completion of orientation and continuing education sessions;
(5) All licensure or certification documents required by this rule;
(6) All local licensing or regulatory agency inspection reports and documented findings, any resulting plans of correction and any follow up reports; and
(7) All United States department of agriculture inspection reports and documented findings, any resulting plans of correction and any follow-up reports.
(G) The provider will replace any item lost or stolen between the time of delivery and non-receipt by the individual at no cost to the individual, ODM, ODA, or their designee.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.14
(A) "Home-delivered meal" means a meal regulated by rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of home-delivered meals:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Requirements specific to home-delivered meals:
(a) For all meals, the provider is subject to rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If ODA's designee authorizes home-delivered meals for an individual, the provider shall provide the individual with home-delivered meals that are kosher if the individual requests a kosher diet.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in this rule or rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in this rule or rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) A unit of regular home-delivered meals as one home-delivered meal.
(b) A unit of home-delivered meals with a therapeutic diet as one home-delivered meal with a therapeutic diet.
(c) The maximum-allowable rate for a unit of home-delivered meals.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for units of home-delivered meals.
(3) For the PASSPORT program, section 173.524 of the Revised Code authorizes paying for home-delivered meals with a kosher diet at the same rate as a therapeutic diet.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-17-07
(A) Every nursing home administrator will be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code, unless specifically exempted from licensing under that chapter.
(B) No person with a disease which may be transmitted in the performance of the person's job responsibilities will work in a nursing home during the stage of communicability unless the person is given duties that minimize the likelihood of transmission and follows infection control precautions and procedures.
(C) No person is allowed to work in a nursing home under either of the following circumstances:
(1) Under the influence of alcohol, intoxicants or illegal drugs; or
(2) When the person is using medications to the extent that the use adversely affects the performance of their duties or the health or safety of any resident of the home.
(D) No individual is allowed to work in a nursing home in any capacity for ten or more hours in any thirty-day period unless the individual has been examined within thirty days before commencing work, or on the first day of work, by a physician or other licensed health professional acting within their applicable scope of practice and certified as medically capable of performing their prescribed duties. Operators will retain documentation evidencing compliance with this paragraph and furnish such documentation to the director upon request. This paragraph does not apply to volunteers.
(E) Employees of temporary employment services or, to the extent applicable, paid consultants working in a nursing home, will have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule, except that a new medical certification is not obligated for each new assignment. Each nursing home in which such an individual works will obtain verification of the medical certification result, as applicable, from the employment agency or consultant before the individual begins work and maintain this documentation on file.
(F) Individuals used by an adult day care program provided by and on the same site as the nursing home will have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule if the adult day care program is located or shares space within the same building as the nursing home or if there is a sharing of staff between the nursing home and adult day care program.
(G) The individual responsible for the comprehensive activities program set forth inparagraph (A) of rule 3701-17-09 of the Administrative Code to direct the activities program will meet one of the following qualifications:
(1) Has two years of experience in a social or recreational program within the five years preceding the date of hire, one year of which was full-time in a resident activities program in a health care setting;
(2) Is licensed as an occupational therapist under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(3) Is licensed as an occupational therapy assistant under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;
(4) Is certified by a nationally recognized accrediting body as a therapeutic recreation specialist or activities professional; or
(5) Has successfully completed training covering activities programming from a technical or vocational school, college, university, or other educational institution, and has one year of experience in recreational or activities services. Training may also be provided by an out-of-state provider certified in the state in which the provider is located to offer technical or vocational programs or to offer degrees and college credits. For individuals hired after April 18, 2002, the minimum amount of training needed to meet this requirement is ninety hours.
(H) A food service manager designated pursuant to paragraph (J) of rule 3701-17-18 of the Administrative Code who has supervisory and management responsibility and the authority to direct and control food preparation and service will obtain the level two certification in food protection according to rule 3701-21-25 of the Administrative Code.
(I) All individuals used by the nursing home who function in a professional capacity will meet the standards applicable to that profession, including but not limited to, possessing a current Ohio license, registration, or certification, if mandated by law.
(J) The operator or administrator will ensure that each staff member, consultant and volunteer used by the nursing home receives orientation and training to the extent necessary to perform their job responsibilities prior to commencing such job responsibilities independently that includes orientation and training about residents rights, person-centered care, the physical layout of the nursing home, the applicable job responsibilities, the home's policies and procedures applicable to assuring safe and appropriate resident care, infection control, emergency assistance procedures, and the disaster preparedness plan.
(K) No nursing home is allowed to employ or continue to employ a person who applies for a position that involves the provision of direct care to an older adult, if the person:
(1) Has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed in division (C)(1) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code, unless the individual is hired under the personal character standards set forth in rule 3701-13-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Fails to complete the form(s) or provide fingerprint impressions in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code;
(3) Is the subject of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry, established pursuant to section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;
(4) Is the subject of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry established by another state where the home believes or has reason to believe the person resides or resided; or
(5) Has a disciplinary action that is currently in effect and has been taken out against a professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a resident, or misappropriation of the property of a resident.
Last updated July 17, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: July 17, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-06.1
(A) The Ohio department of aging is responsible for the daily administration of the preadmission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) medicaid waiver program. Ohio department of aging will administer the waiver pursuant to an interagency agreement with the Ohio department of medicaid in accordance with section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.
(B) The PASSPORT waiver provides home and community based services (HCBS) to individuals enrolled in the waiver in accordance with rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(C) The PASSPORT HCBS waiver covered services and eligibility requirements are set forth in Chapter 5160-31 of the Administrative Code.
(D) The maximum allowable payment rates for PASSPORT HCBS waiver program services are listed in the appendix to this rule.
(E) PASSPORT HCBS payment will be provided in accordance with paragraphs (A) to (C) of rule 5160-1-60 of the Administrative Code.
View Appendix
Last updated April 17, 2026 at 8:02 AM
History
- Effective: April 17, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-07
The purpose of this rule is to describe the methods used to determine provider rates for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) program.
(A) Rates determined under this rule will not exceed the maximum allowable rates for PASSPORT services in appendix A to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code. Payment for PASSPORT waiver services constitutes payment in full and will not be construed as a partial payment when the payment amount is less than the provider's usual and customary rate. In accordance with rule 5160-1-13.1 of the Administrative Code, the provider will not bill the individual for any difference between the medicaid payment and the provider's rate or request the individual to share in the cost through a co-payment or other similar charge.
(B) PASSPORT rates are established for the services in rule 5160-31-05 of the Administrative Code under the following categories:
(1) Per-job bid rate;
(2) Per-item rate; and
(3) Unit rate.
(C) Rates set within the categories in paragraph (B) of this rule may be:
(1) Participant-directed, in which the individual or a designated authorized representative, who is acting on the individual's behalf, may negotiate the rate for services furnished by providers as specified in paragraphs (D)(3), (E)(3), and (G)(1) of this rule.
(2) Statewide, in which the state establishes a rate used on a statewide basis to pay for services specified in paragraph (F)(1) of this rule.
(3) Group rates which are seventy-five per cent of the rate the provider would be paid for providing PASSPORT services as specified in paragraphs (D)(2), (F)(2), and (F)(3) of this rule.
(D) For the services listed in this paragraph, the provider and the Ohio department of aging or its designee negotiate a per-job rate.
(1) A per-job bid rate applies to the following services:
(a) Community transition;
(b) Home maintenance and chores;
(c) Home modification;
(d) Non-medical transportation.
(2) Non-medical transportation rendered simultaneously by the same provider to more than one individual enrolled in the PASSPORT program, who reside in the same home and who travel in the same vehicle to the same destination is paid at a group rate of seventy-five per cent of the provider's per-job bid rate.
(3) Home modification and home maintenance and chores may be participant-directed services in which the individual enrolled in the PASSPORT program, or their authorized representative, acting on the individual's behalf, may negotiate rates.
(a) The negotiated rate is reviewed by Ohio department of aging's (ODA) designee and reflected on the individual's person-centered service plan prior to service delivery.
(b) Should the individual choose not to negotiate a rate the service may be paid at a rate proposed by the provider and accepted by the individual and ODA's designee. The accepted rate is reflected on the individual's person-centered service plan.
(E) A per-item rate applies to home medical equipment and supplies.
(1) No per-item rate may exceed the medicaid state plan rate.
(2) A home medical equipment and supplies item that does not have an established medicaid rate may be paid at a per-item bid rate from the provider which has been agreed to in writing by ODA's designee prior to delivery of the item.
(3) Home medical equipment and supplies may be participant-directed in which the individual enrolled on PASSPORT or the authorized representative acting on the individual's behalf, may negotiate rates.
(a) The negotiated rate is reviewed by ODA's designee and reflected on the individual's person-centered services plan prior to service delivery.
(b) Should the individual choose not to negotiate a rate, the service may be paid at a rate agreed upon between the provider, the individual, and ODA's designee. The agreed upon rate is reflected on the individual's person-centered services plan.
(F) ODA will establish unit rates for the services listed in this paragraph.
(1) Statewide unit rates are established and used for the following services:
(a) Adult day;
(b) Adult day transportation;
(c) Community integration;
(d) Enhanced community living;
(e) Home care attendant;
(f) Home delivered meals;
(g) Homemaker;
(h) Nutritional consultation;
(i) Out-of-home respite;
(j) Personal care;
(k) Personal emergency response system;
(l) Social work or counseling;
(m) Structured family caregiving; and
(n) Waiver nursing.
(2) The services in paragraphs (F)(1)(e), (F)(1)(j), and (F)(1)(m) of this rule, when rendered consecutively during the same visit to more than one but fewer than four PASSPORT individuals in the same household, and identified in the individuals' person-centered service plans, are paid to one hundred per cent of the provider's per unit rate set in accordance with paragraph (C) of this rule for one PASSPORT individual and paid a group rate for each subsequent PASSPORT individual in the household receiving services during the visit.
(3) Adult day transportation rendered simultaneously by the same provider to more than one individual residing in the same household and traveling in the same vehicle to the same destination is paid using a group rate equal to seventy-five per cent of the provider's rate.
(G) The services in this paragraph are participant directed and the individual may negotiate unit rates with providers.
(1) The participant directed services include:
(a) Alternative meals; and
(b) Choices home care attendant.
(2) The individual will have in effect, before choices home care attendant services are delivered, a signed provider agreement with each ODA-certified participant-directed individual provider delivering services to the individual. The provider agreement will:
(a) Include the rate negotiated with the provider;
(b) Specify the time period the rates are in effect;
(c) Base rates on the units of service as set forth in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code; and
(d) Be signed by the individual receiving the choices home care attendant service and the home and community based services (HCBS) provider.
(3) The rates negotiated by the individual with providers of services in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule will not exceed the maximum allowed per unit of service as specified in appendix A to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code. The negotiated rate is reviewed by ODA's designee, and reflected on the individual's person-centered service plan prior to service delivery.
(4) Should the individual choose not to negotiate a rate for any of the services in paragraph (G)(1) of this rule, the service may be paid at a rate agreed upon by the provider, the individual and the individual's case manager. The agreed upon rate is reflected on the individual's person-centered services plan.
(H) The Ohio department of medicaid, or its designee,will evaluate unit rates within two years of the effective date of this rule and every two years thereafter.
Last updated October 1, 2024 at 9:07 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.2 ODA provider certification: alternative meals.
(A) "Alternative meals" means a participant-directed service for sustaining an individual's health by enabling the individual to procure up to two meals per day from a non-traditional provider, such as a restaurant, but not an adult day center.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified provider of alternative meals:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Requirements specific to meals: The provider is subject to all the requirements for ODA-certified providers of home-delivered meals in rule 173-39-02.14 of the Administrative Code except delivery requirements.
(3) Provider qualifications: Only an agency provider qualifies for ODA's certification to provide alternative meals.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) A unit of alternative meals as one meal provided according to this rule.
(b) The maximum-allowable rate for one unit of alternative meals.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for alternative meals.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-12
(A) "Home maintenance and chore" means a service that maintains a clean and safe living environment through the performance of tasks in the individual's home that are beyond the individual's capability. Home maintenance and chore services shall not exceed a total of ten thousand dollars in a calendar year per individual. Covered home maintenance and chore activities include:
(1) Minor home maintenance and repair including inspecting, maintaining, and repairing furnaces, including pilot lights and filters; inspecting, maintaining, and repairing water faucets, drains, heaters, and pumps; replacing or installing electrical fuses; plumbing and electrical repairs; repair or replacement of screens or window panes; fixing floor surfaces posing a threat to the individual's health, safety, and welfare; and moving heavy items to provide safe ingress and egress.
(2) Heavy household cleaning, including washing walls and ceilings; washing the outside of windows; non-routine washing of windows; removing, cleaning and rehanging curtains or drapery; and shampooing carpets or furniture.
(3) Removal of environmental hazards posing a threat to the individual's health, safety, and welfare such as:
(a) Non-routine disposal of garbage or other accumulated items in an individual's residence;
(b) Non-routine yard maintenance including snow removal;
(c) Pest control and related tasks to prevent, suppress, eradicate, or remove pests; and
(d) Mold eradication.
(4) Upkeep and maintenance of a home modification or adaptive/assistive devices, such as:
(a) Routine maintenance plan;
(b) Extended warranty; and
(c) Service call, labor and parts for a modification or device that ceases to function as intended.
(B) Home maintenance and chore do not include:
(1) Tasks of general utility (including routine yardwork), and not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the individual.
(2) Jobs that add to the total square footage of the home.
(3) Jobs that can be accomplished through existing informal or formal supports.
(4) Jobs that are the legal or contractual responsibility of someone other than the individual (e.g., the landlord, etc.).
(5) Jobs involving the removal of home modifications and returning of property to its prior condition when the individual vacates the premises.
(6) Replacement or repair of a previously approved home modification or home maintenance and chore job that has been damaged as a result of apparent misuse, abuse, or negligence.
(C) Home maintenance and chore that are necessary to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the individual and will exceed the ten-thousand-dollar calendar year threshold may be considered for approval by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), Ohio department of aging (ODA) or their designee.
(D) Authorization process.
(1) ODM, ODA, or their designee may require the completion of an in-home evaluation by an appropriately qualified professional to determine the suitability of the immediate environment where the service will be performed and the viability of the completion of the service to improve independence and/or facilitate a healthy and safe environment.
(2) In consultation with the individual and/or caregiver(s), ODM, ODA, or their designee, and if necessary, the qualified professional, will develop a referral that addresses the individual's home maintenance and chore needs.
(3) Home maintenance and chore providers will submit a fixed cost proposal for the services described under the referral which will be good for the term of the proposal.
(a) At a minimum, the proposal will include all of the following:
(i) A breakdown of all the needed materials;
(ii) A breakdown of the costs of all the needed materials;
(iii) A breakdown of the labor costs;
(iv) A list of any permits that must be obtained;
(v) An estimate of the time needed to complete the service;
(vi) A written statement of all warranties provided, including a warranty lasting at least one year from the date of final acceptance of work against defective workmanship, as applicable; and
(vii) A written guarantee that all materials, products, and installed or furnished appliances perform their advertised function.
(b) A fixed cost proposal may be adjusted for good cause only if the proposal is adjusted in writing, and the adjustment is approved by ODM, ODA, or their designee.
(4) ODM, ODA, or their designee will review all submitted proposals with the individual and will approve the proposal with the lowest cost alternative that meets the individual's assessed needs and ensures the health, safety and welfare of the individual.
(5) The provider will be reimbursed for the actual cost of material and/or labor as identified in the proposal.
(E) Provider requirements.
The provider will:
(1) Know and understand the individual's person-centered services plan related to home maintenance and chore, and personal preferences regarding the specific services to be performed.
(2) Before performing a service, inform the individual and ODM, ODA, or their designee of any potential health or welfare risk, and coordinate times and dates of service to ensure minimal risk to the individual.
(3) Comply with applicable federal, state, and local laws, and the individual's homeowners' association (HOA) requirements, as applicable.
(4) Obtain the property owner's written consent prior to performing the service. This written consent will reflect that the property owner has agreed to the maintenance, repair or other service.
(5) Furnish to the individual, ODM, ODA, or their designee a warranty that covers the workmanship and materials involved in performing the service, as applicable.
(6) Provide documentation to ODM, ODA, or their designee that the service was completed in accordance with the agreed upon specifications using the materials and equipment cited in the proposal.
(7) Provide documentation to ODM, ODA, or their designee that the service was tested, is in proper working order, and is usable by the individual, if applicable.
(8) Repair any damage incidental to the service at no additional cost.
(F) Home maintenance and chore may only be provided by an agency or non-agency provider approved by ODM or certified by ODA as a medicaid waiver provider of home maintenance and chore.
(G) Service verification: The provider will obtain the individual's or authorized representative's signature and date of completion of the service to verify service delivery, verify the provider left the individual's home in satisfactory condition, and verify repair of any damages incidental to the service.
(H) Provider record retention. For each service furnished, the provider will retain a record of compliance with all requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code, or with the requirements set forth in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) program. The record will include:
(1) Individual's name.
(2) Date of service delivery.
(3) A copy of the fixed cost proposal described in paragraph (D)(3) of this rule, including any approved adjustments.
(4) Service description, including a comparison between the fixed cost proposal and the actual services provided.
(5) Name of each provider staff person in contact with the individual.
(6) List of chemicals and substances used.
(7) Proof of appropriate qualifications to perform services requiring specialized skills such as electrical, heating/ventilation, and plumbing work.
(8) Proof of licensure, insurance, and bonding for services from applicable jurisdictions.
(9) Proof of all necessary post-inspections and post-inspection reports required by law, a HOA, or both to verify whether each episode of service meets federal, state, and local laws or HOA requirements. Proof will be obtained prior to billing,
(10) All of the documents required in paragraphs (E), (F), and (G) of this rule.
(I) The authorization of home maintenance and chore may be combined with other waiver services to meet the assessed needs of the individuals. In such instances, individual waiver service limits as described in paragraph (C) of this rule still apply.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:31 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.5 ODA provider certification: home maintenance and chores.
(A) "Home maintenance and chores" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of home maintenance and chores:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of home maintenance and chores as one job.
(b) The maximum-allowable rate per job.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for home maintenance and chores provided through the PASSPORT program, which requires the unit rate to be negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes all administrative, labor, and material costs for a specific job. The PASSPORT program does not pay for any amount in excess of the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee revises the negotiated rate in one of the following situations:
(a) ODA's designee revises the rate before the provider begins the job.
(b) ODA's designee revises the rate to coincide with authorizing the provider to address an unforeseen issue as part of the original job.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.6 ODA provider certification: personal emergency response system.
(A) "Personal emergency response system" (PERS) means the service defined in rule 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of PERS:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of ongoing PERS as one monthly rental for one or more days of PERS in a month.
(b) One unit of PERS installation as one completed installation, which includes the one-time cost for installing PERS equipment, the initial training of the individual on how to use the PERS equipment, the initial response plan, the initial training of responders, and verifying the success of the individual's return demonstration.
(c) The maximum-allowable rates for PERS units.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for PERS.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-16
(A) "Personal emergency response systems" (PERS) is a service with a monitoring, reminder and/or reporting component available to support individuals' independence in the community. PERS include telecommunications equipment, a central monitoring station (station), and a medium for two-way, hands-free communication between the individual and the station. Personnel at the station respond to an individual's alarm signal via the individual's PERS equipment.
(B) "PERS equipment" means equipment that is appropriate to meet the assessed needs of the individual as authorized on the individual's person-centered services plan and that meets all of the following characteristics:
(1) Includes an activation device that is wearable and water-resistant according to a generally-accepted industry standard for water resistance to a level matching the individual's assessed needs and preferences.
(2) Has an internal battery providing at least twenty-four hours of power without recharging.
(3) Accommodates the individual's needs and preferences.
(C) "PERS" does not include:
(1) Remote video monitoring of the individual in his or her home.
(2) Systems that connect the individual to only emergency service personnel.
(D) PERS provider requirements. The provider will:
(1) Ensure and maintain a record of the successful completion of training on how to respond to alarm signals by each staff member whose job duties include responding to alarm signals at the station.
(2) Ensure each individual is able to choose the PERS device that meets his or her assessed needs and preferences as authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan.
(3) Install and activate the individual's PERS equipment no later than seven days after the date PERS has been authorized on the individual's person-centered services plan by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), the Ohio department of aging (ODA) or their designee.
(4) Train each individual receiving PERS with the following:
(a) An initial demonstration on how to use their PERS equipment. The demonstration can be conducted by telephone or electronically, unless the individual's needs necessitate an in-person visit.
(b) A successful return demonstration by the individual of all components of the PERS equipment and monthly testing.
(5) Ensure the availability of language assistance in the event the individual has limited English language proficiency.
(6) Consult with the individual and case manager before activating PERS equipment to develop an initial written response plan regarding how to proceed when an alarm is signaled within the following parameters.
(a) The written response plan includes a summary of the individual's information regarding medical diagnosis, treatment and preferences, as well as the contact information for the individual's designated responder.
(i) For the purpose of this rule, a designated responder is a person or organization identified in an individual's written response plan who the station contacts if the individual signals an alarm and requires assistance from the designated responder.
(ii) The provider identifies emergency service personnel on the written response plan only if the individual does not designate a responder or only designates one responder.
(b) The provider notifies each person the individual designated when activating the individual's PERS equipment and on an annual basis thereafter as part of the monthly service that, at a minimum, the individual designated the person as a responder and to provide instructions on how to respond when an alarm is signaled.
(c) The provider consults with the individual and ODM, ODA or their designee to identify a new designated responder in the written response plan whenever the person the individual chooses to be a designated responder refuses to participate or stops participating.
(7) Replace any malfunctioning PERS equipment at no additional cost to the individual, ODM, ODA, or their designee no later than twenty-four hours after it is notified of the malfunction, or no later than twenty-four hours after the malfunction is detected through the monthly testing of equipment, unless the malfunction is due to the individual's apparent misuse, abuse, or negligence of the equipment.
(8) Provide ongoing customer support to the individual, designated responder, ODM, ODA and its designee upon request of one or more of those parties as part of the monthly service.
(9) The provider will notify ODM, ODA, or their designee, in writing, if at any time, the provider determines inability to meet the individual's assessed needs, as identified through the individual's person-centered services plan.
(10) Employ staff to comprise a central monitoring station located in the United States or may subcontract with another company to use a station located in the United States to provide the station component of the PERS.
(11) Maintain a primary system to receive and respond to alarm signals from individuals twenty-four hours a day, every day of the year;
(12) Maintain a secondary system to respond to all incoming alarm signals in case the primary system is unable to respond to alarm signals;
(13) Respond to each alarm signal no more than sixty seconds after it receives the alarm signal;
(14) Notify ODM, ODA or their designee of any emergency involving an individual no more than twenty-four hours after the individual sends the alarm signal;
(15) Notify ODM, ODA or their designee when a pattern of frequent false alarms has been established for an individual;
(16) Contact emergency service personnel in the event a provider receives an alarm signal, but the station cannot reach a designated responder; and
(17) Remain in communication with the individual in the event of a personal emergency through the two-way communication feature of the PERS equipment until a designated responder or emergency service personnel arrives in the individual's home, the personal emergency subsides, or after it is determined there is no personal emergency (e.g. false alarm).
(E) PERS providers will maintain the following documentation for each individual receiving PERS:
(1) Date and time of equipment delivery and installation;
(2) A copy of the individual's initial and all subsequent written response plans;
(3) Date the individual and designated responder received initial and annual notification from the PERS provider as required by paragraph (D)(6)(b) of this rule;
(4) Date, time and results of monthly testing; and
(5) Date, time and summary of actions taken regarding service-related contacts.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.7 ODA provider certification: home medical equipment and supplies.
(A) "Home medical equipment and supplies" (HME) means a service providing rented or purchased home medical equipment and supplies to individuals to enable those individuals to function safely in their homes with greater independence, thereby eliminating the need for placement in a nursing facility.
HME is limited to equipment and supplies allowed under Chapter 5160-10 of the Administrative Code, miscellaneous equipment and supplies, equipment repairs, and equipment and supplies not paid (in full or in part) by medicare, state plan medicaid, or another third-party payer.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified providers of home medical equipment and supplies:
(1) General requirements: The agency provider shall comply with the requirements for every ODA-certified agency provider in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and the non-agency provider shall comply with the requirements for every ODA-certified agency provider in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Ongoing assistance: The provider shall provide professional, ongoing assistance when needed to evaluate and adjust equipment and supplies delivered, and/or to instruct the individual or the individual's caregiver in the use of equipment and supplies.
(3) Repairs and replacements: The provider shall assume liability for equipment warranties and shall install, maintain, and/or replace any defective parts or items specified in those warranties. Replacement items or parts for HME are not payable as rental equipment.
(4) Billing:
(a) Before ODA's designee may authorize equipment or supplies, the provider shall document the equipment and supplies to be purchased were not covered (in full or in part) by medicare, state plan medicaid, and any other third-party payer.
(b) The provider shall, in collaboration with the ODA's designee, ascertain and recoup any third-party resource(s) available to the individual before billing ODA or its designee. ODA or its designee may then pay the unpaid balance up to the lesser of the provider's billed charge or the maximum allowable payment established in the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The provider shall provide the price for an item to be purchased or rented to the ODA's designee no more than two business days after the ODA's designee's request. The provider shall purchase, deliver, and install (as appropriate) the authorized item(s) before billing ODA's designee. The billed amount for each item shall not exceed the item rate authorized by ODA's designee.
(5) Delivery and verification:
(a) The provider shall verify the successful completion of each activity (i.e., delivery, installation, or education) it provides using either an electronic or manual system and shall retain records verifying the delivery of HME. Regardless of the system used, the verification shall include the individual's name, date of delivery, installation, or education, and itemization of each activity completed.
(b) Delivery verification methods: The provider shall verify the delivery of HME by one of the following methods:
(i) A unique identifier of the individual.
(ii) If a provider uses a common carrier to deliver HME, the provider shall verify the success of the delivery by using the method in paragraph (B)(5)(b)(i) of this rule or by retaining the common carrier's tracking statement or returned postage-paid delivery invoice.
(c) If a provider leaves an HME item outside the door of an individual's home, the provider shall contact the individual by telephone at least once per month to alert them to any delivery left outside the door to their home.
(d) The provider shall replace (at no cost to the individual, ODA, or ODA's designee) any HME item lost or stolen between the time of delivery and receipt by the individual.
(e) If a single visit by the provider includes more than one HME activity, the provider may verify the success of all the activities it provides by obtaining only one verification.
(f) The provider shall not verify an HME activity was successfully provided with the signature of the provider, an employee of the provider, or any other person with a financial interest in the HME.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) A unit of HME is the item purchased or rented, and the unit rate is the purchase, installation, and/or rental price authorized for the item by ODA's designee.
(2) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code establishes the maximum rate allowable for one unit of HME.
(3) Rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for units of HME.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: April 4, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.9 ODA provider certification: home modification.
(A) "Home modification" has the same meaning as "home modifications" in rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for ODA-certified providers of home modification:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code establishes one unit of home modification as one completed job.
(b) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code and rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code establish the maximum-allowable rate for a unit of home modification..
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for home modification, which requires the unit rate to be negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes all administrative, labor, and material costs for a specific job. The PASSPORT program does not pay for any amount in excess of the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate that does not exceed the maximum-allowable rate in paragraph (C)(1)(b) of this rule.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-13
(A) "Home modifications" are environmental adaptations to the private home(s) of the individual authorized by the individual's person-centered services plan, that are necessary to ensure the health, welfare and safety of the individual or that enable the individual to function with greater independence in the home. Such adaptations include, but are not limited to, the installation of ramps and grab-bars, widening of doorways, modification of bathroom or kitchen facilities, or the installation of specialized electric and plumbing systems that are necessary to accommodate the medical equipment and supplies that are necessary for the welfare of the individual. Home modifications also include replacement of previous home modifications when it is determined the modification cannot be repaired through another resource. Home modifications shall not exceed a total of fifteen thousand dollars in a calendar year per individual. The Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), Ohio department of aging or their designee will approve the lowest cost alternative that meets the individual's assessed needs.
(B) Home modifications do not include:
(1) Adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general utility, and are not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the individual including, but not limited to, carpeting, roof repair and central air conditioning.
(2) Adaptations that add to the total square footage of the home, except when necessary to complete an adaptation (e.g., in order to improve entrance/egress to a home or to configure a bathroom to accommodate a wheelchair).
(3) New, replacement home modifications or repair of previously approved home modifications that have been damaged as a result of apparent misuse, abuse, or negligence.
(4) Removing modifications and returning the property to its prior condition when an individual vacates the premises.
(C) Home modifications may be authorized up to one hundred and eighty consecutive days prior to an individual's transition from an institutional setting into the community.
(1) The modification is not considered complete until the individual leaves the institutional setting.
(2) The date of service for purposes of reimbursement will be the date on which the individual leaves the institutional setting. If an individual fails to transition into the community, the modification is still reimbursable.
(D) Authorization process.
(1) ODM, Ohio department of aging, or their designee may require the completion of an in-home evaluation by an occupational therapist (OT) or physical therapist (PT) licensed pursuant to Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code or other appropriately qualified professional. The qualified professional conducting the evaluation will:
(a) Determine the individual's capacity to utilize the requested home modification.
(b) Determine the suitability of the immediate environment where the modification will be installed.
(c) Determine the viability of the completion of the modification to improve independence.
(d) In consultation with the individual and/or caregiver(s), develop a recommendation for a home modification to address the individual's environmental accessibility needs.
(e) Provide ODM,Ohio department of aging, or their designee with a written home modification referral that addresses the individual's environmental accessibility needs.
(2) Home modification providers will submit a fixed cost proposal for the services submitted under the home modification referral which will be good for the term of the work agreement.
(a) At a minimum, the proposal will include all of the following:
(i) A drawing or diagram of the home modification, as appropriate;
(ii) A breakdown of all of the needed materials;
(iii) A breakdown of the costs of the needed materials;
(iv) A breakdown of the labor costs;
(v) A list of all building permits that must be obtained;
(vi) An estimate of the time needed to complete the home modification;
(vii) A written statement of all warranties provided, including a warranty lasting at least one year from the date of final acceptance of work against defective workmanship; and
(viii) A written guarantee that all materials, products, and installed or furnished appliances perform their advertised function.
(b) A fixed cost proposal may be adjusted for good cause only if the job specifications are modified in writing, and the adjustment is approved by ODM, Ohio department of aging or their designee.
(3) ODM, Ohio department of aging or their designee will review all submitted proposals with the individual and will award the home modification service to the provider that proposes the lowest cost alternative that meets the individual's assessed need.
(E) Limitations.
(1) ODM, Ohio department of aging, or their designee will ensure safeguards are in place to minimize any potential conflicts of interest between the person(s) conducting any evaluations required pursuant to paragraph (D) of this rule and the home modification provider.
(2) The provider shall be reimbursed for the actual cost of material and labor for the home modification as identified in the home modification proposal. Reimbursement may be adjusted only if the job specifications are modified pursuant to the requirements in paragraph (D) of this rule.
(3) The provider will not be the owner of the individual's home where the modification is being performed.
(F) Provider requirements.
(1) The provider will:
(a) Know and understand information contained in the individual's person-centered services plan related to the modification and personal preferences about the home modification services to be furnished.
(b) Obtain final written approval from the individual and ODM, Ohio department of aging or their designee after completion of the home modification.
(2) The provider record will include evidence the provider obtained and maintained:
(a) The written consent of the property owner to modify the property, including acknowledgment that the owner understands that the waiver is not responsible for returning the property to its prior condition.
(b) All permits required by law, including building permits, prior to commencing work on each job order.
(c) Any necessary inspections and inspection reports required by federal, state and local laws upon completion of each job to verify that the repair, modification or installation was completed. The provider will obtain these inspections, inspection reports, and permits prior to billing for the completed job.
(d) Documentation that the home modification was completed in accordance with the agreed upon specifications.
(e) Documentation that the home modification was tested, is in proper working order and is functional for use by the individual.
(f) Documentation that the home modification meets all applicable federal, state and local building codes and accessibility codes.
(g) Appropriate qualifications to perform jobs requiring specialized skills such as electrical work, heating/ventilation and plumbing to ODM, Ohio department of aging or their designee upon request.
(h) Licensure, insurance, and bonding for general contracting services of applicable jurisdictions to ODM, Ohio department of aging or their designee upon request.
(i) All permits and pre-job inspections required by law, home owners' association, or both.
(j) All necessary post-inspections and post-inspection reports required by law, a HOA, or both to verify whether each episode of service meets federal, state, and local laws or HOA requirements. Proof will be obtained prior to billing,
(G) The authorization of home modification services may be bundled with other waiver services to meet the assessed needs of the individuals. In such instances, individual waiver service limits as described in paragraph (A) of this rule still apply.
Last updated April 17, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: April 17, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.10 ODA provider certification: nutritional consultations.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Nutritional consultation" (consultation) means individualized guidance to an individual who has special dietary needs. Consultations take into consideration the individual's health; cultural, religious, ethnic, socio-economic background; and dietary preferences and restrictions. Consultations are also known as medical nutrition therapy. "Nutritional consultation" does not include either of the following:
(a) A consultation provided to an individual's authorized representative or caregiver to improve the individual's well-being.
(b) A consultation provided to an individual if the individual receives a similar service paid (in full or in part) by medicare state plan medicaid, or another third-party payer.
(2) "Nutritional assessment" (assessment) has the same meaning as in rule 4759-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Every ODA-certified provider of nutritional consultations shall comply with the following requirements:
(1) General requirements: The provider shall comply with the requirements for every ODA-certified provider in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Dietitian: Only a licensed dietitian (dietitian) working for an ODA-certified agency provider, or a licensed dietitian working as an ODA-certified non-agency provider shall provide consultations to individuals.
(3) Orders: Before the provider provides a consultation to an individual or to the individual's authorized representative or caregiver, the provider shall obtain an order for the consultation from a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes ordering consultations.
(4) Venue:
(a) The dietitian may conduct the initial consultation by telephone, video conference, or in person in the individual's home.
(b) The dietitian may conduct subsequent consultations by telephone, video conference, or in person in the individual's home.
(5) Nutritional assessment:
(a) The provider shall conduct an initial, individualized assessment of the individual's nutritional needs and, when necessary, subsequent assessments, using a tool that identifies whether the individual is at nutritional risk or identifies a nutritional diagnosis that the dietitian will treat. The tool shall include the following:
(i) An assessment of height and weight history.
(ii) An assessment of the adequacy of nutrient intake.
(iii) A review of medications, medical diagnoses, and diagnostic test results.
(iv) An assessment of verbal, physical, and motor skills that may affect, or contribute to, nutrient needs.
(v) An assessment of interactions with the caregiver during feeding.
(vi) An assessment of the need for adaptive equipment, other community resources, or other services.
(b) The provider shall provide the case manager, the individual, and the individual's authorized representative (if the individual has authorized a representative) with a copy of the assessment no later than seven business days after the provider completes the assessment.
(c) The provider may use an electronic system to develop and retain an assessment.
(6) Nutrition intervention plan:
(a) The provider shall develop, evaluate, and revise, as necessary, a nutrition intervention plan with the individual's and case manager's assistance and, when applicable, the assistance of the licensed healthcare professional who authorized the consultations. In the plan, the provider shall outline the purposely-planned actions for changing nutrition-related behavior, risk factors, environmental conditions, or health status, which, at a minimum, shall include the following information about the individual:
(i) Food and diet modifications.
(ii) Specific nutrients to require or limit.
(iii) Feeding modality.
(iv) Nutrition education and consultations.
(v) Expected measurable indicators and outcomes related to the individual's nutritional goals.
(b) The provider shall use the nutrition intervention plan to prioritize and address the identified nutrition problems.
(c) The provider shall provide the case manager, the individual, and the licensed healthcare professional who ordered the consultations with a copy of the nutrition intervention plan no later than seven business days after the provider develops or revises the plan.
(d) The provider may use an electronic system to develop and retain the nutrition intervention plan.
(7) Service verification: By one of the following two methods, the provider shall verify that each consultation for which it bills was provided:
(a) The provider may use an electronic system if the system does all of the following:
(i) Collects the individual's name, date of consultation, time of day each consultation begins and ends, name of licensed dietitian providing consultation, and a unique identifier of the individual.
(ii) Retains the information it collects.
(iii) Produces reports, upon request, that ODA (or its designee) can monitor for compliance.
(b) The provider may use a manual system if the provider records the date of service, time of day that each consultation begins and ends, name of the person providing the consultation, and collects the handwritten signature of the person providing the consultation and a unique identifier of the individual.
(C) Unit and rate:
(1) A unit of a nutritional consultation is fifteen minutes of session time with the individual.
(2) The maximum rate allowable for a unit of nutritional consultations is listed in the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The rate is subject to the rate-setting methodology in rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: April 4, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4759-2-01
The following meanings apply to all rules promulgated by the state medical board of Ohio, unless a specific paragraph explicitly defines or uses the word or term in a different manner subject to the laws of Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code, including section 4759.01 of the Revised Code defining the practice of dietetics.
(A) "Nutrition assessment" means the systematic approach for collecting, classifying, and synthesizing relevant data to develop an individualized nutritional care plan. These data may include:
(1) Nutrient intake;
(2) Anthropometric measurements;
(3) Biochemical values;
(4) Physical and metabolic parameters;
(5) Socio-economic factors;
(6) Current medical diagnosis and medications; and
(7) Pathophysiological processes.
The mere collection of these data for use in assessment is not nutritional assessment and does not require a dietitian licensed under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. Nutrition assessment is an on-going dynamic process and includes re-assessment, analysis of client or community needs and provides the foundation for nutrition diagnosis and nutritional recommendations including enteral and parenteral nutrition.
(B) "Nutritional counseling" means the advising of individuals or groups regarding nutritional intake by integrating information from the nutritional assessment with information on food and other sources of nutrients and meal preparation consistent with cultural background and socioeconomic status.
The distribution by an individual of written information prepared by a licensee is not nutritional counseling, and any person distributing the written information need not be licensed under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Nutritional education" means a planned program based on learning objectives with expected outcomes designed to modify nutrition-related behaviors. This does not prohibit an unlicensed individual from providing general non-medical nutrition information as defined in paragraph (M) of rule 4759-2-01 of the Administrative Code if the person does not violate division (B) of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Nutritional care standards" means policies and procedures pertaining to the provision of nutritional care in institutional and community settings.
(E) "Nutritional care" means the application of the science of nutrition in the health and disease of people.
(F) "Board" means the state medical board of Ohio.
(G) "Commission" means "The Commission on Dietetic Registration."
(H) "The Academy" means "The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics."
(I) "Medical nutrition therapy" means the evidence-based application of the nutrition care process and use of specific nutrition services to treat, or rehabilitate an illness, injury, or condition. Medical nutrition therapy includes nutrition assessment, re-assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention, nutrition monitoring and evaluation within the scope of practice of dietetics as defined in section 4759.01 of the Revised Code.
(J) "Council on postsecondary accreditation" is synonymous with its successors the "Commission on recognition of post-secondary accreditation" and the "Council for higher education accreditation" (CHEA).
(K) For purposes of division (B)(2) of section 4759.02 of the Revised Code, the terms "Nutritionist," "Nutrition counselor" and like terms tend to indicate the person is practicing dietetics.
(L) "High nutritional risk" means, but is not limited to, an individual to whom one or more of the following apply:
(1) Has a diagnosis of or presence of risk factors for malnutrition, dehydration, anemia, malabsorption disorders, vitamin and mineral deficiencies;
(2) Receives enteral or parenteral nutrition;
(3) Has pressure ulcer(s), open wounds(s), or non-healing wound(s);
(4) Significantly low albumin or hemoglobin levels, or elevated blood urea nitrogen and electrolyte imbalances;
(5) Severe chewing or swallowing problems;
(6) Consistently poor food/fluid intakes;
(7) Individuals who are less than ninety per cent of standard weight for height, or who exhibit significant weight changes as defined by accepted practice guidelines;
(8) Decreased activities of daily living (ADL);
(9) Decreased cognitive ability;
(10) A pregnant female who was fifteen years of age or less at the time of conception;
(11) Infants who are small for gestational age, or a pre-term infant of low birth weight.
(M) "General non-medical nutrition information" means information on the following:
(1) Principles of good nutrition and food preparation;
(2) Food to be included in the normal daily diet;
(3) The essential nutrients needed by the body;
(4) Recommended amounts of the essential nutrients;
(5) The actions of nutrients on the body;
(6) The effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients; or
(7) Food and supplements that are good sources of essential nutrients.
(N) "Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics" (ACEND) of the academy of nutrition and dietetics is the accrediting agency for didactic education and preprofessional experience programs that prepare students for careers as dietitians. Dietetics education programs voluntarily apply to the ACEND for program accreditation by submitting applications demonstrating compliance with the accreditation standards.
Last updated October 31, 2025 at 7:35 AM
History
- Effective: October 31, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.12 ODA provider certification: social work or counseling.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Social work or counseling" (service) means a service to an individual or to an individual's caregiver to promote the individual's physical, social, or emotional well-being; and the development and maintenance of a stable and supportive environment for the individual.
(a) "Social work or counseling" includes crisis interventions, grief counseling, and other social work and counseling interventions that support the individual's health and welfare.
(b) "Social work or counseling" does not include any of the following:
(i) A service provided in place of case management.
(ii) A service provided to the individual's authorized representative or caregiver that is unrelated to the individual's well-being.
(iii) A service provided if the individual receives a similar service paid (in full or in part) by medicare, state plan medicaid, or another third-party payer.
(2) "E.passport" has the same meaning as in section 4732.40 of the Revised Code.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of social work or counseling:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Venue: The provider shall provide this service in the individual's home, in another community-based setting agreed upon by the individual and the provider, or by telephone or video conference as permitted by the licensing board for the licensed professional providing this service.
(3) Assessment: The provider shall assess each individual, including the individual's psycho-social, financial, and environmental statuses.
(4) Treatment plan:
(a) The provider shall develop a treatment plan that includes a method of treatment and number of sessions and share the plan with the individual and the individual's case manager within ten business days after the provider completes the assessment.
(b) The provider shall implement the treatment plan.
(5) Provider qualifications: No person may provide the service, whether as a non-agency provider or as an employee or subcontractor of an agency provider, unless the person meets the following qualifications.
(a) The person has a current, valid license in good standing with the provider's state licensing board to be one of the following:
(i) Licensed psychologist or licensed psychologist with an e.passport.
(ii) Licensed professional clinical counselor (LPCC), including an LPCC from a member state with an unencumbered multistate license under section 4757.51 of the Revised Code.
(iii) Licensed professional counselor (LPC), including an LPC from a member state with an unencumbered multistate license under section 4757.51 of the Revised Code.
(iv) Independent marriage and family therapist (IMFT).
(v) Marriage and family therapist (MFT).
(vi) Licensed independent social worker (LISW) including, beginning on August 9, 2024, an LISW from a member state with an unencumbered multistate license under section 4757.52 of the Revised Code.
(vii) Licensed social worker (LSW) including, beginning on August 9, 2024, an LSW from a member state with an unencumbered multistate license under section 4757.52 of the Revised Code.
(viii) An advanced practice RN designated as a CNP or CNS and certified as a psychiatric-mental health CNP or CNS by the American nurses credentialing center.
(b) The person has at least one year of social work or counseling experience.
(6) Service verification: The following are the mandatory reporting items for each session:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Date of session.
(c) Time of day each session begins and ends.
(d) Name of staff member providing social work or counseling to the individual or the individual's caregiver (if an agency provider).
(e) A unique identifier of the individual to attest to participating in the session.
(C) Unit and rate:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) A unit of a social work or counseling as fifteen minutes of session time with the individual.
(b) The maximum-allowable rate for a unit of social work or counseling.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for social work or counseling.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.15 ODA provider certification: community integration.
(A) "Community integration" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of community integration:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code, the provider is subject to the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of community integration as fifteen minutes.
(b) The maximum-allowable rate for a unit of community integration.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for community integration.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-14
(A) "Community integration" means independent living assistance and community support coaching activities that are necessary to enable an individual to live independently and have access to, choice of, and an opportunity to participate in, a full range of community activities.
(B) "Independent living assistance" means help for individuals to manage their households and personal affairs, self-administer medications, and retain their community living arrangements. Independent living assistance can be furnished through telephone support, in-person support or travel attendant activities, as applicable to the tasks performed. Activities may include:
(1) Reminding an individual to take their medications;
(2) Contacting individuals at times no other in-home services are being provided to confirm the individual is functioning safely in their home;
(3) Assisting with banking;
(4) Organizing and coordinating health records;
(5) Assisting with applications for public programs including homestead exemption, the home energy assistance program, and subsidized housing;
(6) Monitoring and replenishing needed groceries (does not include cost of groceries);
(7) Assisting with business and personal correspondence;
(8) Accompanying an individual to their medical and other appointments; and
(9) Accompanying an individual on their errands and to other activities in the community.
(C) "Community support coaching" includes providing information and training to an individual so the individual can achieve the community integration goals identified in his or her person-centered services plan. Skills training topics include:
(1) How to manage finances;
(2) How to manage an individual's own health and wellness;
(3) How to identify and access community and legal resources, and leisure, educational, and recreational activities;
(4) How to find a job;
(5) How to manage an individual's own home;
(6) How to navigate community-based transportation systems; and
(7) How to build interpersonal, social, and communication skills.
(D) Community integration provider requirements.
(1) Community integration will be furnished by Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) -approved agencies or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -certified agencies.
(2) The provider will comply with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code for an ODM-administered waiver program, or Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) waiver program.
(3) The provider will develop, implement, and maintain evidence of a training plan that includes initial orientation and annual continuing education.
(a) The provider will ensure anyone who furnishes community integration receives orientation on topics relevant to the person's job duties before they perform those duties.
(b) The provider will ensure anyone who furnishes community integration completes a minimum of twelve hours of continuing education annually on topics relevant to the person's job duties.
(4) Community integration staff will have:
(a) A high school diploma, general education diploma (GED), or a minimum of one year of relevant, supervised work experience with a public health, human services, or other community service agency.
(b) The ability to understand written activity plans (description of interventions and the dates/times the provider will provide the interventions), execute instructions, document activities provided, and the ability to perform basic mathematical operations.
(c) Experience advocating on behalf of individuals with chronic illnesses, behavioral health conditions, physical disabilities, or developmental disabilities.
(5) Supervisors of community integration staff will possess at least one of the following:
(a) A current and valid license to practice in the state of Ohio as a registered nurse (RN), licensed practical nurse (LPN), licensed social worker (LSW), or licensed independent social worker (LISW);
(b) A bachelor's degree or an associate's degree in human ecology, dietetics, counseling, gerontology, social work, nursing, public health, health education, or another related field; or
(c) At least two years of employment experience providing community-based social services or job coaching.
(6) Supervisory responsibilities include:
(a) Collaborating with the individual to identify, develop and document a specific activities plan, including the type of intervention(s) provided, prior to initiation of services that is consistent with the individual's approved person-centered services plan.
(b) Conducting evaluations of community integration staff every ninety days to ensure staff compliance with the activities plan, and the individual's satisfaction.
(E) All providers will maintain a record at their place of business for each individual served in accordance with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code for an ODM-administered waiver program, or with the requirements set forth in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code for the PASSPORT program. The record will include:
(1) The individual's name;
(2) A copy of the individual's initial, and all subsequent person-centered services plans;
(3) A copy of the individual's approved activity plan;
(4) Date(s) of service;
(5) A detailed description of each task or activity performed and the staff person who performed it; and
(6) The individual's signature to verify receipt of the service.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:32 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-09
(A) For the purposes of this rule;
(1) Personal care services or skilled nursing care are provided by a residential care facility when:
(a) They are provided by a person:
(i) Employed by the facility;
(ii) Associated with the facility; or
(iii) Who is a related party to the facility;
(b) By another person pursuant to an agreement to which neither the resident nor their sponsor is a party;
(c) By another person pursuant to an agreement the facility requires a resident or their sponsor to contract with a person to receive services; or
(d) The resident does not have free choice of service provider.
For purposes of this rule "related party" means an individual or organization that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled by, the owner or operator of the residential care facility.
(2) A residential care facility may provide the skilled nursing care authorized by paragraphs (J) and (K) of this rule through the following arrangements as long as the residential care facility complies with the applicable provisions of this rule:
(a) Qualified staff members of the residential care facility; or
(b) Through agreements or contractual arrangements, including but not limited to, contracts with a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of "the Social Security Act", 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended (1981), or a licensed hospice care program, licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code.
(B) Each residential care facility is obligated to:
(1) Specify in its policies and the resident agreements, obligated by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code, the extent and types of personal care services it provides; and
(2) Provide personal care services to its residents who are in need of those services, unless the resident and the facility have entered into a risk agreement under rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code or the resident has refused services, and may provide personal care services to other residents upon request.
Nothing in this paragraph is to be construed as permitting personal care services to be imposed upon a resident who is capable of performing the activity in question without assistance unless requested.
(C) If a resident requires certain personal care services that the residential care facility does not offer:
(1) The facility is obligated to comply with paragraph (G) of rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code; and
(a) Arrange for or allow the resident to arrange for the services to be provided; or
(b) Transfer the resident to an appropriate setting or discharge the resident in accordance with section 3721.16 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-61 of the Administrative Code; or
(2) The facility and the resident may enter into a risk agreement in accordance with paragraphs (F) and (G) of rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code, if the facility has a policy of entering into such agreements.
(D) Each residential care facility is obligated to ensure that personal care services are provided to residents:
(1) In accordance with acceptable standards of care;
(2) By staff members meeting the training standards of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code; and
(3) That meet the needs of residents as determined in the resident assessments obligated by rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code and consistent with the resident agreements under rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code.
(E) A residential care facility may provide for the administration of medication to residents in accordance with division (B) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code and this rule.
(1) All medication taken by residents of residential care facilities will be self-administered, and members of the staff of a residential care facility are barred from administering medication to residents, except that medication may be administered in accordance with division (B) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code and paragraphs (G) and (H) of this rule.
(2) A residential care facility may admit or retain an individual requiring medication only if the individual is capable of taking their own medication and biologicals, as determined in writing by the person's attending physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, or if the facility provides for the administration of medication by:
(a) A home health agency certified under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended (1981);
(b) A hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code; or
(c) A member of the staff of the residential care facility who is qualified to perform medication administration.
(F) Staff members may assist with self-administration of medication by doing any of the following once they have received training in providing the services, as obligated by paragraph (E) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Remind a resident when to take medication, and watch to ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;
(2) Assist a resident in self-administration of medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it is stored and handing it to the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open a container, a staff member may open the container for the resident. The staff member is obligated to check the name on the prescription label and verify that the resident's name on the prescription label corresponds to the resident requesting the medication before handing it to the resident. The staff member may read the label and directions on the medication container to the resident upon request. The staff member also may remind the resident and any other individual designated by the resident when prescribed medication needs to be refilled. Staff members are not allowed to assist a resident with self-administration of a prescription medication that belongs to another resident;
(3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident such as, but not limited to, a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's disease, upon that resident's request, in removing oral or topical medication from containers and in consuming or applying the medication upon request by or with the consent of the resident. If the resident is physically unable to place a dose of medicine to their mouth without spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and place the container to the mouth of the resident. As used in this paragraph, "topical medication" means:
(a) Eye, nose, or ear drops excluding irrigations; and
(b) Medication used in the treatment of a skin condition or minor abrasion, excluding debriding agents; and
(4) Assist a resident with organizing the resident's medications in a weekly pill organizer if the resident is able to differentiate between pills and actively participates in the organization. Nothing in this rule is to be construed as allowing staff members to fill a weekly pill organizer for a resident.
(G) Medication are obligated to be administered in accordance with accepted standards of practice to a resident in a residential care facility only by the following persons authorized by law to administer medication:
(1) A registered nurse;
(2) A licensed practical nurse holding proof of successful completion of a course in medication administration approved by the Ohio board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code who is allowed to administer medication only at the direction of a registered nurse or physician;
(3) A physician; or
(4) A person authorized by law to administer medication.
(H) Residential care facilities that administer medication are obligated to comply with all of the following:
(1) No medication is allowed to be given to any resident unless ordered by a physician or individual authorized under state law to prescribe medications. Ordered medications are obligated to be administered unless the resident refuses or the resident exhibits symptoms that contraindicate medication administration. If a medication is not administered, the staff member responsible for administering the medication is obligated to document in the resident's record why the medication was not administered. Telephone orders are not allowed to be accepted by a person other than a licensed nurse, another physician or a pharmacist except that a licensed health professional may receive, document and date medication orders concerning their specific discipline, to the extent permitted by applicable licensing laws. If orders are given by telephone, they are obligated to be recorded with the prescriber's name and the date, and the order signed by the person who accepted the order. All telephone orders are obligated to be signed by the physician who gave the order or other licensed health professional with prescriptive authority working under the supervision of or in collaboration with the physician within fourteen days after the order was given. The residential care facility may accept facsimile and electronic documentation of orders in accordance with paragraph (B)(4) of rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code;
(2) All medications are obligated to be given only to the individual resident for whom they are prescribed, given in accordance with the directions on the prescription or the physician's or other authorized prescriber's orders, and recorded on the resident's medication record obligated by paragraph (I)(7) of this rule;
(3) The person who administers the medication is obligated to observe the resident for adverse effects, contraindications, and medication effectiveness. Such person is obligated to notify the resident's attending physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, of any undesirable effects and document these effects and the date and time of such notification in the resident's medication record;
(4) Only administer drugs bearing the American hospital formulary service therapeutic class 4:00, 28:16:08, 28:24:08, or 28:24:92 with the authorization of the attending physician, after personal examination of the resident and documentation of the medical condition being treated and reasons for use of the drug and when necessary to treat a resident's medical condition and to assist the resident to attain their highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being. Drugs used for this purpose are not considered chemical restraints as defined in paragraph (L) of this rule; and
(5) Ohio board of pharmacy and United States drug enforcement administration regulations.
(I) Residential care facilities that handle residents' medication are obligated to:
(1) Not stock or dispense medicines or drugs which may be sold only by prescription unless the facility has in its employ, on either a full-time or part-time supervisory and consulting basis, a pharmacist registered under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code, who will be in complete control of such stock and the dispensing thereof;
(2) Keep all prescription medications in locked storage areas, including drugs requiring refrigeration, except medications of residents living in individual units who self-administer their own medications may be stored in the resident's unit if the resident and residential care facility take reasonable precautions to prevent access to the medications by other residents;
(3) Assure that the labeling of prescription medicine and drugs meet the following criteria:
(a) Every container of medicine and drugs prescribed for a resident for self-administration or assistance by non-licensed health care personnel, will be clearly labeled with the resident's name, the proprietary or generic name of the medication dispensed and its strength, the name and address of the dispensing pharmacy, the name or initials of the dispensing pharmacist, the prescription number, the date dispensed, the name of the prescribing physician or individual authorized under state law to prescribe medications, and the instructions for use including any cautions which may be obligated by federal or state law. Containers too small to bear a complete prescription label will be labeled with at least the prescription number and the dispensing date and will be dispensed in a container bearing a complete prescription label;
(b) Medicines and drugs dispensed by a health care facility pharmacy for administration by a licensed nurse or physician to residents whereby the medicines and drugs are not in the possession of the resident prior to administration will be clearly labeled in accordance with rule 4729-17-10 of the Administrative Code;
(c) Not repackage or relabel resident medications; and
(d) Ensure over-the-counter medications that are either administered by an individual acting within their scope of practice and based on a prescriber's order, or given to residents capable of self-administration of medication, contain a United States food and drug administration label indicating, in part, the medication's:
(i) Name;
(ii) Strength;
(iii) Quantity;
(iv) Accessory instructions;
(v) Lot number; and
(vi) Expiration date;
Over-the-counter medications kept by residents capable of self-administration do not need to meet the criteria of this rule.
(4) Send a resident's medication with him or her upon permanent transfer or discharge or destroy or dispose them with the consent of the resident in accordance with any applicable state or federal laws and regulations;
(5) If controlled substances are used, order, dispense, administer, and dispose of controlled substances in accordance with state and federal laws and regulations and ensure policies and procedures are in place to prevent the misappropriation or theft of controlled substances;
(6) Keep a written list of all medications prescribed for each resident and are obligated to make a good-faith effort to keep the list current; and
(7) Maintain an individual medication record for each resident to whom the residential care facility administers medications in which:
(a) Medication orders, including telephone, electronic, and facsimile orders, are recorded and signed by the prescriber; and
(b) All medications are recorded as given, documenting the name of the medication, date and time given, route of administration, and signed by the individual administering the medication.
(J) Each residential care facility that provides for the application of dressings in accordance with division (A) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code is obligated to:
(1) Establish in writing the services pertaining to the application of dressings that are routinely managed by the facility. The determination of the type of applications of dressings that are managed by the facility are based on staff education, staff competence, the amount of staff experience with the listed types of applications of dressings, and support services available in the facility;
(2) Develop and follow policies and procedures which assure that the application of dressings are provided in accordance with acceptable standards of practice;
(3) Ensure that the application of dressings are provided only by individuals authorized under state law to provide the application of the dressing. Skilled nursing care may be delegated in accordance with Chapter 4723-13 of the Administrative Code;
(4) Evaluate each resident at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident should be transferred to a nursing home or other appropriate health care setting. The evaluation and determination is obligated to be performed by the appropriate health care professional and documented in the resident's record;
(5) Document all applications of dressings that are provided by the residential care facility in the resident's record. Such documentation is obligated to include, but not be limited to, treatment and medication orders issued by appropriate licensed health care professionals when needed to authorize provision of a service and nurse's notes indicating the nature of the service provided and the resident's status. The residential care facility may accept facsimile and electronic orders in accordance with paragraph (B)(4) of rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code; and
(6) Ensure that a nurse coordinates the overall nursing care of each resident who receives applications of dressings.
(K) Each residential care facility that provides supervision of therapeutic diets is obligated to comply with the applicable provisions of rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code. The residential care facility may accept facsimile and electronic documentation of therapeutic diet orders in accordance with paragraph (B)(4) of rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code;
(L) The residential care facility is forbidden from physically, chemically, or through isolation, restraining residents.
(1) For the purposes of this paragraph:
(a) "Physical restraint" means, but is not limited to, any article, device, or garment that interferes with the free movement of the resident and that the resident is unable to remove easily, a geriatric chair, or a locked room door;
(b) "Chemical restraint" means any drug that is used for discipline or staff convenience and not prescribed to treat medical symptoms; and
(c) "Freedom of movement" means the ability of the resident to move around within the context of the resident's functional capacity as assessed by the facility.
(2) A residential care facility's use of the following items for the purposes stated in this paragraph will not be construed as physically or chemically restraining a resident or subjecting a resident to prolonged isolation:
(a) Devices that assist a resident in the improvement of the resident's mental and physical functional status and that do not restrict freedom of movement or normal access to one's body;
(b) Medications that are standard treatment or a documented exception to standard treatment for the resident's medical or psychiatric condition which assist a resident in attaining or maintaining the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psycho-social well-being;
(c) Residency in a secured special care unit that restricts a resident's freedom of movement throughout the facility if;
(i) Care and services are provided in accordance with each resident's individual needs and preferences, not for staff convenience;
(ii) The need for continued residency in the secured special care unit is reviewed during each periodic assessment obligated by rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code;
(iii) The secured special care unit meets state building and fire code standards; and
(iv) Residency on the secured special care unit is not based solely on the resident's diagnosis.
(d) Not withstanding paragraph (L)(2)(c) of this rule, a resident may choose to reside in the secured special care unit based upon their specific circumstances, such as if their spouse is a resident of the secured special care unit, or if the only room available in the facility is on the secured special care unit. A resident who chooses to reside in the secured special care unit needs to be able to enter and exit the unit without assistance.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:34 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-08
(A) The residential care facility, in accordance with this rule, will ensure that written initial and periodic health assessments of prospective and current residents are conducted. The different components of the health assessment may be performed by different licensed health professionals, consistent with the type of information bring collected and the professional's scope of practice, as defined by applicable law. In conducting the assessment, the licensed health professional may use resident information obtained by or from unlicensed staff as long as the licensed health professional evaluates such information in accordance with their applicable scope of practice. The residential care facility is obligated to ensure that all components of the assessments obligated by this rule are completed and that residents do not need accommodations or services beyond those that the residential care facility provides. Each residential care facility is obligated to, on an annual basis, offer to each resident a vaccination against influenza and a vaccination against pneumococcal pneumonia as obligated by section 3721.041 of the Revised Code.
(B) Each resident is obligated to be initially assessed within forty-eight hours of admission, except that paragraphs (C)(11) and (C)(12) of this rule are obligated to be performed within fourteen days after admission. If the resident had an assessment meeting the criteria set forth in paragraph (C) of this rule performed no more than ninety days before beginning to reside in the residential care facility, the resident does not need to obtain another initial assessment.
(C) The initial health assessment is obligated to include documentation of the following:
(1) Preferences of the resident including hobbies, usual activities, bathing, sleeping patterns, socialization and religious;
(2) Medical diagnoses, if applicable;
(3) Psychological, intellectual disabilities, and developmental diagnoses history, if applicable;
(4) Health history and physical, including cognitive functioning and sensory and physical impairments, and the risk of falls;
(5) Prescription medications, over-the-counter medications, and dietary supplements;
(6) Nutrition and dietary needs, including any food allergies and intolerances, food preferences, and need for any adaptive equipment, and needs for assistance and supervision of meals;
(7) Height, weight, and history of weight changes;
(8) A functional assessment which evaluates how the resident performs activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living. For the purposes of this paragraph, "instrumental activities of daily living" means using the telephone, acquiring and using public and private transportation, shopping, preparing meals, performing housework, laundering, and managing financial affairs;
(9) Type of care or services, including the amount, frequency, and duration of skilled nursing care the resident needs as determined by a licensed health professional in accordance with the resident's assessment under paragraph (C) of this rule;
(10) A determination by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, as to whether or not the resident is capable of self-administering medications. The documentation will specify what assistance with self-administration, as authorized by paragraph (F) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code, if any, is needed or if the resident needs to have medications administered in accordance with paragraphs (G) and (H) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code;
(11) If skilled care is provided to the resident by staff members, a determination by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice of:
(a) Whether the resident's personal care needs have been affected by the skilled nursing care needs, other than the administration of medication or supervision of special diets; and
(b) Whether any changes are necessary in the manner personal care services are provided. The individual conducting the assessment is obligated to establish the extent, if any, of the changes necessary.
(12) If skilled nursing care is provided to the resident by staff members, the resident's attending physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, will sign orders documenting the need for skilled nursing care, including the specific procedures and modalities to be used and the amount, frequency, and duration. This care is obligated to be provided and reviewed pursuant to paragraph (B) of rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(13) If the resident has been determined to have medical, psychological, or developmental or intellectual impairment, the assessment is obligated to include:
(a) A plan for addressing the resident's assessed needs;
(b) The need for physical environment and design features to support the functioning of the resident; and
(c) The need for increased supervision, due to decreased safety awareness or other assessed condition.
(D) Subsequent to the initial health assessment, the residential care facility will assess each resident's health at least annually unless medically indicated sooner. The annual health assessment is obligated to be performed within thirty days of the anniversary date of the resident's last health assessment and include documentation of at least the following:
(1) Changes in medical diagnoses, if any;
(2) Updated nutritional needs, including any food allergies and intolerances;
(3) Height, weight and history of weight changes;
(4) Prescription medications, over-the-counter medications, and dietary supplements;
(5) A functional assessment as described in paragraph (C)(8) of this rule;
(6) If the resident has been determined to have medical, psychological, or developmental or intellectual impairment, an assessment as described in paragraph (C)(13) of this rule;
(7) Type of care or services, including the amount, frequency, and duration of skilled nursing care, the resident needs as determined by a licensed health professional in accordance with paragraph (D) of this rule;
(8) A determination by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, as to whether or not the resident is capable of self-administering medications. The documentation will specify what assistance with self-administration, as authorized by paragraph (F) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code, if any, is needed or if the resident needs to have medications administered in accordance with paragraphs (G) and (H) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code; and
(9) If skilled care is provided to the resident by staff members, a determination by a physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, of:
(a) Whether the resident's personal care needs have been affected by the skilled nursing care needs, other than the administration of medication or supervision of special diets; and
(b) Whether any changes are necessary in the manner personal care services are provided. The individual conducting the assessment will establish the extent, if any, of the changes necessary.
(E) The residential care facility will ensure that each resident's health is assessed if a change in condition or functional abilities warrants a change in services or equipment. The assessment is obligated to include, as applicable, documentation of paragraphs (D)(1) to (D)(9) of this rule. The facility is obligated to make a good faith effort to obtain information from residents about assessments independently obtained outside the facility.
(F) Prior to admitting or transferring a resident to a special care unit that restricts the resident's freedom of movement, the residential care facility is obligated to ensure that a physician or other licensed healthcare professional working within their scope of practice, has made a determination that the admission or transfer to the special care unit is needed. The facility is obligated to update this determination to include both improvement and decline, during the periodic reassessment obligated by paragraph (D) of this rule. Prior to admission to the special care unit, the residential care facility is obligated to provide the resident with an updated resident agreement obligated by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code and with the facility's policy on care of residents by means of a special care unit obligated by paragraph (E)(5) of that rule. No resident is allowed to be admitted to a secured special care unit based solely on his or her diagnosis.
(G) If a resident needs services or accommodations beyond that which a residential care facility is authorized to provide or beyond that which the specific facility provides, refuses needed services, or fails to obtain needed services for which the resident agreed to be responsible under the resident agreement obligated by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code, the residential care facility is obligated to take the following action:
(1) Except in emergency situations, the residential care facility is obligated to meet with the resident, and, if applicable, the resident's sponsor and discuss the resident's condition, the options available to the resident including whether the needed services may be provided through a medicaid waiver program, and the consequences of each option;
(2) If the lack of needed services has resulted in a significant adverse change in the resident, the residential care facility is obligated to seek appropriate intervention in accordance with paragraph (A) of rule 3701-16-12 of the Administrative Code. If an emergency does not exist the facility is obligated to provide or arrange for the provision of any needed services that the resident has not refused until the resident is discharged or transferred or the resident and the facility have mutually resolved the issue in a manner that does not jeopardize the resident's health or the health, safety or welfare of the other residents. This paragraph does not authorize a facility to provide skilled nursing care beyond the limits established in section 3721.011 of the Revised Code; and
(3) The residential care facility is obligated to transfer or discharge the resident in accordance with section 3721.16 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-61 of the Administrative Code if the resident needs skilled nursing care or services beyond what the facility provides and the residential care facility, based on the meeting with the resident obligated by paragraph (G)(1) of this rule, determines that such action is necessary to assure the health, safety and welfare of the resident or the other residents of the facility. The residential care facility may retain a resident who refuses available services if doing so does not endanger the health, safety, and welfare of other residents and the resident does not need services beyond that which a facility is authorized to provide under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and rules 3701-16-01 to 3701-16-18 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:33 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-09.1
(A) Except as provided for in division (D) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code, a residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who are in need of skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication only if the skilled nursing care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period regardless of any transfer or discharge and readmission to the facility. A part-time, intermittent basis means that skilled nursing care is rendered for less than eight hours a day or less than forty hours a week. For the purposes of this provision:
(1) The residential care facility is obligated to use the following criteria in tracking the one hundred and twenty days of part-time, intermittent skilled nursing care permitted under this paragraph:
(a) Self-care does not count toward the allowable one hundred twenty days;
(b) Services provided by physical and occupational therapists and assistants licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and speech-language pathologists licensed under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code do not constitute skilled nursing care and are not to be counted;
(c) Only days on which skilled nursing care is performed are to be counted toward the allowable one hundred and twenty days; and
(d) Medication administration, supervision of therapeutic diets or application of dressings will be counted toward the allowable one hundred and twenty days, if the residential care facility does not provide for these services, pursuant to rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Skilled nursing care may be provided by one or more of the following:
(a) A home health agency certified under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended (1981);
(b) A hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code;
(c) A member of the staff who is authorized under state law to provide skilled nursing care.
If a resident's condition is in need of more skilled nursing care than permitted under this paragraph, the residential care facility is obligated to transfer or discharge the resident in accordance with section 3721.16 of the Revised Code and Chapter 3701-61 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Each residential care facility that provides skilled nursing care using staff members is obligated to:
(1) Develop and follow policies and procedures which assure that the skilled nursing care is provided in accordance with acceptable standards of practice;
(2) Ensure that the skilled nursing care is provided in accordance with accepted standards of practice only by individuals authorized under state law to provide skilled nursing care. Skilled nursing care may be delegated in accordance with Chapter 4723-13 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Except for residents receiving medication administration, supervision of special diets, the application of dressings, or skilled nursing care permitted by paragraph (D) of this rule, evaluate each resident receiving skilled nursing care at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident should be transferred to a nursing home or other appropriate health care setting. The evaluation and determination is obligated to be performed by the appropriate licensed health care professional and documented in the resident's record;
(4) Document all skilled nursing care provided by the residential care facility in the resident's record. Such documentation is obligated to include, but not be limited to, medication and treatment orders when needed to authorize provision of a service and nurse's notes indicating the nature of the service provided and the resident's status. All orders are obligated to be signed and dated by the licensed health professional who gave the order within fourteen days after the order was given;
(a) Telephone orders are not allowed to be accepted by a person other than a licensed nurse on duty, another physician or a pharmacist, except that a licensed health professional may receive, document and date medication and treatment orders concerning their specific discipline for residents under their care, to the extent permitted by applicable licensing laws.
(b) The residential care facility may accept signed treatment and medication orders issued by a licensed health professional by facsimile transmission if the facility has instituted procedural safeguards for authentication and maintaining confidentiality of the facsimile order, and for handling the order in an expedient and priority manner.
(c) An entry that is an electronic record as defined in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code may be authenticated by an electronic signature in accordance with section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
(5) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident receiving care as determined by the assessment obligated by rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code and consistent with the resident agreement obligated by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code; and
(6) Ensure that a nurse coordinates the overall nursing care of each resident who receives skilled nursing care from facility staff.
(C) In addition to paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule, each residential care facility that provides enteral tube feedings on a part-time intermittent basis is obligated:
(1) Establish in writing the types of enteral tube feedings that are routinely managed by the facility. The determination of the types of enteral tube feedings that are provided by the facility are to be based on staff education, staff competence, the amount of staff experience with the listed types of enteral tube feedings, and support services available in the facility;
(2) Develop and follow policies and procedures which assure that enteral tube feedings are prepared and offered as ordered and that sanitary conditions are maintained in procurement, storage, preparation, and the administration of the enteral tube feedings;
(3) Document the weight of the resident and the resident's acceptance and tolerance of the enteral tube feedings in accordance with policies and procedures developed by the dietitian and the nurse responsible for the overall nursing care of the resident; and
(4) Provide or arrange for a dietitian.
(D) A residential care facility may admit or retain an individual who is in need of skilled nursing care for more than one hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if:
(1) The facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the following:
(a) The individual, the individual's sponsor, or both;
(b) The individual's personal physician or other licensed health professional acting within their applicable scope of practice, unless either of the following apply:
(i) If the provision of the skilled nursing care is not overseen by the individual's personal physician, the provider of the skilled nursing care may enter into the agreement; or
(ii) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code may enter into the agreement.
(2) The written agreement obligated by this paragraph includes a statement signed by all parties acknowledging that they understand the agreement and that the individual's needs can be met at the facility. The agreement is not considered complete without this signed statement and includes all of the following provisions:
(a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care in the facility only if a determination has been made that the individual's needs can be met at the facility. This determination is obligated to be made by the residential care facility, the individual's attending physician, and, if applicable, the provider of the skilled nursing care;
(b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only if periodic re-determinations are made that the individual's needs can be met at the facility;
(c) That the re-determinations will be made according to a schedule specified in the agreement and as the resident's condition necessitates , but no less frequently than every thirty days, except for hospice patients whose re-determinations are to be made be no less frequently than every fifteen days;
(d) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, the individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled nursing care the resident or prospective resident needs is routine. For purposes of this rule, "routine" does not include those conditions listed in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code; and
(e) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice care program that best meets the individual's needs.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:34 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-10
(A) Each residential care facility is obligated to specify in its residential care facility policies and the resident agreements, established by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code, the amount and types of dietary services it provides. The facility is obligated to elect to provide any of the following:
(1) No meals;
(2) One, two, or three daily meals;
(3) Preparation of special diets other than therapeutic diets; one, two, or three daily meals; or
(4) Preparation and supervision of therapeutic diets. Each facility that elects to supervise therapeutic diets is obligated to provide three daily meals and meet the criteria of this chapter of the Administrative Code for the supervision of therapeutic diets;
Each residential care facility that provides meals is obligated to include a variety of food accommodating religious restrictions and ethnic and cultural preferences of residents in accordance with the residential care facility's policy
(B) Each residential care facility that agrees to provide three daily meals for a resident is obligated to make available at least three nourishing, palatable, attractive and appetizing meals at regular hours comparable to normal mealtimes in the community. The meals will provide the dietary referenced intake of the "Food and Nutrition Board" of the "National Academy of Science", be based on a standard meal planning guide from a diet manual published by a dietitian, approved by a dietitian, or both. Food will be prepared and served in a form that meets the resident's individual needs based on the assessment conducted pursuant to rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code. There will be no more than sixteen hours between the evening meal and breakfast. Each residential care facility that provides meals is obligated to offer a nourishing snack, consisting of a choice of beverages and a food item from a basic food group, after the evening meal. Food substitutes of similar nutritive value will be offered to residents who refuse the food served and serving size may be adjusted according to resident preference. The residential care facility is obligated to accommodate a resident's preference or medical need to eat at different intervals.
(C) All residential care facilities are obligated to provide safe drinking water that is accessible to residents at all times.
(D) Each residential care facility that does not provide any meals is obligated to ensure that each resident unit is appropriately and safely equipped with food storage and preparation appliances which the facility maintains in safe operating condition or that each resident has access to an appropriately and safely equipped food storage and preparation area. Each residential care facility that does not provide any meals is obligated to permit residents to store and prepare food in a safe manner in their resident units or in a resident food storage and preparation area.
(E) Each residential care facility that provides one or more meals and that does not permit residents to have food in their resident units is obligated to make snacks available twenty-four hours a day.
(F) Each residential care facility is obligated to have a kitchen and other food service facilities that are adequate for preparing and serving the amount and types of meals the facility agrees to provide.
(G) If applicable, the residential care facility is obligated to have a food service operation license issued under Chapter 3701-21 of the Administrative Code.
(H) Each residential care facility that provides meals is obligated to:
(1) Procure, store, prepare, distribute, and serve all food in a manner that protects it against contamination and spoilage;
(2) Maintain at least a week supply of staple foods and a two-day supply of perishable foods for residents at all times and the amount of such supplies is to be based on the number of residents and meals the facility provides daily;
(3) Plan all menus for meals at least one week in advance, provided food that varies in texture, color and include seasonal foods. Records of dated menus, including therapeutic diets, as served, are to be maintained for at least three months and make the records available to the director upon request and indicate any food substitutions from the menu;
(4) Observe, supervise, and assist a resident in consuming meals if the resident needs observation, supervision, or assistance;
(5) Ensure that food texture is appropriate to the individual needs of each resident, except that residential care facility staff are not allowed to perform syringe feedings;
(6) Ensure that the kitchen and dining areas are cleaned after each meal and :
(a) Transport meals in a sanitary manner to prevent contamination;
(b) Provide handwashing facilities, including hot and cold water, soap and individual paper towels in the food preparation and service area;
(c) Provide and maintain clean and sanitary kitchen and dining areas and a clean, sanitary and adequate supply of eating and drinking utensils, pots, and pans for use in preparing, serving, and eating appetizing meals and snacks; and
(d) Place food scraps and trash in garbage cans with tightfitting lids and bag liners and empty garbage cans daily, or more often if needed. Nondisposable containers are to be cleaned frequently enough to maintain sanitary conditions. Disposable bags of garbage may be stored outside only in a non-absorbent container with a close-fitting cover. Liquid wastes resulting from compacting are to be disposed of as sewage;
(7) Provide any format of meal service, which otherwise meets the criteria established by this rule, with input from residents; and
(8) Provide a dining environment as natural and independent as possible, comparable with eating at home, with choices from a wide variety of food items tailored to the residents' wants and needs, which otherwise meet the criteria established by this rule.
(I) Each residential care facility that elects to prepare special diets other than therapeutic diets is obligated to:
(1) Prepare and provide the special diets in accordance with the orders of a physician or other licensed health professional acting within their scope of practice, or a dietitian; and
(2) Adjust special diet menus as ordered by the resident's attending physician or other licensed health professional acting within their scope of practice, or a dietitian.
(J) Each residential care facility which elects to supervise therapeutic diets is obligated to make available three daily meals in accordance with paragraph (B) of this rule and provide or arrange for a dietitian to plan, direct and implement dietary services that meet the residents' nutritional needs and comply with the criteria established by this rule and for residents on therapeutic diets on an ongoing basis:
(1) Determine that the diet ordered is appropriate according to the resident's individual nutritional assessment;
(2) Monitor the resident's nutritional intake and acceptance of the diet;
(3) Evaluate the home's compliance in the provision of the diet; and
(4) Adjust nutritional assessments and diets as needed.
(K) If obligated by paragraph (J) of this rules, the dietitian is obligated to oversee, monitor and assist in the training of food service staff in the preparation and serving of foods for therapeutic diets and consult quarterly with the food service staff. Trained unlicensed staff, including the dietary manager, may perform routine tasks that:
(1) May be assigned pursuant to Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code and this rule; and
(2) Do not necessitate professional judgment or knowledge.
(L) Residential care facilities are barred from administering parenteral nutrition and a residential care facility may administer enteral tube feedings on a part-time intermittent basis in accordance with rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(M) A hospice patient's diet is obligated to be planned by a dietitian, the hospice program, or both, as appropriate for that individual.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:34 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-11
(A) Each residential care facility is obligated to encourage residents to participate in social, recreational, and leisure activities. The residential care facility is obligated to, with consideration given to resident preferences, provide or arrange for varied activities of sufficient quantity so that residents' lives may be more meaningful, to stimulate physical and mental capabilities and to assist residents in attaining their optimal social, physical, and emotional well-being. The residential care facility is obligated to provide, at minimum, all of the following:
(1) One local daily newspaper either in digital or paper format, or current community activity brochures and advertisements;
(2) Information about activities in the community and the availability of transportation to community activities; and
(3) An opportunity for residents to engage in a variety of activities which may include, but are not limited to, internet, television, crafts, reading, or games.
(B) A residential care facility is not allowed to coerce, induce, or prompt a resident to assign, transfer, give, or sign over to the facility money, valuables, insurance benefits, property, or anything of value other than payment for services rendered by the facility. A residential care facility is not allowed to manage a resident's financial affairs unless authorized by the resident or a sponsor with power of attorney. Such authorization is obligated to be in writing and attested to by a witness who is not connected in any manner whatsoever with the residential care facility or its administrator. A facility that manages a resident's financial affairs is obligated to:
(1) Maintain accounts pursuant to division (A)(27)(b) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code of resident funds and personal property or possessions deposited for safekeeping with the facility for use by the resident or resident's sponsor. The resident has the right to receive, upon written or oral request, an accounting statement of financial transactions made on the resident's behalf. This statement is obligated to include a:
(a) Complete record of all funds, personal property, or possessions from any source whatsoever, that have been deposited for safekeeping with the facility for use by the resident or resident's sponsor; and
(b) Listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, substantiated by receipts that are available for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.
(2) Deposit the resident's funds in excess of one thousand dollars, and may deposit the resident's funds that are one thousand dollars or less, in an interest-bearing account separate from any of the facility's operating accounts. Interest earned on the resident's funds is obligated to be credited to the resident's account. A resident's funds that are one thousand dollars or less and have not been deposited in an interest-bearing account may be deposited in a noninterest-bearing account or petty cash fund.
(3) Purchase a surety bond or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the director to assure the security of all residents' funds managed by the facility.
(4) Upon the resident's transfer, discharge, or death, close all resident accounts, make a final accounting, and make provisions for the conveyance of any remaining funds to the resident or the resident's estate.
(5) Allow the resident access to their funds during normal bank business hours within the community.
(6) Not mandate that a resident allow the facility to manage the resident's financial affairs as a condition of admission to the facility.
(C) Neither the administrator of a residential care facility nor facility staff may serve as the guardian or attorney-in-fact of a resident unless related by blood, marriage, or adoption to that resident.
(D) Residents may keep pets if allowed by facility policy. If a residential care facility allows residents to keep animals or pets, or has facility pets, the facility is obligated to consult with a veterinarian licensed to practice veterinary medicine under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code, establish and implement a written protocol regarding animals and pets that protects the health and safety of residents and staff members. At minimum, the written protocol is obligated to include:
(1) An annual physical examination, including an examination for internal and external parasites;
(2) Vaccinations for common infectious agents, including rabies;
(3) Any other preventive care necessary to protect the health, safety and rights of residents;
(4) Procedure to follow if an animal:
(a) Bites a person; or
(b) Becomes ill or injured;
(5) For resident pets, if the resident is transfered, discharged or otherwise unable to care for the pet, responsibilities for care of the pet until a family member or sponsor can retrieve the pet;
(6) In the case of a facility pet, the name of the designated member or members of the staff responsible for the care of the animal and for maintaining the protocol, including medical records for the animal; and
(7) An evaluation of the medical needs of residents.
(E) The residential care facility is obligated to specify in the resident agreements established by rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code what laundry services it provides. The residential care facility is obligated to launder or assist in arranging for the laundering of all clothing and bed and bath linen for residents who are in need of laundry services as described in the resident agreement. The facility may provide a washer and dryer in the home for residents' use or may provide residents with transportation to and from a laundromat.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:34 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-01
As used in rules 3701-16-01 to 3701-16-18 of the Administrative Code:
(A) "Accommodations" means housing, meals, laundry, housekeeping, transportation, social or recreational activities, maintenance, security, or similar services that are not personal care services or skilled nursing care.
(B) "Activities of daily living" means walking and moving, bathing, grooming, toileting, oral hygiene, hair care, dressing, eating, and nail care.
(C) "Administrator" means the person responsible for the daily operation of the residential care facility. The administrator and the operator may be the same person.
(D) "Advanced Practice Nurse" means a registered nurse authorized to practice as a certified nurse specialist, certified registered nurse anesthetist, certified nurse midwife or certified nurse practitioner in accordance with section 4723.41 of the Revised Code.
(E) "Bedroom" means a room used by a resident or residents for sleeping purposes that is either a resident unit or a portion of a resident unit.
(F) "Complex therapeutic diets" has the same meaning as "therapeutic diet" as that term is defined in paragraph (QQ) of this rule
(G) "County home" and "district home" mean an entity operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.
(H) "Department" means the department of health.
(I) "Developmental delay" means that a child has not reached developmental milestones expected for their chronological age as measured by qualified professionals using appropriate diagnostic instruments and/or procedures.
(1) Delay will be demonstrated in one or more of the following developmental areas: adaptive behavior, physical developmental or maturation (fine and gross motor skills; growth) cognition; social or emotional development; and sensory development; or
(2) An established risk involving early aberrant development related to diagnosed medical disorders, such as infants and toddlers who are on a ventilator, are adversely affected by drug exposure, or have a diagnosed medical disorder or physical or mental condition known to result in developmental delay such as Down syndrome.
(J) "Developmental diagnosis" means a severe, chronic disability that is characterized by the following:
(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a mental impairment solely caused by mental illness as that term is defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.
(3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.
(4) It results in one of the following:
(a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at least one developmental delay or an established risk;
(b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an established risk.
(c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a substantial functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age; self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent living, and if the person is at least sixteen years of age, capacity for economic self-sufficiency.
(5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, or provision of services for an extended period of time that is individually planned and coordinated for the person.
(K) "Director" means the director of health or any office, bureau, agency, official or employee of the department to which the director has delegated their authority or duties.
(L) "Dietitian" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code to practice dietetics.
(M) "Full-time" means an individual works thirty hours or more per week.
(N) "Home":
(1) "Means both of the following:
(a) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, and the Ohio veterans' home;
(b) A county home or district home that is or has been licensed as a residential care facility.
(2) "Also means any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended , and for which a certificate of need, other than a certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 3702.521 of the Revised Code or under division (R)(7)(d) of the version of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 3702.51 to 3702.594 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989.
(3) "Does not mean any of the following:
(a) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 5122.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) A residential facility for mentally ill persons as defined under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;
(c) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;
(d) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in section 5119.01 of the Revised Code;
(e) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under section 5119.391 of the Revised Code;
(f) A facility providing services under contract with the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised Code;
(g) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for care of hospice patients;
(h) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;
(i) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and does not participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to members of the religious order;
(j) A county home or district home that has never been licensed as a residential care facility; or
(k) A facility registered to provide a pediatric transition care program under section 3712.042 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively for pediatric transition care patients.
(O) "Home health agency" means an entity licensed under section 3740.04 of the Revised Code.
(P) "Licensed practical nurse" means a person licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse.
(Q) "Lot" means a plot or parcel of land considered as a unit, devoted to a certain use, or occupied by a building or group of buildings that are united by a common interest and use, and the customary accessories and open spaces belonging to the same.
(R) "Maximum licensed capacity" means the authorized type and number of residents in a home as determined in paragraph (S) of rule 3701-16-03 of the Administrative Code.
(S) "Mechanically altered food" means that the texture of food is altered altered by chopping, grinding, mashing, or pureeing so that it can be successfully chewed and safely swallowed.
(T) "Mental impairment" means a condition in which a part of a person's brain has been damaged or is not working properly. Mental impairment does not mean mental illness as that term is defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or intellectual disability as that term is defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.
(U) "Nonambulatory" means not able to walk or not physically able to leave the premises without assistance from another individual.
(V) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse.
(W) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental impairment is in need of skilled nursing care and of individuals who are in need of personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and skilled nursing care.
(X) "Ohio building code" means the building standards, as adopted by the board of building standards pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code.
(Y) "On call" means the person can be contacted at all times and is immediately available to go on duty in the home upon short notice.
(Z) "On duty" means being in the home, awake, and immediately available.
(AA) "Operator" means the person, firm, partnership, association, or corporation which is obligated by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code to obtain a license in order to open, maintain or operate a home and the superintendent or administrator of a county home or district home licensed or seeking to be licensed as a residential care facility.
(BB) "Personal care services" means services including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Assisting residents with activities of daily living:
(2) Assisting residents with self-administration of medication, in accordance with rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Preparing food for special diets, other than therapeutic diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician, a licensed health care professional acting within their applicable scope of practice, or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code.
"Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing care." A facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in this paragraph to be considered to be providing personal care services.
(CC) "Physician" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(DD) "Registered nurse" means an individual licensed to practice nursing as a registered nurse under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.
(EE) "Resident" means an unrelated individual to whom a residential care facility provides accommodations.
(FF) "Resident call system" means a set of devices that are connected electrically, electronically, by radio frequency transmission, or in a like manner, are resident activated, and effectively can alert the staff member or members on duty of emergencies or resident needs.
(GG) "Resident unit" means the private room or rooms occupied by a resident or residents.
(HH) "Residents' rights" means the rights enumerated in sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.
(II) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides either of the following:
(1) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;
(2) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(JJ) "Serious mental illness" means an illness classified in the "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-V)," that meets at least two of the three following criteria of diagnosis, duration and disability:
(1) Diagnosis: The current primary diagnosis is:
(a) Dissociative disorders (DSM-V F44.81);
(b) Feeding and eating disorders (DSM-V F50.01, F50.02, F50.2, F50.8, F 50.9);
(c) Depressive disorders (DSM-V F32.8, F32.9, F34.8, F33, F33.1, F33.2, F33.3, F 34, F34.1,);
(d) Major neurocognitive disorders (DSM-V F01.50, F01.51, , F02.8x, F06.8);
(e) Disruptive, impulsive-control, and conduct disorders (DSM-V F21, F60, F60.1, F60.2, F60.3, , F60.5, F60.6, F60.7 F60.81, F60.9);
(f) Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders (DSM-V F20.81, F20.9, F22 , F23, F25x, F25.0, F25.1, F28, F29);
(g) Somatoform disorder (DSM-V F45.1);
(h) Other disorders (DSM-V F94.40, F91.3, F93.8); or
(i) Other specified.
(2) Duration: the length of the problem can be assessed by either inpatient or outpatient use of service history, reported length of time of impairment, or some combination, including at least two prior hospitalizations of more than twenty-one days or any number of hospitalizations (more than one) totaling at least forty-two days prior to the assessment, or ninety to three hundred sixty-five days in a hospital or nursing home within three prior years, or major functional impairment lasting more than two years, resulting in utilization of outpatient mental health services on an intermittent basis, a continuous basis, or both.
(3) Disability/functional impairment: severity of disability can be established by disruption in two or more life activities, including but not limited to:
(a) Employment;
(b) Contributing substantially to one's own financial support (not to be entitlements);
(c) Independent residence;
(d) Self-care;
(e) Perception and cognition;
(f) Stress management or coping skills; or
(g) Interpersonal and social relations.
(KK) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that necessitate technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(1) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, and supervision of special diets;
(2) Objective observation of changes in the resident's condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care necessary and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;
(3) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;
(4) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a physician or other licensed health care professional acting within their applicable scope of practice, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including observation of the resident after receipt of the medication; or
(5) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician or other licensed health care professional acting within their applicable scope of practice, that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in administration.
(LL) "Special care unit" means a residential care facility, or part thereof, that is dedicated to providing care to residents with diagnoses, that include, but are not limited to, late-stage cognitive impairment with significant ongoing daily living assistance needs, cognitive impairments with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both; or, serious mental illness.
(MM) "Special diets" means a therapeutic diet limited to:
(1) Nutrient adjusted diets, including high protein, no added salt, and no concentrated sweets
(2) Volume adjusted diets, including small, medium and large portions;
(3) The use of finger foods or bite-sized pieces for a resident's physical needs; or
(4) Mechanically altered food.
(NN) "Staff member" or "staff" means an individual working in a residential care facility including the owner; the administrator; a full-time, part-time or temporary paid employee; or an individual working on contract for the facility.
(OO) "Supervision" means:
(1) Watching over a resident, when necessary, while the resident engages in activities of daily living or other activities to ensure the resident's health, safety, and welfare;
(2) Reminding a resident to do or complete such an activity, as by reminding them to engage in personal hygiene or other self-care activity; or
(3) Helping a resident to schedule or keep an appointment, or both, including the arranging for transportation.
"Supervision" does not include reminding a resident to take medication and watching the resident to ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container, or supervision of therapeutic diets as described in paragraph (J) of rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code.
(PP) "Supervision of therapeutic diets" means services, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Monitoring a resident's access to appropriate foods as obligated by a therapeutic diet;
(2) Monitoring a resident's weight and acceptance of a therapeutic diet;
(3) Providing assistance to residents on therapeutic diets as needed or requested: and
(4) Providing or preparing therapeutic diets.
(QQ) "Therapeutic diet" means a diet ordered by a health care practitioner:
(1) As part of the treatment for a disease or clinical condition;
(2) To eliminate, decrease, or increase certain substances in the diet; or
(3) To provide mechanically altered food when indicated.
(RR) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to the owner or operator of the residential care facility or to their spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or uncle.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:29 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-05
(A) Each residential care facility is obligated to arrange for the services of an administrator who is obligated to:
(1) Meet the applicable requirements of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Be responsible for the daily operation of the residential care facility including, but not limited to, assuring that residents' ongoing or changing service needs, as identified in the resident assessments, and services ordered by a licensed health care professional are acted upon by the appropriate staff member. If the facility does not provide for the needed service, the facility is obligated to discuss the lack of the needed service with the resident as required by paragraph (G) of rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Provide not less than twenty hours of service in the facility during each calendar week during the hours of eight a.m. and six p.m. If the administrator is unable to provide at least twenty hours of service in the residential care facility in a given calendar week because of a vacation, illness, or other temporary situation, the administrator is obligated to designate a staff member, who is not allowed to be less than twenty-one years of age and who meets the requirements of paragraphs (D) and (H) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code, to serve as acting administrator;
(4) The administrator or acting administrator is obligated to be accessible at all other times when not present at the residential care facility. A residential care facility located in the same building as a nursing home, or on the same lot as a nursing home, both of which are owned and operated by the same entity, will be considered to have met this requirement if the nursing home has a full-time administrator licensed under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code who is responsible for both the residential care facility and nursing home. For the purposes of this paragraph, "full-time" means no less than thirty-two hours per calendar week.
(B) The residential care facility administrator may provide services to residents if the administrator meets the applicable qualifications of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code. An administrator, providing personal care services, of a facility with:
(1) Sixteen or less beds may be counted toward meeting the staffing requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule;
(2) Seventeen to thirty-five beds is not allowed to be counted toward meeting the staffing requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule until he or she has met the requirements of paragraph (A)(3) of this rule;
(3) More than thirty-five beds is not allowed to be counted toward meeting the staffing requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule.
(C) Each residential care facility is obligated to have the following staff members who are competent to perform the duties they are assigned:
(1) At least one staff member on duty at all times who meets the qualifications of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code for staff members providing personal care services. During the night, the staff member who is physically present in the facility may be on call if the facility meets the resident call system requirements of paragraph (B)(5) of rule 3701-16-14 of the Administrative Code. When only one staff person is on duty in the facility, the residential care facility is obligated to designate another staff member who meets the same qualifications to be on call; and
(2) Sufficient additional staff members who meet the applicable qualifications of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code for the services they perform and appropriate scheduling of sufficient staff time to adequately do all of the following:
(a) Meet, in a timely manner, the residents' total care, supervisory and emotional needs as determined by the resident assessment required under rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code and consistent with the resident agreement required under rule 3701-16-07 of the Administrative Code and reasonable and appropriate requests for services, including monitoring in excess of supervision of residents with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both;
(b) Properly provide dietary, housekeeping, laundry, and facility maintenance services and recreational activities for the residents in accordance with the rules of this chapter;
(c) Assist, when necessary, with prompt evacuation of nonambulatory residents. The additional staff members needed to implement the facility's evacuation plan required by paragraph (J) of rule 3701-16-13 of the Administrative Code are obligated to be present in the facility at all times; and
(d) Provide or arrange for resident activities required under rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Each residential care facility is obligated to have at least one staff member capable of giving personal care services who has successfully completed the first aid training required by paragraph (E) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code, if applicable, present in the facility at all times.
(4) In determining the staffing level for the facility, the facility is not required to consider resident needs:
(a) That are being served through a contractual arrangement between the resident and a third party provider;
(b) That the resident chooses not to have met as documented in the resident's record; or
(c) That the resident has not contracted with the facility to meet if the facility has complied with paragraph (G) of rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Unless the resident's needs are being met by a private psychologist or physician, each residential care facility that admits or retains residents with a diagnosis of late-stage cognitive impairment with significant ongoing daily living assistance needs, cognitive impairments with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both, or serious mental illness, is obligated to have a psychologist or physician with experience in the diagnosis and treatment of the applicable condition or conditions, either on staff or as a consultant.
(D) In addition to the requirements set forth in this rule, each residential care facility that elects to admit or retain residents for whom the facility provides skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication is obligated to do all of the following:
(1) Employ or contract with a registered nurse to provide onsite supervision of skilled nursing care provided to residents. For purposes of this rule, "onsite supervision" means that the registered nurse is obligated to spend sufficient time each week in the facility to manage the provision of skilled nursing care in accordance with accepted standards of practice;
(2) Have a licensed nurse on call when one is not present in the facility; and
(3) Have sufficient additional nursing staff to meet residents' needs.
(E) The operator or administrator is obligated to establish a schedule for staff coverage that includes coverage during vacations, emergency situations, and long-term absences due to illness. The residential care facility is not allowed to mandate, coerce or persuade a resident to supervise other residents, provide personal care services, supervise special diets, administer medications or manage the facility. Residents who voluntarily help or receive assistance from one another are not allowed to be counted in determining whether the residential care facility meets the staffing requirements of this rule.
(F) Each residential care facility which elects to administer medication is obligated to have one of the following individuals on duty to administer medications in accordance with paragraphs (G) and (H) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code and remain on duty for a sufficient amount of time to observe medication acceptance and reaction:
(1) A registered nurse;
(2) A licensed practical nurse holding proof of successful completion of a course in medication administration approved by the Ohio board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code who will administer medication only at the direction of a registered nurse or physician;
(3) A physician; or
(4) A person authorized by law to administer medication.
(G) Each residential care facility which elects to supervise therapeutic diets is obligated to provide or arrange for a dietitian and comply with the applicable requirements of rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code.
(H) Each residential care facility which elects to provide for the application of dressings in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code is obligated to have sufficient nursing staff to provide the service and comply with the requirements of paragraph (J) of rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code.
(I) Each residential care facility that elects to provide skilled nursing care using staff members, in accordance with division (C) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code and paragraph (B) of rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code, is obligated to have sufficient nursing staff to provide the skilled nursing care. If the residential care facility elects to provide enteral tube feedings on a part-time intermittent basis the facility is obligated to provide or arrange for a dietitian and provide sufficient nursing staff with appropriate experience and training in enteral tube feedings. Skilled nursing care may be delegated in accordance with Chapter 4723-13 of the Administrative Code.
(J) A residential care facility that is physically located in the same building or on the same lot as a nursing home, or that provides an adult day care program, or both, which are owned and operated by the same entity may use staff from the residential care facility to provide services in the nursing home or adult day care program, or use appropriate and qualified staff from the nursing home or the adult day care program to meet part or all of the staffing requirements of this rule, if all of the following criteria are met:
(1) The residential care facility at all times meets the minimal staffing levels required by paragraph (C) of this rule. The staff members, assigned to and responsible for meeting the residential care facility residents' needs, may provide services to nursing home residents if they meet the nurse aide qualifications of rule 3701-17-07.1 of the Administrative Code, but are not allowed to be counted towards meeting the nursing home staffing levels of rule 3701-17-08 of the Administrative Code;
(2) The nursing home at all times meets the staffing level requirements of rule 3701-17-08 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Separate staffing schedules for the residential care facility, nursing home, and adult day care program are maintained;
(4) The residential care facility has the resident call systems required by paragraph (B)(5) of rule 3701-16-14 of the Administrative Code, for residents to use in obtaining unscheduled care or services, as needed, when unexpected care needs arise and the monitoring of resident call systems in the residential care facility and nursing home is not disrupted. The residential care facility is not allowed to limit the use of the resident call systems to emergencies only;
(5) Utilization of the nurses or aides, or both, does not adversely affect the quality and timeliness of meeting the care needs of the nursing home and residential care facility residents; and
(6) For a residential care facility on the same lot as a nursing home, the homes are located within two minutes or less response time from each other.
A staff member simultaneously assigned to the staffing schedule of the residential care facility and the nursing home is allowed to be be counted in determining whether the residential care facility meets the staffing requirements of paragraph (C) of this rule, unless over fifty per cent of the staff member's assigned daily working hours are in the residential care facility.
(K) The operator or the administrator of each residential care facility is obligated to maintain records, on forms provided by the director, documenting compliance with the personnel requirements of this rule.
(L) Each residential care facility will not admit residents in excess of the number for which it is able to provide consistent nursing coverage and other appropriate staffing levels based on the volume and needs of the residents.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:33 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 3701-16-06
(A) No person with a disease which may be transmitted in the performance of the person's job responsibilities is allowed to work in a residential care facility during the stage of communicability unless the person is given duties that minimize the likelihood of transmission and follows infection control precautions and procedures.
(B) No person is allowed to work in a residential care facility who uses alcohol or drugs to the extent that it adversely affects the performance of the person's duties or the health or safety of any resident.
(C) No person is allowed to work in a residential care facility in any capacity as a full-time, part-time or temporary paid employee of the facility unless the person has been examined by a physician or other health care professional acting within their applicable scope of practice within thirty days before commencing work or on the first day of work. No person is allowed to commence work in a residential care facility in any capacity unless the person is medically capable of performing the person's prescribed duties. Operators are obligated to retain copies of the examinations obligated by this paragraph and are obligated to furnish them to the director upon request.
(1) Employees of temporary employment services or, to the extent applicable, paid consultants working in a facility are obligated to have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (C) of this rule, except that a new physical examination is not necessary for each new assignment. Each facility in which such an individual works are obligated to obtain verification of the physical examination, as applicable, from the employment agency or consultant before the individual begins work and are obligated to maintain this documentation on file.
(2) Individuals used by an adult day care program provided by and on the same site as the residential care facility are obligated to have medical examinations in accordance with paragraph (C) of this rule if the adult day care program is located or shares space within the same building as the residential care facility or if there is a sharing of staff between the residential care facility and adult day care program.
(D) Each residential care facility staff member and volunteer who:
(1) Provides personal care services will be at least sixteen years of age. Staff members or volunteers who provide personal care services who are under the age of eighteen are obligated to have on-site supervision by a staff member over the age of eighteen. The administrator is obligated to be at least twenty-one years of age;
(2) Assists residents with self-administration of medications is obligated to demonstrate an ability to read, write and understand information and directions in English. All other staff members and volunteers are obligated to demonstrate an ability to understand and communicate job-related information and directions in English; or
(3) Plans activities for residents with late-stage cognitive impairment with significant ongoing daily living assistance needs, cognitive impairments with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both; or, serious mental illness is obligated to have training in appropriate activities for such residents.
(E) Staff members who provide personal care services in a residential care facility, except licensed health professionals whose scope of practice include the provision of personal care services, are obligated to complete the following training :
(1) Within sixty days of hire, have first-aid training evidenced by one of the following:
(a) Currently valid documentation of successful completion, online or in-person, of the "American Red Cross Standard First-Aid Course", the "American Red Cross First-Aid Basics", or any other American red cross course covering the training topics described in paragraph (E)(1)(c) of this rule;
(b) Currently valid documentation of successful completion, online or in-person, of the "American Heart Association Heartsaver First-Aid" course, or any other "American Heart Association" course covering the training topics described in paragraph (E)(1)(c) of this rule; or
(c) Documentation of successful completion, within the past three years, of first-aid training by a physician, registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse under the direction of a registered nurse, an emergency medical technician, or an instructor certified by the American red cross" or the American heart association. Applicable first-aid training includes recognition and emergency management of bleeding, burns, poisoning, respiratory distress including choking, musculoskeletal injury, wounds including animal and insect bites, sudden illness, shock, hypothermia, heat stroke and exhaustion, and frost bite;
(2) Have documentation that, prior to providing personal care services without supervision in the facility, the staff member met one of the following criteria:
(a) Successfully completed training or continuing education taught by a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse under the direction of a registered nurse that covers, as is necessary to meet the needs of residents in the facility, the following:
(i) The correct techniques of providing personal care services as obligated by the staff member's job responsibilities;
(ii) Observational skills such as recognizing changes in residents' normal status and the facility's procedures for reporting changes; and
(iii) Communication and interpersonal skills.
The training or continuing education will be sufficient to ensure that the staff member receiving the training can demonstrate an ability to provide the personal care services. The facility may utilize other health care professionals acting within the scope of the professional's practice as part of the training or continuing education;
(b) Successfully completed the training and competency evaluation program and competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the director under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code; or
(c) Successfully completed training or testing in accordance with the medicare condition of participation of home health aide services, 42 C.F.R. 484.4 (November 6, 2014) and 42 C.F.R. 484.36 (June 18, 2001);
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, staff members employed by a residential care facility, or part thereof, that admits or retains residents with late-stage cognitive impairment with significant ongoing daily living assistance needs, or cognitive impairments with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both, are obligated to have:
(a) Two hours of initial training in the care of such residents within fourteen days of the first day of work; and
(b) Four hours of continuing education in the care of such residents annually. The four hours of continuing education may count towards the continuing education obligated by paragraph (E)(7) of this rule.
(4) Except as provided in paragraph (E)(5) of this rule, staff members employed by a residential care facility, or part thereof, that admits or retains residents with diagnoses of serious mental illness are obligated to have:
(a) Two hours of initial training in the care of such residents within fourteen days of the first day of work; and
(b) Four hours of continuing education in the care of such residents annually. The four hours of continuing education may count towards the continuing education obligated by paragraph (E)(7) of this rule.
(5) Staff members employed by a residential care facility, or part thereof, that admits or retains residents with late-stage cognitive impairment with significant ongoing daily living assistance needs, or cognitive impairments with increased emotional needs or presenting behaviors that cause problems for the resident or other residents, or both, and that admits or retains residents with diagnoses of serious mental illness, are obligated to have:
(a) Four hours, divided in equal proportions for each population, of initial training in the care of such residents within fourteen days of the first day of work; and
(b) Eight hours, divided in equal proportions for each population, of continuing education in the care of such residents annually. The eight hours of continuing education may count towards continuing education obligated by paragraph (E)(7) of this rule
(6) Staff members serving special populations not identified in paragraphs (E)(3) and (E)(4) of this rule are obligated to have:
(a) Two hours of initial training in the care of such residents within fourteen days of the first day of work; and
(b) Four hours of continuing education in the care of such residents annually. The four hours of continuing education may count towards the continuing education obligated by paragraph (E)(7) of this rule.
(7) Successfully complete at least eight hours of continuing education annually.
(F) Staff members whose job responsibilities will include providing therapeutic diets, other than special diets, are obligated to be trained by a dietitian prior to performing this responsibility.
(G) The initial training obligated by paragraphs (E)(3) to (E)(6) of this rule is to be conducted by a qualified instructor for the topic covered. The annual continuing education obligated by paragraphs (E)(3) to (E)(6) of this rule may be completed online or by other media provided there is a qualified instructor present to answer questions and to facilitate discussion about the topic at the end of the lesson.
(H) The administrator is obligated to:
(1) Be licensed as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code; or
(2) Meet one of the following criteria at the time of employment:
(a) Has three thousand hours of direct operational responsibility for a senior housing facility, health care facility, residential care facility, adult care facility or any other group home licensed or approved by the state;
(b) Has successfully completed one hundred credit hours of post high school education in the field of gerontology or health care;
(c) Holds a baccalaureate degree; or
(d) Is a licensed health professional as that term is defined in rule 3701-17-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The administrator is obligated to receive at least nine hours of continuing education annually in the fields of gerontology, health care, business administration, or residential care facility operation. Successful completion of course work at an accredited college or university, or of courses approved by the following entities, may be used to demonstrate compliance with this paragraph:
(a) The Ohio state bar association;
(b) The Ohio state board of executives of long-term services and supports;
(c) The Ohio state board of nursing;
(d) The Ohio state board of pharmacy;
(e) The Ohio state board of psychology;
(f) The Ohio state medical board; or
(g) Any other health-related state board organized pursuant to Title 47 of the Revised Code.
(I) The operator or administrator is obligated to ensure that each staff member, other than a volunteer who does not provide personal care services, receives and completes orientation and training applicable to the staff member's job responsibilities within three working days after beginning employment with the residential care facility. A staff member is not allowed to stay alone in the residential care facility with residents until the staff member has received the orientation and training obligated by this paragraph and the general staff training in fire control and evacuation procedures obligated by paragraph (P) of rule 3701-16-13 of the Administrative Code. The orientation and training mandated by this paragraph will include at least:
(1) The physical layout of the residential care facility;
(2) The staff member's job responsibilities;
(3) The residential care facility's policies and procedures;
(4) How to secure emergency assistance; and
(5) Residents' rights.
(J) All individuals used by the residential care facility who function in a professional capacity are obligated to meet the standards applicable to that profession, including but not limited to, possessing a current Ohio license, registration, or certification, if obligated by law.
(K) Each residential care facility is obligated to provide appropriate staff training to implement each resident right under division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code on an annual basis and additionally as needed. The training obligated by this rule will include, but not be limited to, an explanation of:
(1) The residents' rights and the staff's responsibility in implementation of the rights; and
(2) The staff's obligation to provide all residents who have similar needs with comparable service.
(L) No residential care facility is allowed to employ a person for a position that involves the provision of direct care to an older adult, if the person:
(1) Has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed in division (C)(1) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code, unless the individual is hired under the personal character standards set forth in rule 3701-13-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Fails to complete the form(s) or provide fingerprint impressions as obligated by division (B)(2) of section 3721.121 of the Revised Code;
(3) Is the subject of a finding of abuse or neglect of a resident or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry, established pursuant to section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;
(4) Is the subject of a finding of abuse or neglect of a resident or misappropriation of the property of a resident on the nurse aide registry established by another state where the home believes or has reason to believe the person resides or resided; or
(5) Have had a disciplinary action taken against a professional license by a state licensure body as a result of a finding of abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of resident property.
(M) For purposes of this rule, "annual" means a calendar year. The training hours obligated by this rule may be pro-rated from the employee's date of hire.
Last updated July 12, 2024 at 9:33 AM
History
- Effective: July 12, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-06.5
(A) The Ohio department of aging (ODA) is responsible for the daily administration of the assisted living HCBS waiver. ODA will administer this waiver pursuant to an interagency agreement with the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), in accordance with section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.
(B) The assisted living HCBS waiver is an alternative to nursing facility placement for persons age twenty-one and over who require an intermediate level of care or a skilled level of care as set forth in rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code and are enrolled in the waiver.
(1) The assisted living HCBS waiver's services and program eligibility criteria are set forth in Chapter 5160-33 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The maximum allowable reimbursement rates for assisted living HCBS waiver program services are listed in appendix A to this rule.
(3) Assisted living HCBS reimbursement are provided in accordance with rule 5160-1-60 of the Administrative Code.
(4) The billing maximum for the community transition service listed in appendix A to this rule represents the cumulative maximum for the items purchased or deposits made through the community transition service as set forth in rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code.
View Appendix
Last updated July 1, 2024 at 4:38 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.17 ODA provider certification: community transition.
(A) "Community transition" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of community transition:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code, the provider is subject to the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code rather than the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the assisted living program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
(2) For the PASSPORT program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the PASSPORT program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160 1 06.1 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-26
(A) "Community transition" pays for non-recurring start-up living expenses for individuals transitioning from an institutional setting to a home and community-based services (HCBS) setting that is compliant with rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code. Community transition:
(1) Community transition includes the following:
(a) Expenses necessary to enable an individual to establish a basic household. Examples include:
(i) Security deposits and rental fees needed to obtain a lease on an apartment or home and rental expenses required to obtain a residential lease;
(ii) Essential household items such as furnishings and moving expenses required to occupy and use a community home, including furniture needed to occupy and maintain housing, including window coverings, food preparation items, and linens;
(iii) Set-up fees and deposits for utility and service access, including telephone/cellphone, electricity, gas, garbage, and water;
(iv) Services necessary for the individual's health and safety such as pest eradication and one-time cleaning prior to occupancy;
(v) Pre-transition transportation necessary to secure housing and benefits, etc.;
(vi) Initial cleaning and household supplies;
(vii) Activities to arrange for and to procure other non-recurring set-up expenses; and
(viii) Essential personal hygiene and clothing items needed to transition safely.
(b) The provider's administrative cost associated with providing community transition under this rule. Such fees will be included in the authorization described in paragraph (A)(2)(b) of this rule.
(2) Is payable only to the extent:
(a) They are determined reasonable and necessary through the person-centered services planning process described in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code and are clearly identified in an individual's person-centered services plan; and
(b) They are authorized by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), the Ohio department of aging (ODA) or their designee in an individual's person-centered services plan, which will only occur if no other person, including a landlord, has a legal or contractual responsibility to fund the expense, and if family, neighbors, friends, or community resources are unavailable to fund the expense.
(3) May be authorized up to one hundred eighty consecutive days before an individual's transition from an institutional setting into an HCBS setting. The date of service for purposes of payment is the date the individual leaves the institutional setting. If the individual fails to transition to an HCBS setting, the service is still payable if all other requirements are met.
(4) Is provided no later than thirty days after the date on which an individual enrolls on the waiver program.
(B) Community transition does not include:
(1) Room and board, ongoing monthly rental, or mortgage expenses;
(2) Grocery expenses;
(3) Ongoing utility or service expenses;
(4) Ongoing cable or internet expenses;
(5) Electronic and other household appliances and items intended to be used for entertainment or recreational purposes;
(6) Tobacco products or alcohol; and
(7) Furnishing living arrangements that are owned or leased by a waiver provider where the provision of these items and services are inherent to the service they are already providing.
(C) Limitations.
(1) Community transition will only be used one time per individual per waiver enrollment.
(2) Community transition will not exceed two thousand dollars per individual per waiver program enrollment.
(D) Providers will:
(1) Be either:
(a) An ODM-approved or ODA-certified waiver agency provider;
(b) An ODM-approved or ODA-certified non-agency provider;
(c) A transition coordination service provider under contract with ODM that also meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule; or
(d) An ODA-certified assisted living provider.
(2) Comply with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code for an ODM-administered waiver program, or Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) or assisted living programs.
(3) The provider will involve the individual and/or caregiver(s) in the selection of items to be purchased on the individual's behalf.
(E) All providers will maintain a record at their place of business for each individual served in accordance with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code, or with the requirements set forth in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code for the PASSPORT program. For each service provided, the record will include:
(1) The individual's name;
(2) Date of service;
(3) A detailed description of each expense;
(4) A receipt for each expense;
(5) Verification the individual was involved in the selection of all items; and
(6) The individual's signature to verify receipt of the service.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4766-3-13
(A) The ambulette service shall maintain and provide adequate documentation of the following driver/operator requirements for each of its drivers:
(1) A copy of a valid driver/operator license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code or its equivalent if the applicant is a resident of another state:
(a) Driver/operator shall be at least eighteen years of age to operate an ambulette;
(b) Each ambulette driver shall have at least two years driving experience;
(2) A copy of a valid driver/operator's abstract obtained from the bureau of motor vehicles from the state in which the driver's license was issued at the time of the application for employment and annually thereafter;
(a) The date of the driving abstract submitted at the time of application shall be no more than fourteen calendar days prior to the date of application for employment;
(b) Driver/operators having six points or more on their driving abstract in accordance with section 4510.036 of the Revised Code cannot be an ambulette service driver;
(c) Ambulette service may use documentation from their commercial insurance carrier as proof the standard in this paragraph has been met. This document must include the names of all insured drivers verifying the eligibility of the driver.
(3) A copy of a current and valid certification in adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and shall include hands on training from the "American Red Cross," "American Heart Association," or "American Safety and Health Institute," (ASHI) or equivalent certifying organization approved by the board;
(4) A copy of a current and valid certification in basic first aid and shall include hands on training from the "American Red Cross," "American Heart Association," or "American Safety and Health Institute," (ASHI) or equivalent certifying organization approved by the board; or a current and valid certification as a/an:
(a) Emergency medical responder;
(b) Emergency medical technician;
(c) Advanced emergency medical technician; or
(d) Paramedic.
(5) At least once every three years, satisfactory completion of a passenger assistance training course to include the following elements:
(a) Sensitivity to aging:
(b) Overview of diseases and functional factors commonly affecting older adults;
(c) Environmental considerations affecting consumers;
(d) Consumer assistance and transfer techniques;
(e) Management of a wheelchair, including the proper methods for securing a wheelchair in the vehicle and the client in the wheelchair;
(f) Inspection and operation of a wheelchair lift and other types of assistive equipment, and;
(g) Emergency procedures.
(6) Services can use commercially designed courses approved by the board or develop their own training course as long as required elements are met. All courses shall include hands on training for loading and unloading the client in the wheelchair, securing the client in the wheelchair, and securing the wheelchair in the vehicle.
(a) Services that use a commercially developed training course for their employees shall also show documentation of hands on training.
(b) Services that develop their own training course shall make available to the board, upon request, a written course outline documenting all course elements, all course training material used, and documentation of hands on training. Training course developed by the service is subject to prior approval by the board.
(7) A copy of a valid criminal background check:
(a) Conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code; or
(b) Conducted by the federal bureau of investigations (FBI) for an individual who has not lived in the state of Ohio for at least five years immediately prior to application.
(8) A copy of a valid signed statement from a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician's assistant acting within their scope of practice or a department of transportation (DOT) physical declaring that the driver/operator does not have a medical condition, physical condition, including vision impairment (not corrected), which could interfere with safe driving, passenger assistance, the provision of emergency treatment activity, or could jeopardize the health and welfare of client and/or general public;
(9) A copy of valid test results from an alcohol and controlled substances test to be conducted by a laboratory certified for such testing under "CLIA" and determined to be free of alcohol, amphetamines, cannabinoids (THC), cocaine, opiates, and phencyclidines (PCP).
(a) The tests shall be performed and the results placed in the employee's file as provided in paragraph (C) of this rule;
(b) Repeat drug and alcohol testing shall be performed at a minimum whenever the driver has been involved in a motor vehicle accident for which he/she was the driver.
(10) The ambulette service shall provide each driver/operator with an identification card visible to the client identifying their first name and last initial or a unique identifier and ambulette service affiliation.
(B) An ambulette service shall at all times maintain staffing of ambulette(s) by an ambulette driver who meets the requirements of division (A) of section 4766.15 of the Revised Code.
(C) An ambulette service may employ an applicant on a temporary provisional basis pending completion of the requirements of this rule pursuant to section 4766.15 of the Revised Code.
(1) The provisional period for completion of requirements set forth in paragraphs (A)(3) to (A)(7) of this rule shall be no more than sixty days.
(2) The provisional period for completion of requirements set forth in paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) and paragraphs (A)(8) to (A)(10) of this rule shall be no more than fourteen days.
(D) No ambulette service shall employ as an ambulette driver, any person who has been convicted of or plead guilty to violations as set forth in divisions (A)(1)(a), (A)(2)(a), (A)(4)(a), and/or (A)(5)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or their equivalent in any jurisdiction unless the exceptions set forth in paragraphs (A) and (B) of rule 3701-13-06 of the Administrative Code apply.
(E) No ambulette service shall employ as an ambulette driver any person who has six points or more on their driving abstract in accordance with section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.
(F) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless that person has a valid driver/operator license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. or Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code or its equivalent if the person is a resident of another state.
(G) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person is at least eighteen years of age and has at least two years driving experience.
(H) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person holds a current and valid certification in CPR and one of the following:
(1) Basic first aid;
(2) Emergency medical responder;
(3) Emergency medical technician;
(4) Advanced emergency medical technician;
(5) Paramedic.
(I) No ambulette service shall employ any person as an ambulette driver unless the person has successfully completed a program designed for transporting clients with special needs as set forth in paragraph (A)(5) of this rule.
Last updated June 15, 2022 at 9:52 AM
History
- Effective: June 15, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.22 ODA provider certification: waiver nursing service.
(A) "Waiver nursing" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of waiver nursing:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, a unit of waiver nursing equals a unit of waiver nursing that rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code establishes for the Ohio home care waiver program.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code establishes the maximum-allowable rate for a unit of a waiver nursing.
(3) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for waiver nursing.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-22
(A) "Waiver nursing services" are defined as nursing tasks and activities provided to individuals who require the skills of a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of an RN.
(1) All nurses providing waiver nursing services to individuals will:
(a) Possess a current, valid and unrestricted license with the Ohio board of nursing; and
(b) Possess an active medicaid provider agreement or be employed by an entity that has an active medicaid provider agreement; and
(c) Provide services within the nurse's scope of practice as set forth in Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and agency 4723 of the Administrative Code rules adopted thereunder.
(2) Nursing tasks and activities that will only be performed by an RN include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) Intravenous (IV) insertion, removal or discontinuation;
(b) IV medication administration;
(c) Programming of a pump to deliver medications including, but not limited to, epidural, subcutaneous and IV (except routine doses of insulin through a programmed pump);
(d) Insertion or initiation of infusion therapies;
(e) Central line dressing changes; and
(f) Blood product administration.
(B) Limitations.
(1) Waiver nursing will not be used in lieu of similar services available through third-party insurers, community supports and available resources, including Ohio medicaid state plan services when it has been determined an individual's needs can be met by those services.
(2) If the provider cannot assist an individual with an assessed need, the provider will notify ODM, ODA or their designee, in writing, of the service limitation(s) before the provider is included on the individual's person-centered services plan.
(3) Waiver nursing services do not include:
(a) Services delegated in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and rules adopted thereunder and to be performed by providers who are not licensed nurses in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;
(b) Services that require the skills of a nurse with a psychiatric mental health nursing specialty as set forth in rule 4723-8-04 of the Administrative Code;
(c) Visits performed for the sole purpose of meeting the supervisory requirements (including any visit) set forth in 42 CFR 484 (as in effect on October 1, 2023);
(d) Visits performed for the sole purpose of directing LPNs pursuant to section 4723.01 of the Revised Code; or
(e) Visits performed for the sole purpose of meeting the home care attendant service RN visit requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Waiver nursing services are reimbursable when sequentially, but not concurrently, performed with any other service during a visit in which the RN is furnishing billable home health, private duty nursing, RN assessment, RN consultation, and/or any other similar service that is reimbursable through the Ohio medicaid program.
(C) Waiver nursing will be delivered by one of the following:
(1) An employee or contractor of a medicare-certified or otherwise-accredited home health agency approved by ODM or certified by ODA who meets the provider requirements set forth in paragraph (D) of this rule. For the purposes of this rule, medicare-certified home health agencies and otherwise-accredited agencies will ensure they and the nurses they employ or contract with, are in compliance with 42 CFR 484. (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(a) Parent of minor children, spouses, and relatives appointed legal decision-making authority may serve as direct care worker in accordance with rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Maximum weekly direct care hours set forth in rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code do not apply to the parent of a minor child.
(2) A non-agency RN waiver nursing provider approved by ODM who meets the provider requirements set forth in paragraph (D) of this rule.
(3) A non-agency LPN waiver nursing provider approved by ODM who meets the provider requirements set forth in paragraphs (D) and (E) of this rule.
(D) All waiver nursing providers will:
(1) Understand and comply with all applicable rules governing the home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver(s) for which they are providing services including, but not limited to those rules set forth in Chapters 5160-44, 5160-45, 5160-46, and/or 5160-58, of the Administrative Code, as applicable, for ODM-administered HCBS waiver programs, and Chapters 173-39, 5160-31, 5160-33, and/or 5160-58 of the Administrative Code, as applicable, for ODA-administered HCBS waiver programs.
(2) Provide the service to either one individual, or in a group setting as defined in rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code during a face-to-face nursing visit in an ODM-administered HCBS waiver program, or in a group setting as defined in rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code during a face-to-face nursing visit in an ODA-administered HCBS waiver program.
(3) Complete training about individual rights and responsibilities as set forth in rule 5160-45-03 of the Administrative Code for ODM-administered HCBS waiver programs.
(4) Not be the individual's legally responsible family member, as that term is defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code, unless the legally responsible family member is employed by a medicare-certified or otherwise-accredited home health agency and the individual is enrolled on an ODM-administered waiver.
(5) Not be the individual's legally responsible family member, as that term is defined in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code, when the individual is enrolled on the ODA-administered waiver.
(6) Not be the foster caregiver of the individual.
(E) Non-agency LPNs, at the direction of an RN, will:
(1) Conduct a visit with the directing RN at least every sixty days after the initial visit to evaluate the provision of waiver nursing services and LPN performance, and to ensure that waiver nursing services are being provided in accordance with the approved plan of care and within the LPN's scope of practice. The visit may be conducted via telehealth.; and
(2) Conduct an in-person visit with the individual and the directing RN before initiating services and at least every one hundred and twenty days for the purpose of evaluating the provision of waiver nursing services, the individual's satisfaction with care delivery and LPN performance, and to ensure that waiver nursing services are being provided in accordance with the approved plan of care and within the LPN's scope of practice.
(3) When the RN performs an RN assessment visit, the RN will bill the state plan nursing assessment code set forth in appendix A to rule 5160-12-08 of the Administrative Code.
(F) All waiver nursing service providers will maintain a clinical record at their place of business for each individual served in accordance with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code.
(1) Storage will be in a manner that protects the confidentiality of these records.
(2) For the purposes of this rule, the place of business will be a location other than the individual's residence or primary location where the individual receives services.
(3) Each clinical record will include the following:
(a) Identifying information, including but not limited to, name, address, date of birth, gender, gender identity, race, phone numbers and health insurance identification numbers of the individual.
(b) Information regarding medical diagnoses, treatment and preferences.
(c) The individual's medication profile and medication administration record, as applicable.
(d) The individual's treatment administration record, as applicable.
(e) The name of and contact information for the individual's primary care physician(s).
(f) The name of and contact information for the individual's parent/guardian/authorized representative and/or emergency contact.
(g) All known drug and food interactions, allergies and dietary needs, preferences and/or restrictions.
(h) A copy of the initial and all subsequent person-centered services plans.
(i) Nurse assignments.
(j) A copy of any advance directives including, but not limited to, a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order and/or medical power of attorney, if they are provided by the individual.
(k) A copy of the initial and all subsequent plans of care, specifying the type, frequency, scope and duration of the nursing services being performed. When services are performed by an LPN at the direction of an RN, the clinical record will include documentation that the RN has reviewed the plans of care with the LPN. The plan of care will be recertified by the primary care physician at least every sixty days, or more frequently if there is a significant change in the individual's condition.
(l) Documentation of any verbal orders given by the primary care physician to the nurse. The nurse will document, in writing, the physician's orders, the date and time the orders were given, and sign the entry in the clinical record. The nurse will subsequently secure documentation of the verbal orders, signed and dated by the primary care physician.
(m) In all instances when a non-agency LPN is providing waiver nursing services, clinical notes, signed and dated by the LPN, documenting all consultations between the LPN and the directing RN, the face-to-face visits between the LPN and the directing RN, and the face-to-face visits between the LPN, the individual, and the directing RN.
(n) Clinical notes, signed and dated by the nurse, documenting the general condition of the individual, any unusual events occurring during the visit and the service tasks performed or not performed.
(o) All communications with the individual, case manager, RN supervisor if one exists, primary care physician and other members of the individual's team.
(G) All waiver nursing providers will also maintain a record at the individual's residence or primary service location in order to encourage sharing of information between caregivers and enhance person-centered care.
(1) Storage will be in a manner that protects the confidentiality of these records.
(2) The record may include a communication log, treatment record and/or medication administration record, if they exist.
(3) Documents in the record will reflect a minimum of at least the past sixty calendar days, with the individual's right to maintain more if he or she so chooses.
(4) The individual will identify the location in his or her residence or the primary service location where the record will be safely maintained.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-46-06
(A) The following waiver services are covered by the Ohio home care waiver:
(1) Home delivered meals as described in rule 5160-44-11 of the Administrative Code
(2) Home maintenance and chores as described in rule 5160-44-12 of the Administrative Code
(3) Home modification as described in rule 5160-44-13 of the Administrative Code
(4) Community integration as described in rule 5160-44-14 of the Administrative Code
(5) Personal emergency response systems as described in rule 5160-44-16 of the Administrative Code
(6) Out-of-home respite as described in rule 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code
(7) Waiver nursing as described in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code
(8) Community transition as described in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code
(9) Home care attendant as described in rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code
(10) Structured family caregiving as described in rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code
(11) Personal care aide as described in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code
(12) Vehicle modifications as described in rule 5160-46-09 of the Administrative Code
(13) Supplemental transportation as described in rule 5160-46-10 of the Administrative Code
(14) Supplemental adaptive and assistive devices as described in rule 5160-46-11 of the Administrative Code
(15) Adult day health center as described in rule 5160-46-12 of the Administrative Code
(B) Definitions of terms used for billing and calculating rates.
(1) "Base rate," as used in table A, column 3 of paragraph (C) of this rule, means the amount reimbursed by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) for the first thirty-five to sixty minutes of service delivered.
(2) "Bid rate," as used in table B, column 3 of paragraph (C) of this rule, means the per job bid rate negotiated between the provider and the individual's case manager.
(3) "Billing unit," as used in table B, column 3 of paragraph (C) of this rule, means a single fixed item, amount of time or measurement (e.g., a meal, a day, or mile, etc.).
(4) "Caretaker relative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(5) "Group rate," as used in paragraph (E)(1) of this rule, means the amount that waiver nursing and personal care aide service providers are reimbursed when the service is provided in a group setting.
(6) "Group setting" means a setting in which:
(a) A personal care aide service provider furnishes the same type of services to two or three individuals at the same address. The services provided in the group setting can be either the same type of ODM-administered waiver service, or a combination of ODM-administered waiver services and similar non-ODM-administered waiver services.
(b) A waiver nursing service provider furnishes the same type of services to either:
(i) Two or three individuals at the same address. The services provided in the group setting can be either the same type of ODM-administered waiver service, or a combination of ODM-administered waiver services and similar non-ODM-administered waiver services.
(ii) Two to four individuals at the same address if all of the individuals receiving ODM-administered waiver nursing services are:
(a) Medically fragile children,
(b) Siblings, and
(c) Residing together in the home of their caretaker relative. The services provided in the group setting will be ODM-administered waiver nursing services.
(c) A structured family caregiving service provider furnishes the same type of services to two or three individuals at the same address. The services provided in the group setting can be either the same type of ODM-administered waiver service, or a combination of ODM-administered waiver services and similar non-ODM-administered waiver services.
(7) "Medicaid maximum rate" means the maximum amount that will be paid by medicaid for the service rendered.
(a) For the billing codes in table B of paragraph (C) of this rule, the medicaid maximum rate is set forth in column (4).
(b) For the billing codes in table A of paragraph (C) of this rule, the medicaid maximum rate is:
(i) The base rate as defined in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule, or
(ii) The base rate as defined in paragraph (C)(1) of this rule plus the unit rate as defined in paragraph (C)(7) of this rule for each additional unit of service delivered, or
(iii) The unit rate as defined in paragraph (C)(7)(b) of this rule.
(8) "Medically fragile child" means an individual who is under eighteen years of age, has intensive health care needs, and is considered blind or disabled under section 1614(a)(2) or (3) of the "Social Security Act," (42 U.S.C. 1382c(a)(2) or (3)) (as in effect on January 1, 2024).
(9) "Modifier," as used in paragraph (E) of this rule, means the additional two-alpha-numeric-digit billing codes that providers are required to use to provide additional information regarding service delivery.
(10) "Unit rate," as used in table A, column 4 of paragraph (C) of this rule, means the amount reimbursed by ODM for each fifteen minutes of service delivered when the visit is:
(a) Greater than sixty minutes in length.
(b) Less than or equal to thirty-four minutes in length. ODM will reimburse a maximum of only one unit if the service is equal to or less than fifteen minutes in length, and a maximum of two units if the service is sixteen through thirty-four minutes in length.
(C) Billing code tables.
Table A
| Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 | Column 4 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Billing code | Service | Base rate | Unit rate | | T1002 | Waiver nursing services provided by an agency RN | $68.44 | $9.25 | | T1002 | Waiver nursing services provided by a non-agency RN | $56.26 | $7.46 | | T1002 | Waiver nursing services provided by a non-agency RN (overtime) | $84.39 | $11.19 | | T1003 | Waiver nursing services provided by an agency LPN | $58.72 | $7.82 | | T1003 | Waiver nursing services provided by a non-agency LPN | $48.00 | $6.24 | | T1003 | Waiver nursing services provided by a non-agency LPN (overtime) | $72.00 | $9.36 | | T1019 | Personal care aide services provided by an agency personal care aide | $28.96 | $7.24 | | T1019 | Personal care aide services provided by a non-agency personal care aide | $22.32 | $5.58 | | T1019 | Personal care aide services provided by a non-agency personal care aide (overtime) | $33.48 | $8.37 |
Table B
| Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 | Column 4 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Billing code | Service | Billing unit | Medicaid maximum rate | | H0045 | Out-of-home respite services | Per day | $199.82 | | S0215 | Supplemental transportation services | Per mile | $0.48 | | S5101 | Adult day health center services | Per half day | $53.11 | | S5102 | Adult day health center services | Per day | $106.26 | | S5136 | Structured family caregiving | Per day | $102.68 | | S5136 | Structured family caregiving | Per half day | $51.34 | | S5160 | Personal emergency response systems | Per installation and testing | $32.95 | | S5161 | Personal emergency response systems | Per monthly fee | $32.95 | | S5165 | Home modification services | Per item | Amount prior-authorized on the person-centered services plan, not to exceed $15,000$ in a twelve-month calendar year | | T2029 | Supplemental adaptive and assistive device services | Per item | Amount prior-authorized on the person-centered services plan, not to exceed $10,000 in a twelve-month calendar year | | S5170 | Home delivered meal services - standard meal | Per meal | $8.80 | | S5170 | Home delivered meal services - therapeutic or kosher meal | Per meal | $10.61 | | S5135 | Community integration services | Per fifteen-minute unit | $3.93 | | T2038 | Community transition services | Per job | $2,000 per waiver enrollment | | T2039 | Vehicle modification service | Per job | Amount prior-authorized on the person-centered services plan not to exceed $10,000 in a twelve-month calendar year | | S5121 | Home maintenance and chore services | Per job | Amount prior-authorized on the person-centered services plan, not to exceed $10,000 in a twelve-month calendar year |
(D) The amount of reimbursement for a service will be the lesser of the provider's billed charge or the medicaid maximum rate.
(E) Required modifiers.
(1) The "HQ" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code S5136, T1002, T1003 or T1019 if the service was delivered in a group setting. Reimbursement as a group rate will be the lesser of the provider's billed charge or seventy-five per cent of the medicaid maximum.
(2) The "TU" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code T1002, T1003 or T1019 and the entire claim is being billed as overtime.
(3) The "UA" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code T1002, T1003 or T1019 and only a portion of the claim is being billed as overtime.
(4) The "UD" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code S5136 for a half day of structured family caregiving.
(5) The "U1" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code T1002 and the individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver is receiving infusion therapy.
(6) The "U2" modifier will be used when the same provider submits a claim for billing code T1002, T1003 or T1019 for a second visit to an individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver for the same date of service.
(7) The "U3" modifier will be used when the same provider submits a claim for billing code T1002, T1003 or T1019 for three or more visits to an individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver for the same date of service.
(8) The "U4" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code T1002, T1003 or T1019 for a single visit that was more than twelve hours in length but did not exceed sixteen hours.
(9) The "U6" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code S5170 for a therapeutic or kosher home delivered meal.
(F) Claims will be submitted to, and reimbursement will be provided by, ODM in accordance with Chapter 5160-1 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated April 17, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: April 17, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.23 ODA provider certification: out-of-home respite.
(A) "Out-of-home respite" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of out-of-home respite:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-17 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, a unit of out-of-home respite equals a unit of out-of-home respite that rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code establishes for the Ohio home care waiver program.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code establishes the maximum-allowable rate for a unit of out-of-home respite.
(3) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for out-of-home respite.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-17
(A) "Out-of-home respite" are services delivered to an individual in an out-of-home setting to allow a period of rest or relief for caregivers normally providing care. The service will include an overnight stay.
(1) An out-of-home respite provider will make available the following:
(a) Waiver nursing services as set forth in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code;
(b) Personal care services as set forth in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code if the individual is enrolled on an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) -administered waiver, or rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code if the individual is enrolled in the PASSPORT program administered by the Ohio department of aging (ODA); and
(c) Three meals per day that meet the individual's dietary requirements.
(2) All services set forth in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule delivered during the provision of out-of-home respite will not be reimbursed as separate services.
(B) To qualify for submitting claims, providers of out-of-home respite will:
(1) Comply with all applicable rules set forth in Chapter 5160-44 of the Administrative Code, and:
(a) Chapters 5160-45, and as appropriate, either 5160-46 or 5160-58 of the Administrative Code, if the individual is enrolled on an ODM-administered waiver program; or
(b) Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code, if the individual is enrolled in the PASSPORT program.
(2) Be either:
(a) An intermediate care facility for individuals with an intellectual disability (ICF-IID) that has an active medicaid provider agreement in accordance with sections 5124.06 and 5124.07 of the Revised Code; or
(b) A nursing facility (NF) certified in accordance with rule 5160-3-02.3 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) Another licensed setting approved by ODM or certified by ODA.
(C) All providers of out-of-home respite will:
(1) Provide for coverage of an individual's loss due to theft, property damage and/or personal injury; and maintain a written procedure identifying the steps an individual takes to file a liability claim. Upon request, the provider will verify their coverage with ODM, ODA or their designee.
(2) Maintain evidence of non-licensed staff's completion of twelve hours of in-service training within a twelve-month period, excluding agency and program-specific orientation for every employee with in-person contact with individuals. In-service training will be initiated immediately after the non-licensed direct care staff's first anniversary of employment with the provider, and will be completed annually thereafter.
(3) Ensure any waiver nursing services provided are within the nurse's scope of practice as set forth in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Provide task-based instruction to direct care staff providing personal care services as defined in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code, or rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code, as applicable.
(D) Providers of out-of-home respite will maintain a clinical record at their place of business for each individual served in accordance with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code.
(1) Storage will protect the confidentiality of these records.
(2) Each clinical record will include the following:
(a) Identifying information, including but not limited to name, address, date of birth, gender/gender identify, race, significant phone numbers and health insurance identification numbers of the individual.
(b) Information regarding medical diagnosis (es), treatment(s) and preferences.
(c) The individual's medication profile and medication administration record, as applicable.
(d) The individual's treatment administration record, as applicable.
(e) The name and contact information for the individual's primary care physician(s).
(f) The name and current contact information for the individual's parent/guardian/authorized representative and/or emergency contact.
(g) All known drug and food interactions, allergies and dietary needs, preferences and/or restrictions.
(h) A copy of the initial and all subsequent person-centered services plans.
(i) A copy of any advance directives including, but not limited to, a do-not-resuscitate order, or medical power of attorney, if they are provided.
(j) Documentation verifying the date of out-of-home respite service delivery, including tasks performed or not performed.
(3) If the individual is receiving waiver nursing services pursuant to paragraph (A)(1)(a) of this rule, the clinical record will also include the following;
(a) A copy of the initial and all subsequent plans of care, specifying the type, frequency, scope and duration of the nursing services being provided. When services are provided by a licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of a registered nurse (RN), the clinical records will include documentation that the RN has reviewed the plans of care with the LPN. The plan of care will be recertified by the primary care physician at least every sixty days, or more frequently if there is a significant change in the individual's condition.
(b) Documentation of any verbal orders given by the primary care physician to the nurse. The nurse shall document, in writing, the physician's orders, the date and time the orders were given, and sign the entry in the clinical record. The nurse shall subsequently secure documentation of the verbal orders, signed and dated by the primary care physician.
(c) All communications with the individual, case manager, RN supervisor (if one exists) primary care physician and other members of the individual's team.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:33 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.24 ODA provider certification: home care attendant service.
(A) "Home care attendant service" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of a home care attendant service:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code, the provider shall comply with the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, a unit of a home care attendant service equals a unit of a home care attendant service that rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code establishes for the Ohio home care waiver program.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-46-06.1 of the Administrative Code establishes the maximum-allowable rate for a unit of a home care attendant service.
(3) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes rate-setting methodology for a home care attendant service.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-27
(A) The following definitions are applicable to this rule:
(1) "Adult" means an individual at least eighteen years of age.
(2) "Authorizing health care professional" means a health care professional who, pursuant to section 5166.307 of the Revised Code, authorizes a home care attendant to assist an individual enrolled on a nursing facility (NF)-based level of care waiver with self-administration of medication, nursing tasks, or both.
(3) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted catheter that terminates in the stomach.
(6) "Group setting" means a situation in which a home care attendant service provider furnishes home care attendant services in accordance with this rule and as authorized by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), or certified by the Ohio department of aging (ODA), to two or three individuals who reside at the same address.
(7) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Health care professional" means a physician or registered nurse who holds a current, valid unrestricted license.
(9) "Home care attendant" means a provider, holding a valid medicaid provider agreement in accordance with section 5166.301 of the Revised Code and paragraph (G) of this rule, who is authorized to provide home care attendant services to a specific individual enrolled on a NF-based level of care waiver.
(10) "Individual enrolled on a NF-based level of care waiver" and "individual" mean the same as "consumer" as defined in section 5166.30 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Jejunostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted catheter that terminates in the jejunum.
(12) "Medication" means a drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.
(13) "Minor" means an individual under eighteen years of age.
(14) "Nursing facility (NF) -based level of care waiver" and "waiver" mean the MyCare Ohio and Ohio home care waivers administered by ODM and the PASSPORT waiver administered by ODA.
(15) "Nursing tasks" means skilled tasks that would otherwise be performed by a registered nurse (RN), or a licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of an RN.
(16) "Oral medication" means any medication that can be administered through the mouth, through a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube if through a pre-programmed pump, or through a syringe. Oral medication may include medication administered through a metered dose inhaler.
(17) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(18) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse," "practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse (LPN)", and "registered nurse (RN)" have the same meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. "Registered nurse" includes an advance practice nurse as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.
(19) "RN home care attendant service visit" means the visit every ninety days between the RN and the individual receiving home care attendant services as required by paragraph (G)(8) of this rule. The visit may be conducted by via telehealth, unless the individual's needs necessitate in-person visit.
(20) "Schedule II, " "schedule III," "schedule IV" and "schedule V" have the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.
(21) "Topical medication" means any medication applied to the outer skin, including transdermal medications and eye, ear and nose drops. Topical medication may also include vaginal or rectal suppositories.
(B) Home care attendant services are services provided to an individual enrolled on a waiver by an unlicensed non-agency provider in accordance with this rule. Home care attendant services are tasks that would otherwise be performed by an RN or an LPN at the direction of an RN. Home care attendant services include:
(1) Assistance with self-administration of medications as set forth in paragraph (E) of this rule.
(2) Assistance with the performance of nursing tasks as set forth in paragraph (F) of this rule.
(3) Tasks performed as part of personal care aide services as described in rule 5160-46-04 or 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code when performed during a home care attendant service visit. Personal care aide tasks are not reimbursable separately as personal care aide services when they are performed during a home care attendant service visit.
(C) Home care attendant services may be provided:
(1) In the individual's home or in the community; and
(2) To assist an individual to function in the workplace without duplicating workplace accommodations.
(D) If the individual has an authorized representative as 5166.3010 of the Revised Code, the authorized representative will be present and awake during the delivery of home care attendant services.
(E) Assistance with self-administration of medication.
(1) A home care attendant will only assist an individual enrolled on a waiver with the self-administration of the following medication:
(a) Oral medications;
(b) Topical medications;
(c) Subcutaneous injections only for routine doses of insulin;
(d) Programming of a pump only used to deliver a routine dose of insulin;
(e) Medication administered via stable, labeled gastrostomy or jejunostomy tubes using pre-programmed pumps; and
(f) Doses of schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV and schedule V drugs only when administered orally or topically.
(2) Medication will be maintained in its original container and the attached label will match the dosage and means of administration set forth on the ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form. The label on the container will display all of the following information for the individual enrolled on a waiver:
(a) The individual's full name;
(b) A dispensing date within the prior twelve months; and
(c) The exact dosage and means of administration.
(3) For schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV and schedule V drugs, all of the following apply:
(a) Medication(s) will have a warning label on the bottle;
(b) During the first visit, the home care attendant will count the medication(s) in the presence of the individual enrolled on a waiver or the authorized representative and will record the count on a log located in the individual's clinical record.
(c) The medication(s) will be recounted by the home care attendant in the presence of the individual enrolled on a waiver or the authorized representative at least monthly, and the count will be reconciled on a log located in the individual's clinical record. The home care attendant will notify the authorizing health care professional, in writing, within twenty-four hours if:
(i) Medication is missing; or
(ii) The count of medication(s) cannot be reconciled.
(d) The medication(s) will be stored separately from all other medications, and secured and locked at all times when not being administered in order to prevent access by unauthorized persons.
(F) Assistance with the performance of nursing tasks.
(1) A home care attendant may assist with the performance of nursing tasks not expressly excluded in accordance with paragraph (F)(2) of this rule.
(2) A home care attendant may not assist an individual who is receiving home care attendant services with the performance of any of the following nursing tasks:
(a) Intravenous (IV) insertion, removal or discontinuation;
(b) Intramuscular injections;
(c) IV medication administration;
(d) Subcutaneous injections, except for routine doses of insulin pursuant to paragraph (E)(1)(c) of this rule;
(e) Programming of a pump used to deliver medications (including, but not limited to epidural, subcutaneous and IV), except for routine doses of insulin pursuant to paragraph (E)(1)(d) of this rule;
(f) Insertion or initiation of infusion therapies; and
(g) Central line dressing changes.
(3) Performance of nursing tasks will be summarized and submitted on the ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form.
(G) In order to provide services to an individual enrolled on a waiver and to submit a claim for reimbursement, home care attendants will meet all of the following requirements:
(1) As part of the medicaid provider agreement application process, provide ODM, ODA or their designee with evidence to its satisfaction of the following:
(a) Submission of the ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form and/or ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form as prescribed by paragraph (H) of this rule.
(b) Successful completion of at least one of the following:
(i) A competency evaluation program or training and competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the director of health under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code, and registration as active or in good standing on the Ohio nurse aide registry maintained by the director of health under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code; or
(ii) A training program and competency evaluation program for home health aides as specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 and 484.36, if the person met those standards as they existed on or before January 12, 2018, or 42 C.F.R. 484.80 and 484.115, if the person met those standards since they were adopted on January 13, 2018. A person is not considered to have completed a training and competency evaluation program, or a competency evaluation program if, since the person's most recent completion of this program(s), there has been a continuous period of twenty-four consecutive months during none of which the person furnished services described in 42 C.F.R. 409.40 (as in effect on October 1, 2023); or
(iii) A certified vocational program in a health care field, and written testing and skills testing by return demonstration; or
(iv) A written attestation of training, instruction, and as appropriate, skills testing by return demonstration prior to initiation of service provision on:
(a) Appropriate and safe techniques in personal hygiene and grooming that include: bed, tub, shower and partial bath techniques, shampoo in sink, tub or bed, nail and skin care, oral hygiene, toileting and elimination, safe transfer and ambulation, normal range of motion and positioning, and adequate nutrition and fluid intake.
(b) The maintenance of a clean, safe and healthy environment, including but not limited to, house cleaning and laundry, dusting furniture, sweeping, vacuuming and washing floors, kitchen care (including dishes, appliances and counters), bathroom care, emptying and cleaning bedside commodes and urinary catheter bags, changing bed linens, washing inside windows within reach from the floor, removing trash and folding, ironing and putting away laundry.
(c) Meal preparation, including special diet preparation, grocery purchase, planning and shopping, and running errands.
(d) The physical, emotional and developmental needs of individuals, including the need for privacy and respect for individuals and their property.
(e) Universal precautions for the prevention of disease transmission, including hand-washing and proper disposal of bodily waste and medical instruments that are sharp or may produce sharp pieces if broken.
(f) Basic elements of body functioning and changes in body function that should be reported to a supervisor.
(g) Basic safety requirements and knowledge of emergency procedures.
(h) Reading and recording temperature, pulse and respiration.
(i) Observation, reporting and documentation of individual status and services provided.
(j) Communication skills, including the ability to read, write and make brief and accurate oral or written reports.
(c) Completion of training and instruction, prior to the provision of home care attendant services, regarding the delivery of the home care attendant services authorized by the individual's authorizing health care professional. The training will be specific to the individual enrolled on a waiver and may be provided by the individual's authorizing health care professional, the individual receiving services or the authorized representative in cooperation with the individual's health care professional as indicated on the ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form and/or ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form, as appropriate.
(d) Performance of a successful return demonstration of the home care attendant service to be provided if requested by the individual enrolled on a waiver or the authorizing health care professional.
(e) Completion and maintenance of first aid certification from a class that is not solely internet-based and that includes hands-on training by a certified first aid instructor and a successful return demonstration of what was learned in the course, and certification that education was received from the authorizing health care professional about health and welfare considerations appropriate for an individual or group setting.
(f) Completion and maintenance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) certification from a class that is not solely internet-based and that includes hands-on training by a certified CPR instructor and a successful return demonstration of what was learned in the course. Current providers and those provider-applicants whose applications are pending as of the effective date of this rule shall have one hundred and eighty days from the effective date of this rule to meet this requirement.
(2) Be a non-agency provider who holds an active medicaid provider agreement as a home care attendant and who maintains compliance with sections 5166.30 to 5166.3010 of the Revised Code and applicable rules set forth in Chapters 173-39, 5160-44, 5160-45 and 5160-46 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Request reimbursement for the provision of home care attendant services in accordance with rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code for Ohio department of aging certified providers or 5160-46-06.1 of the Administrative Code for providers of Ohio department of medicaid administrated waiver programs.
(4) Not be the authorizing health care professional of the individual receiving services.
(5) Not be an authorized representative of the individual receiving services.
(6) Not be the legally responsible family member as that term is defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code of the individual receiving services.
(7) Not be the legal guardian or foster caregiver of the individual receiving services.
(8) In collaboration with the individual receiving services, secure the services of an RN and participate in an in-person visit with the individual receiving services, the authorized representative, and the RN for the purpose of answering any questions the home care attendant and/or individual receiving services, or authorized representative have about meeting care needs, medications and other issues.
(a) At least twice per year, the RN will conduct RN home care attendant service visits in-person.
All other RN home care attendant service visits may be conducted via telehealth, unless the individual's needs necessitate an in-person visit.
(b) The RN performing an RN home care attendant service visit will:
(i) Possess a current, valid and unrestricted license with the Ohio board of nursing;
(ii) Possess an active Ohio medicaid provider agreement;
(iii) Comply with the conditions of participation as set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The RN will be present at the first visit between the home care attendant and individual upon the initiation of home care attendant services. ODM, ODA, or their designee will also be present at the first visit.
(d) The home care attendant and the RN will document the activities of each visit in the clinical record of the individual receiving services.
(e) The home care attendant will discuss the results of the RN visit with ODM, ODA or their designee, the individual receiving services and/or the authorized representative.
(f) When the RN performs an RN home care attendant service visit, the RN may bill the state plan nursing assessment code set forth in appendix A to rule 5160-12-08 of the Administrative Code.
(H) If authorized on the person-centered services plan, a home care attendant may provide services to two or three individuals enrolled on a waiver in a group setting.
(I) The ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form and/or the ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form, as appropriate, will contain all of the following:
(1) Written consent from the individual enrolled on a waiver or the authorized representative, as applicable, allowing the home care attendant to provide home care attendant services, and assuming responsibility for directing the home care attendant.
(2) A written statement from the authorizing health care professional attesting that the individual enrolled on a waiver or the authorized representative has demonstrated the ability to direct the home care attendant. The written statement will also indicate whether the home care attendant has demonstrated the ability to furnish the home care attendant service to the individual enrolled on a waiver. The statement will include all of the following:
(a) The name and address of the individual receiving home care attendant services;
(b) A description of the specific nursing task or self-administration of medication that the home care attendant will assist with, including, in the case of assistance with self-administration of medication, the name, dosage, and route of administration of the medication;
(c) The times or intervals when the home care attendant is to assist the individual receiving services with the self-administration of each dosage of the medication or with the performance of nursing tasks;
(d) The dates on which the home care attendant is to begin and cease providing assistance;
(e) A list of severe adverse reactions that the home care attendant will report to the individual's health care professional should the individual experience one or more reactions;
(f) At least one telephone number at which the home care attendant can reach the individual's health care professional in an emergency for consultation after contacting emergency personnel;
(g) At least one contact number at which the home care attendant can reach the authorizing health care professional when the home care attendant observes that scheduled medication(s) is missing or cannot be reconciled; and
(h) Instructions the home care attendant will follow when assisting the individual receiving services with the performance of a nursing task or the self-administration of medications, including, instructions for maintaining sterile conditions and for the storage of task-related equipment and supplies.
(J) The individual enrolled on a waiver will participate with ODM, ODA, or their designee in the development and maintenance of a written back-up plan prior to initiation of services. The authorizing health care professional and/or the home care attendant may also participate in the development and maintenance of the back-up plan.
(1) The back-up plan will meet the needs of the individual enrolled on a waiver in the event:
(a) The regularly scheduled home care attendant cannot or does not meet his or her obligation to provide services to the individual receiving services; or
(b) The individual receiving services and/or the authorized representative is not able to direct home care attendant services.
(2) As authorized by ODM, ODA, or their designee,
(a) Waiver nursing as set forth in rule 5160-44-22 of the Administrative Code, and/or private duty nursing or home health nursing as set forth in Chapter 5160-12 of the Administrative Code, may be used as back-up to assist with self-administration of medications and the performance of nursing tasks;
(b) Personal care aide services as set forth in rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code may be used as back-up for personal care aide tasks in an ODM-administered waiver;
(c) Personal care services as set forth in rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code may be used as back-up for personal care tasks in the PASSPORT waiver; and
(d) Back-up may include informal caregivers.
(K) All home care attendants service providers will maintain a clinical record for each individual served in accordance with the requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code.
(1) Storage of the clinical record will be in a manner that protects the confidentiality of these records and will be in a secure location that may be the individual's residence or primary location where the individual receives services.
(2) Each clinical record will include:
(a) Identifying information including name, address, date of birth, gender/gender identity, race, significant phone numbers and health identification numbers of the individual.
(b) Information regarding the individual's medical diagnoses, treatment and preferences.
(c) The individual's medication profile, as applicable.
(d) The individual's treatment administration record, as applicable.
(e) The name and contact information for all of the licensed health care professionals serving the individual.
(f) The name of and current contact information for the individual's parent/guardian/authorized representative and/or emergency contact.
(g) A copy of the initial and all subsequent person-centered services plans.
(h) All known drug and food interactions, allergies and dietary needs, preferences and/or restrictions.
(i) A copy of any advance directives including, but not limited to, a "do not resuscitate order" (DNR) or a "medical power of attorney," if they exist.
(j) The ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form and/or the ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form, as appropriate. The ODM 02389 "Home Care Attendant Medication Authorization" form and/or the ODM 02390 "Home Care Attendant Skilled Task Authorization" form will be updated and reflected in the clinical record should any changes in home care attendant service provisions be needed.
(k) Documentation of home care attendant services performed or not performed, arrival and departure times, and the dated signature of the provider, and individual receiving services or the authorized representative, verifying the service delivery upon its completion and arrival and departure times. The signature method of choice for the individual receiving services or the authorized representative will be documented on the person-centered services plan, and will include, but not be limited to, any of the following: a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. If the individual is unable to provide the signature at the time of service, the individual is to submit an electronic signature or standard signature via regular mail, or otherwise provide a signature in no instance any later than within three business days of the completion of the service delivery that requires signature.
(l) A copy of the log detailing the count and reconciliation of schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV and schedule V drugs for which assistance with self-administration is provided.
(m) Service notes, signed and dated by the home care attendant, documenting all communications with ODM, ODA or their designee, health care professionals including the authorizing health care professional, and other members of the individual's team, and documenting the general condition of the individual, any unusual events occurring during the visit, and the service tasks performed.
(n) Documentation of the RN home care attendant service visits every ninety days between the home care attendant, individual enrolled on a waiver and RN, and of any resulting activities, in accordance with paragraph (G)(8) of this rule.
(L) Unless the clinical record described in paragraph (K) of this rule is maintained in the home of the individual and accessible to team members, the home care attendant will maintain another record which:
(1) Includes communication logs going back no less than sixty calendar days in a format agreed upon by the individual and provider for the purpose of promoting communication between team members.
(2) Any other documentation required by the individual.
(3) Is maintained in a place and manner that is accessible to the individual and other team members chosen by the individual at the individual's residence or primary service location.
(4) Is maintained in a manner that protects the confidentiality of the individual.
(M) If ODM, ODA, or their designee determines that the individual enrolled on a waiver cannot meet the requirements of this rule, or the health and welfare of the individual receiving home care attendant services cannot be ensured, then ODM, ODA, or their designee, at its discretion, may prohibit the individual from receiving home care attendant services. The individual will be afforded notice and hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated January 2, 2024 at 8:34 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-46-06.1
(A) Definitions of terms used for billing and calculating home care attendant services (HCAS) rates.
(1) "Base rate," as set forth in column 3 of tables A and B of this rule, means the amount reimbursed by Ohio medicaid for the first thirty-five to sixty minutes of assistance with self-administration of medications and the performance of nursing tasks provided during a single visit.
(2) "Continuous nursing" means nursing services (waiver nursing and/or private duty nursing) that are more than four hours in length and during which personal care aide service tasks as described in paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code may be provided incidental to nursing services.
(3) "Group rate" means the amount that HCAS providers will be reimbursed when the service is provided in a group setting.
(4) "Group setting" means a situation in which an HCAS provider furnishes HCAS in accordance with rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code, and as authorized by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM), to two or three individuals who reside at the same address.
(5) "HCAS visit" is a visit during which HCAS is provided in accordance with rule 5160-44-27 of the Administrative Code. An HCAS visit will not exceed twelve hours or forty-eight units in duration.
(6) "Intermittent nursing" means nursing services (waiver nursing and/or home health nursing) that are four hours or less in length.
(7) "Medicaid maximum rate" means the maximum amount that will be paid by the Ohio medicaid program for the service rendered. The base rate in column 3 and the unit rate in column 4 of table A of this rule, and the base rate in column 3 and the unit rates in column 5 of table B of this rule represent the medicaid maximum rates for HCAS.
(8) "Modifier", as set forth in column 4 of table A of this rule and column 4 of table B of this rule, means the additional two-alpha-numeric-digit billing code as set forth in paragraph (G) of this rule that HCAS providers will use to provide additional information regarding service delivery.
(9) "Unit rate," as set forth in column 5 of table A of this rule and column 5 of table B of this rule, means the amount reimbursed by Ohio medicaid for each fifteen minutes of HCAS delivered when the visit is:
(a) Greater than sixty minutes in length.
(b) Less than or equal to thirty-four minutes in length. Ohio medicaid will reimburse a maximum of only one unit if HCAS is equal to or less than fifteen minutes in length, and a maximum of two units if the service is sixteen through thirty-four minutes in length.
(B) Providers will bill for reimbursement using table A when HCAS is provided in lieu of continuous nursing as described in paragraph (A)(2) of this rule. Personal care aide tasks are included in the unit rate.
Table A
| Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 | Column 4 | Column 5 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Billing code | Home care attendant service description | Base rate | Modifier | Unit rate | | S5125 | Assistance with self-administration of medications and/or the performance of nursing tasks (HCAS/N) | $27.53 | N/A | $6.39 per fifteen minute unit of HCAS/N delivered during visit | | S5125 | HCAS/N (overtime) | $35.11 | TU or UA | $9.81 |
(C) Providers will bill for reimbursement using table B when HCAS is provided in lieu of intermittent nursing as described in paragraph (A)(6) of this rule. The first four units of HCAS will be billed for at the base rate. Beginning with the fifth unit of HCAS, assistance with self-administration of medications and the performance of nursing tasks (HCAS/N) will be billed at the HCAS/N unit rate; and personal care aide service tasks (HCAS/PC) will be billed at the HCAS/PC unit rate using the U8 modifier. There is no base rate for HCAS/PC. The HCAS/PC service can only be rendered in conjunction with an HCAS/N service.
Table B
| Column 1 | Column 2 | Column 3 | Column 4 | Column 5 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Billing code | Home care attendant service description | Base rate | Modifier | Unit rate | | S5125 | HCAS/N | $27.53 | N/A | $6.39 per fifteen minute unit of HCAS/N delivered during the visit | | S5125 | HCAS/PC | N/A | U8 | $4.70 per fifteen minute unit of HCAS/PC delivered during the visit | | S5125 | HCAS/N (overtime) | $35.11 | TU or UA | $9.81 | | S5125 | HCAS/PC (overtime) | N/A | either TU or UA, and U8 | $7.05 |
(D) The amount of reimbursement for a service will be the lesser of the provider's billed charge or the medicaid maximum rate.
(E) When HCAS/N and HCAS/PC are provided during an uninterrupted period of time, the visit will be considered a single HCAS visit. An HCAS provider is entitled to only one base rate during an HCAS visit.
(F) HCAS providers will be limited to a maximum of twelve hours or forty-eight units of HCAS during a twenty-four-hour period, regardless of the number of individuals enrolled on an ODM-administered waiver who are served.
(G) Required modifiers.
(1) The "HQ" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim if HCAS was delivered in a group setting. Reimbursement at a group rate will be the lesser of the provider's billed charge or seventy-five per cent of the medicaid maximum rate.
(2) The "TU" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code S5125 and the entire visit is being billed as overtime.
(3) The "UA" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for billing code S5125 and only a portion of the visit is being billed as overtime.
(4) The "U2" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for a second HCAS visit to an individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver for the same date of service.
(5) The "U3" modifier will be used when the same provider submits a claim for three or more HCAS visits to an individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver for the same date of service.
(6) The "U8" modifier will be used when a provider submits a claim for an HCAS visit that is in lieu of intermittent nursing as described in paragraph (A)(6) of this rule, and for units of service that are HCAS/PC.
(H) Claims will be submitted to, and reimbursement will be provided by, the ODM in accordance with Chapter 5160-1 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated April 7, 2026 at 4:16 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.25 ODA provider certification: structured family caregiving.
(A) "Structured family caregiving" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every ODA-certified provider of structured family caregiving:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The provider may allow a person to serve as a caregiver only if the person meets at least one of the following qualifications:
(a) The person successfully completes no fewer than eight hours of training that the individual determined the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs by the deadline the individual establishes.
(b) The person meets the initial qualifications to be a PCA under paragraph (C)(3)(a) of rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(4) If a conflict exists between a requirement or qualification in this chapter and a requirement or qualification in rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code, the requirement or qualification in this chapter applies instead of the conflicting requirement or qualification in rule 5160-44-33 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the units and rates for structured family caregiving.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology.
Last updated July 22, 2026 at 12:03 PM
History
- Effective: September 27, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-33
(A) "Structured Family Caregiving (SFC)" is a service in which an individual at least eighteen years of age who is enrolled on either the MyCare Ohio, Ohio home care, or pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) waiver program, resides with a caregiver who provides daily care and support to the individual when the individual meets the following criteria:
(1) The caregiver resides with the individual in the individual's private home or resides with the individual in the caregiver's private home.
(2) The individual needs assistance with daily personal care and household support, and assistance with activities needed to promote independence and integration into the community.
(3) The individual chooses to receive SFC.
(B) The waiver service provider will:
(1) Be an agency provider as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code meeting the following criteria:
(a) For the Ohio home care waiver program, providers will be a medicare-certified home health agency, otherwise-accredited agency, or hold an accreditation from an organization recognized by the centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS) or the United States department of health and human services (HHS) and operate in accordance with Chapter 5160-45 of the Administrative Code.
(b) For the PASSPORT program, providers will be an Ohio department of aging (ODA) certified provider and operate in accordance with Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code.
(c) For MyCare waiver program, providers will operate in accordance with either paragraph (B)(1)(a) or paragraph (B)(1)(b) of this rule, as appropriate.
(2) Complete caregiver training.
(a) For medicare-certified home health agencies, the caregiver will successfully meet the trainings specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.80 (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) For otherwise-accredited and Ohio department of aging certified agencies, the caregiver will successfully complete at least eight hours of initial training that the individual determines the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs by the deadline the individual establishes.
(c) The provider will ensure the caregiver receives structured training tailored to support the caregiver to meet the individual's assessed needs.
(d) The provider will maintain documentation that demonstrates the training described in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule has been completed.
(3) Ensure SFC is provided as authorized and that any modifications needed in settings adhere to the individual's approved person-centered services plan (PCSP). Settings where the individual resides in a private residence owned or leased by a caregiver who is not related by blood or marriage are considered provider-owned or controlled settings and are subject to compliance with the conditions described in paragraph (C) of rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Ensure that the caregiver employed by or contracted with the agency provider is able to meet the individual's need for assistance with daily care as assessed by the waiver program case management entity for the relevant waiver program.
(5) Employ coaching and support professional staff.
(a) The provider's coaching and support professional staff will include:
(i) A registered nurse (RN), in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code,
(ii) A licensed practical nurse (LPN), at the direction of an RN, in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code,
(iii) A licensed social worker (LSW), in accordance with Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code, or
(iv) A licensed independent social worker (LISW), in accordance with Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.
(b) The provider's coaching and support professional staff will:
(i) Conduct an initial in-person home visit with the individual and the caregiver of SFC to review the roles and responsibilities of the caregiver and the provider, applicable rules of ODM and ODA, and relevant policies of the provider which apply to provider staff.
(ii) Conduct monthly contact with the individual and caregiver to provide individualized coaching to the caregiver to increase the caregiver's competencies to provide care to the individual, help the caregiver identify signs of change in the individual's general condition and how to manage such circumstances. Monthly contact will also be made to ensure the caregiver is attending to self-care needs, assess the provision of SFC, review the caregiver's goals and needs, share relevant educational content, assess the individual's satisfaction with care delivery and relationship with the caregiver. Contacts may be a combination of telephonic and in-person visits, with no more than sixty calendar days between in-person visits.
(6) Maintain a record for each individual served, in accordance with the criteria outlined in:
(a) Paragraph (A)(9) of rule 5160-46-04 of the Administrative Code if providing SFC to an individual enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver program.
(b) Rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code if providing SFC to an individual enrolled on the PASSPORT program.
(c) Paragraph (B)(6)(a) or paragraph (B)(6)(b) of this rule if providing services to an individual enrolled on the MyCare waiver program, as appropriate.
(C) Limitations for SFC include the following:
(1) SFC will not be authorized for individuals who are medically unstable or medically complex as a substitute for skilled care provided by an RN, LPN, licensed nurse, or other licensed health care professional.
(2) SFC will not be provided on the same calendar day as out-of-home respite as described in rules 5160-44-17 and 173-39-02.23 of the Administrative Code.
(3) SFC will not be provided on the same calendar day when a combination of more than two hours of the following services are authorized on the individual's PCSP:
(a) Choices home care attendant service as described in rules 5160-58-04 and 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Home care attendant service as described in rules 5160-44-27 and 173-39-02.24 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Homemaker as described in rules 5160-31-05 and 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code.
(d) Personal care services as described in rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code or personal care as described in rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Spouses and other relatives with legal decision-making authority may only provide SFC in accordance with the criteria outlined in rule 5160-44-32 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Authorization process.
(1) SFC may be authorized for individuals who are eligible and choose to access the service.
(2) The maximum allowable payment rates and procedure codes for SFC are listed in rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code. SFC may be authorized as a full day, or a half day as indicated in the individual's PCSP.
(a) SFC will be authorized as a full day, unless the individual is assessed to need additional services described in paragraph (C) of this rule to be provided on the same calendar day as SFC.
(b) SFC will only be authorized as a half day when the individual is assessed to need additional services described in paragraph (C) of this rule to be provided on the same calendar day as SFC.
(3) The caregiver will provide SFC for no more than three individuals who reside at the same address. When SFC is provided to more than one individual at the same address, the provider will be reimbursed at a group rate as defined in:
(a) Paragraph (A)(5) of rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code if providing SFC to individuals enrolled on the Ohio home care waiver program.
(b) Paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code if providing SFC to individuals enrolled on the PASSPORT program.
(c) Paragraph (C) of rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code if providing SFC to individuals enrolled on the MyCare waiver program.
(F) As a condition of receiving SFC, individuals will agree to and cooperate with monthly waiver program care management agency contacts. Contacts may be a combination of telephonic and in-person visits, with no more than sixty calendar days between in-person visits.
Last updated August 13, 2025 at 7:40 AM
History
- Effective: August 12, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.26 Provider certification: vehicle modification.
(A) "Vehicle modification" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-46-09 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for every certified provider of vehicle modification:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-46-09 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-46-09 of the Administrative Code, the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code applies instead of the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-46-09 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Unit and rates:
(1) For the PASSPORT program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) One unit of vehicle modification as one job.
(b) The maximum-allowable rate for a job.
(2) For the PASSPORT program, rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology.
Last updated April 16, 2026 at 7:45 AM
History
- Effective: April 16, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-46-09
This rule sets forth the definition of the vehicle modification service as well as the provider requirements and specifications for the delivery of the service. Providers are also subject to the conditions of participation set forth in rule 5160-44-31 of the Administrative Code. Services are reimbursed in accordance with rule 5160-46-06 of the Administrative Code.
(A) "Vehicle modifications" are adaptations or alterations to an automobile that is identified as the individual's primary means of transportation, that are needed in order to accommodate the needs of the individual. Vehicle modifications are authorized when necessary to enable the individual to function with greater independence, integrate more fully into the community, and to ensure the health, welfare, and safety of the individual.
(B) Vehicle modifications include but are not limited to:
(1) External handling devices and carriers.
(2) Operating aids, such as assistive equipment and technologies.
(3) Raised or lowered floors or roofs.
(4) Raised doors.
(5) Scooter/wheelchair hoists, hitches, and tie downs.
(6) Lifts.
(7) Maintenance, repair, or replacement of a previous vehicle modification funded by the individual's waiver that does not meet reimbursement criteria through another source.
(8) Transfers of adaptable equipment from one vehicle to another for use by the same individual in accordance with this rule.
(9) Factory-installed adaptations when documented on a separate, itemized invoice associated with the purchase of a new vehicle that is not pre-owned or pre-leased. Such modifications are payable upon proof of transfer of vehicle ownership from the dealer into the name of the allowable owner of the vehicle as described in this rule.
(C) Vehicle modifications do not include:
(1) Modifications that are available through another funding source.
(2) Routine auto care and maintenance of general utility unrelated to the vehicle's modification.
(3) Replacement or repair of previously approved vehicle modifications damaged because of apparent misuse, abuse, or negligence.
(4) Payment for purchase of a vehicle except as set forth in paragraph (B)(9) of this rule.
(5) Permanent modifications to leased vehicles.
(6) Vehicle insurance costs.
(7) Services performed which exceed what is specified on the individual's person-centered services plan.
(8) Removal of a modification except set forth in paragraph (B)(8) of this rule.
(9) Repairs needed to a vehicle before a modification can be installed.
(D) Limitations:
(1) Service authorization is limited to ten thousand dollars per calendar year per individual.
(2) Vehicle modifications will only be made to a vehicle owned by one of the following:
(a) The individual,
(b) A relative of the individual who provides primary long-term support, whether paid or non-paid, or
(c) A non-relative who provides primary long-term support to the individual and is not a paid provider.
(3) Vehicle modifications are not allowed for vehicles owned by business entities or provider agencies.
(E) Service authorization process
(1) Prior to the service being authorized, the individual, and if applicable any person(s) who will operate the vehicle will provide the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee with the following documentation:
(a) The valid driver's license for the person(s) who will be operating the vehicle, with appropriate endorsements;
(b) Proof of ownership and current title or registration of the vehicle to be modified;
(c) Written consent from the vehicle owner to modify the vehicle, including acknowledgment that the vehicle owner understands that ODM is not responsible for returning the vehicle to its prior condition;
(d) Written attestation from the individual or the individual's parent or guardian, as applicable, that identifies the vehicle to be modified as the individual's primary means of transportation; and
(e) Proof of active collision and liability insurance for the vehicle being modified.
(2) ODM or its designee may require the completion of an evaluation by an occupational therapist (OT) or physical therapist (PT). The evaluation will determine the appropriate vehicle modification and the individual's capacity to utilize the vehicle modification.
(3) In consultation with the individual and any person(s) who will be operating the vehicle, ODM or its designee, or the OT or PT will develop a vehicle modification referral that is intended to address the individuals needs.
(4) All submitted proposals will be reviewed by the individual, the individual's parent or guardian, as applicable, the owner of the vehicle if other than the individual, and ODM or its designee.
(5) The service will be awarded to the provider who proposes the lowest cost alternative that meets the individual's assessed need.
(F) Vehicle modification provider:
(1) Vehicle modification providers will submit a fixed cost proposal to ODM or its designee.
(a) The proposal is developed to meet the individual's needs as identified in the evaluation and includes the following:
(i) A description of the work to be performed;
(ii) A drawing or diagram of the modification(s);
(iii) Itemized materials and associated costs;
(iv) Year, make, and model of the vehicle being modified;
(v) Documentation from an automotive service excellence-certified professional stating the vehicle is in good operating condition including that it is structurally sound;
(vi) Estimated time needed to complete the modification;
(vii) A written statement of warranties provided, including a warranty lasting at least one year from date of final acceptance of work against defective workmanship; and
(viii) A written guarantee that all materials furnished and modifications installed perform their intended function.
(b) A fixed proposal may be adjusted with good cause only if the job specifications are modified in writing, and the adjustment is approved by ODM or its designee.
(2) Upon completion of a vehicle modification, but before submitting a claim, the vehicle modification provider will:
(a) Perform all necessary inspections and submit documentation to verify the repair, modification, or installation was completed in accordance with applicable federal, state, and local laws;
(b) Document that the vehicle modification was tested, is in proper working order, and is safe to be operated by the individual or his or her caregiver;
(c) Attest that the individual and if applicable, any other person(s) who will operate the vehicle modification, was instructed on the usage of the modification;
(d) Attest the vehicle modification was completed in accordance with the agreed upon specifications using all the materials and equipment described in the proposal; and
(e) Obtain final written confirmation from the individual, the individual's parent or guardian as applicable, and the owner of the vehicle if other than the individual, that the vehicle modification has been completed to their satisfaction.
(3) Request for reimbursements include:
(a) Itemized cost of material and labor as identified in the approved proposal and
(b) Any approved adjustments made per paragraph (F)(2)(b) of this rule.
(G) The authorization of vehicle modifications may be combined with other waiver services to meet the assessed needs of the individual. In such instances, individual waiver service limits as described in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule still apply.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:45 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-51-10
(A) Helping Ohioans move, expanding choice (HOME choice) assists individuals to transition from an institutional setting into a community setting.
(B) Definitions
(1) "Assessment" means an in-person meeting with the HOME choice applicant to determine eligibility for the program, conducted by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee.
(2) "Community setting" means a location that meets the home and community-based setting requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code or for those moving from an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities the requirements set forth in rule 5123:2-9-02 of the Administrative Code.
(3) "HOME choice participant" or "participant" means a person who is enrolled in HOME choice.
(4) "Institutional setting" means a hospital as described in Chapter 5160-2 of the Administrative Code, a nursing facility as described in Chapter 5160-3 of the Administrative Code, or an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities as described in Chapter 5123:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(C) To be eligible for HOME choice, an individual must:
(1) Be enrolled in medicaid in accordance with division 5160:1 of the Administrative Code at the time of HOME choice application and during the entire HOME choice enrollment period;
(2) Currently reside in an institutional setting in Ohio and have resided in an institutional setting in Ohio for a period of not less than sixty consecutive days;
(3) Be eighteen years of age or older;
(4) Complete the ODM 10239, "HOME Choice Application" (5/2021) which includes:
(a) Agreeing to adhere to the participant responsibilities outlined in the HOME choice application;
(b) Agreeing to move to a community setting in Ohio within one hundred eighty days of enrolling in the program.
(5) Participate in an assessment and be determined by ODM to have:
(a) A need for the program. Examples include:
(i) Requiring physical or emotional supports to successfully transition from an institutional setting to a community setting;
(ii) Lacking family or informal supports willing and capable of assisting with any of the following;
(a) Locating, securing or moving into a community setting;
(b) Acquiring household furnishings and supplies;
(c) Restoring credit or obtaining financial resources necessary to obtain or set up a household;
(d) Accessing community resources and supports; or
(e) Arranging necessary home adaptations required for community living.
(b) Health care needs that may be adequately met in a community setting; and
(c) Enough income or means to sustain community living at the time of HOME choice application and during the entire HOME choice enrollment period.
(6) Have not previously transitioned through the HOME choice program after July 1, 2019;
(7) Not be moving to another institutional setting.
(8) Work with a transition coordinator to develop a safe transition plan, and discharge in accordance with that plan.
(9) Not be a foster child, as defined in Chapter 5101:2-1 of the Administrative Code; and
(10) Not be eligible for both:
(a) Targeted case management, as defined in rule 5160-48-01 of the Administrative Code, and
(b) Community transition services, as defined in rule 5123-9-48 of the Administrative Code.
(D) An individual may be enrolled in HOME choice when all the criteria in paragraph (C) of this rule are met. ODM will notify the individual of enrollment in writing. The HOME choice enrollment period begins on the date of the enrollment letter and continues for up to one hundred eighty days pre-transition and up to thirty days post transition.
(E) Services available through HOME choice include activities approved by ODM or it's designee to assist the participant in their transition including:
(1) "Transition coordination" which includes:
(a) Working with facility discharge planners to determine what services and supports the participant will need in the community;
(b) Helping the participant obtain housing;
(c) Linking the participant with community resources;
(d) Coordinating the use of community transition services;
(e) Collaborating with the participant's comprehensive care team and nursing facility or hospital to coordinate services at the time of discharge from the institutional setting, and after the transition into the community setting when applicable.
(2) "Community transition service" as set forth in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(3) HOME choice services can not duplicate services available to a participant enrolled on a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver.
(F) A participant may receive HOME choice services for up to thirty days post transition beginning on the date the participant moves from the institutional setting into the community setting.
(G) If an individual fails to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraph (C) of this rule before the HOME choice enrollment period, the individual will be denied participation in the program and afforded notice and hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(H) If an individual fails to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraph (C) of this rule after the HOME choice enrollment period begins, the individual will be terminated from the program and afforded notice and hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated November 15, 2021 at 10:02 AM
History
- Effective: November 15, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-03.5 ODA provider certification: military provisions.
(A) Applications:
(1) A person who applies for provider certification (applicant) with documentation that the applicant is a service member or veteran, as section 5903.01 of the Revised Code defines those terms, including a service member facing imminent deployment, or the spouse or surviving spouse of a service member or veteran, shall receive priority processing of their applications.
(2) If an applicant answers affirmatively that the applicant is a service member, veteran, or the spouse or surviving spouse of a service member or veteran, then the applicant shall submit supporting evidence along with the application. A copy of either or both of the following are acceptable forms of documentation:
(a) A military identification card, military discharge certificate, or similar document issued by the armed forces.
(b) A marriage certificate or other document showing that the applicant is the spouse of a service member or veteran.
(3) AGE or its designee shall track and monitor the total number of applications submitted by service members, veterans, or their spouses or surviving spouses, and the average number of business days it takes to process their applications.
(B) Training: Pursuant to section 5903.03 of the Revised Code, a person subject to the training requirements in this chapter may request that AGE or its designee consider their successfully completed military training to satisfy the training requirements in this chapter. The person shall provide AGE or its designee with documentation that the military training was successfully completed and was substantially equivalent to, or exceeded, the training requirements in this chapter.
Last updated January 5, 2026 at 9:55 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-05
(A) Introduction: Pursuant to section 173.391 of the Revised Code, ODA or its designee may impose disciplinary action against an ODA-certified provider (provider) for good cause, including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct ODA determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health or safety of individuals being served.
(B) Disciplinary actions by ODA's designee:
(1) Disciplinary actions imposed by ODA's designee may include any one or more of the following:
(a) Plan of correction or evidence of compliance: ODA's designee may require the provider to provide a plan of correction or evidence of compliance with all areas of non-compliance within seven business days after the disciplinary action is imposed.
(b) Suspending referrals: ODA's designee may cease to refer individuals to the provider until ODA's designee determines the provider complies with all requirements in this chapter.
(c) Remove clients: ODA's designee may revise the person-centered services plans for individuals to stop authorizing the non-compliant provider as a provider for those individuals.
(2) When ODA's designee imposes a disciplinary action, it shall do the following:
(a) Notify the provider of the disciplinary action via encrypted email or mail.
(b) Notify ODA of the disciplinary action via an ODA-approved method.
(c) Complete the required fields in PIMS related to the disciplinary action.
(d) Indicate in PIMS anytime it grants an extension to the deadlines in paragraph (B)(1)(a) or (B)(1)(b) of this rule.
(3) ODA's designee does not have authority to impose more than one disciplinary action against a provider for the same episode of non-compliance.
(4) ODA's designee may follow-up with the provider to verify compliance in the area of non-compliance. Follow-up may include site visits, requesting supplemental information, or reviewing records.
(5) ODA may require ODA's designee to rescind or modify any pending disciplinary action.
(C) Disciplinary actions imposed by ODA:
(1) ODA may impose any discipline authorized under division (A)(2) of section 173.391 of the Revised Code.
(2) ODA may consider any one or more of the following when imposing disciplinary action:
(a) Whether the conduct is injurious or poses a threat to the health or safety of individuals being served.
(b) The provider's previous disciplinary history.
(c) Any other factors ODA may consider relevant.
(D) A provider may appeal a disciplinary action listed in column B of table 1 to this rule unless the reason for the disciplinary action is listed under division (E) of section 173.391 of the Revised Code. As used in table 1 to this rule, "another sanction" does not include any of the disciplinary actions listed in column A of the table.
Table 1
| COLUMN A | COLUMN B | | --- | --- | | Written warning | Fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty or an order to repay unearned funds | | Requirement to submit a plan of correction or provide evidence of compliance | Suspended certification | | Suspended referrals | Revoked certification | | Removal of clients | Another sanction |
(E) The provider may request a hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code only if it does before the deadline in that chapter.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 9:57 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-40 State-Funded PASSPORT Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-01 PASSPORT program (state-funded component): introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.522 of the Revised Code. (See Chapter 173-42 of the Administrative Code for rules on the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.)
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Person-centered services plan" means the outline of services a case manager authorizes a provider to provide to an individual, regardless of the funding source for those services. It includes the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual or caregiver which identifies only the individual or caregiver and which the individual or caregiver offers as an attestation to enrolling into the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program and agreeing to the requirements of that program. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:46 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-33
(A) Designation of an authorized representative.
(1) ) An individual may designate any person or organization to serve as that individual's authorized representative. Any person serving as an authorized representative must be at least eighteen years or older.
(2) Authority for a person or organization to act on behalf of the individual accorded under state law, including but not limited to, a court order establishing legal guardianship, must be treated as a written designation by the individual of authorized representation.
(3) The designation of an authorized representative must be in writing, and must identify what duties the individual is authorizing the representative to perform.
(4) If the designated authorized representative is unwilling or unable to accept the responsibility of being an authorized representative, the authorized representative must inform the administrative agency and the individual of the refusal or withdrawal.
(B) The authorized representative:
(1) Must present proper identification, if requested by the administrative agency, prior to the disclosure of medicaid information to the authorized representative.
(2) Must agree to maintain or be legally bound to maintain the confidentiality of any information regarding the individual provided by the administrative agency.
(3) Will receive copies of notices and correspondence sent to the individual by the administrative agency.
(4) Stands in the place of the individual. Any responsibility of the individual is a responsibility of the authorized representative. Any action taken by the authorized representative or failure to act will be accepted as the action or lack of action of the individual.
(5) Shares all responsibilities set out in rule 5160:1-2-08 of the Administrative Code.
(C) The administrative agency may contact the individual to clarify or verify information provided by an authorized representative if the authorized representative provides information that seems contradictory, unclear, or unrealistic.
(D) The administrative agency may choose not to contact the authorized representative if the administrative agency believes that the authorized representative might endanger the individual in a situation of domestic violence, abuse, or neglect in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.502(g)(5) (as in effect October 1, 2015).
(E) If the authorized representative is a provider or staff member or volunteer of an organization, the authorized representative must affirm that he or she will adhere to the regulations in 42 C.F.R. Part 431 Subpart F (as in effect October 1, 2015), 42 C.F.R. 447.10 (as in effect October 1, 2015), 45 C.F.R. 155.260(f) (as in effect October 1, 2015), as well as other relevant state and federal laws concerning conflicts of interest and confidentiality of information.
(F) The power to act as authorized representative is valid until the individual notifies the administrative agency that the authorized representative is no longer authorized to act on his or her behalf, or the authorized representative informs the administrative agency the he or she no longer is acting in such capacity, or there is a change in the legal authority upon which the authorized representative's authority was based. Such notice should include the applicant or authorized representative's signature as appropriate.
(G) Assistance from persons or organizations who are not authorized representatives.
(1) A person or organization may accompany and assist an individual with portions of the application, verification, or redetermination process without being an individual's authorized representative.
(2) The administrative agency must not reveal confidential information or send notices or correspondence to a person or organization who is assisting an individual, unless the person or organization is designated as an authorized representative.
(3) A person or organization who is assisting an individual must provide accurate information to the administrative agency, to the best of his or her knowledge, regardless of whether the person or organization is an authorized representative.
History
- Effective: January 13, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-1-01
(A) This rule contains definitions generally used in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(B) Definitions.
(1) "Abuse" means any action by an individual or entity that results in unnecessary costs to the medical assistance program in accordance with 42 C.F.R 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(2) "Administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and/or an agent of ODM authorized to determine eligibility for a medical assistance program.
(3) "Advance notice of adverse action" means a written notice of the administrative agency's intent to discontinue or suspend medical assistance, reduce the level of benefits or covered services, or increase the amount of an individual's premium or patient liability, sent no less than fifteen calendar days prior to the date of the proposed action in accordance with rules 5101:6-2-04 and 5101:6-2-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Applicant" means an individual who is seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself through an application submission or a transfer from another agency or insurance affordability program in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.4 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(5) "Approve" or "approval" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(6) "Assets" means all income and resources of the individual and of the individual's spouse. This includes any income or resources the individual or the individual's spouse is entitled to, but does not receive, because of an action taken to avoid receipt of the asset by:
(a) The individual or the individual's spouse; or
(b) A person, including a court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place of, or on behalf of, the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(c) Any person, including any court or administrative body, acting at the direction, or upon the request, of the individual or the individual's spouse.
(7) "Assignment" means an individual eligible for medical assistance has transferred his or her right, or the rights of any other individual for whom he or she can legally make an assignment, to collect and retain third-party and/or medical support payments to ODM up to the amount of medical services paid under the medicaid program.
(8) "Authorized representative" means a person, who is at least eighteen years of age, or a legal entity who stands in place of the individual. Actions or failures of an authorized representative will be accepted as the action or failure of the individual. When an individual has designated an authorized representative, all references to the individual's responsibilities include the authorized representative in accordance with rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Base eligibility" means the individual meets all of the eligibility requirements for at least one category of medical assistance described in Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, or 5160:1-5 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Caretaker relative" means a relative of a dependent child by blood, adoption, or marriage with whom the child is living, who assumes primary responsibility for the child's care (as may, but is not required to, be indicated by claiming the child as a tax dependent for federal income tax purposes), and who is one of the following:
(a) The child's father, mother, brother, sister, stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, or stepsister; or
(b) The child's grandfather, grandmother, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece, including such relatives with the prefix great, great-great, grand, or great-grand; or
(c) The child's first cousin or first cousin once removed; or
(d) The spouse of such parent or relative, even after the marriage is terminated by death or divorce.
(11) "Case record" means electronic or paper documents and information used to determine, redetermine, or renew an individual's eligibility for medical assistance.
(12) "Creditable insurance" or "creditable coverage" means health insurance coverage as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-3(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(a) This includes:
(i) A group health plan; or
(ii) Health insurance coverage; or
(iii) Medicare part A, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395c to 1395i-5 (as in effect October 1, 2022) or part B, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395j to 1395w-6 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(iv) Coverage under medicaid, as set forth in Title XIX of the Social Security Act, other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under the pediatric vaccine program set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1396s (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(v) Armed forces health insurance as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization; or
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool; or
(viii) A federal employee health plan offered under 5 U.S.C. 8901 to 8992 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(ix) A public health plan; or
(x) A peace corps volunteer health benefit plan under section 22 U.S.C. 2504 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(b) Creditable insurance does not include:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance; or
(ii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; or
(iii) Workers' compensation or similar insurance; or
(iv) Automobile medical payment insurance; or
(v) Credit insurance which pays off existing debts in the event of death, disability, or unemployment; or
(vi) Coverage for employment onsite medical clinics; or
(vii) Other similar insurance coverage under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits; or
(viii) Limited-scope dental or vision benefits; or
(ix) Benefits for long-term care, nursing facility care, home health care, or community-based care; or
(x) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; or
(xi) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if purchased separately; or
(xii) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1395ss (as in effect October 1, 2022), coverage supplemental to the coverage provided to military or former military personnel under 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022), and similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan; or
(xiii) Coverage through a medical cost-sharing program, including a health care cost-sharing ministry.
(13) "Deduction" means a verifiable amount the individual pays for an expense. Garnishments or liens placed against earned or unearned income of an individual are not considered a deduction, regardless of the reason for the garnishment or lien.
(14) "Deny" or "denial" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is not eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(15) "Dependent child" means a person younger than age eighteen living with a parent or caretaker relative.
(16) "Discontinue" or "discontinuance" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is no longer eligible, or has failed to cooperate with verification of eligibility, for one or more categories of medical assistance currently being received by that individual, resulting in a written notice of the administrative agency's intention to end coverage under that category and providing notice of hearing rights in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.917 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(17) "Disregard" means the amount subtracted from gross, non-excluded income in the medical assistance budget calculation.
(18) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic and treatment" (EPSDT) means screening, vision, dental, and hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d (as in effect October 1, 2022) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services, whether or not such services are covered under the medicaid state plan. Healthchek is Ohio's EPSDT program.
(19) "Earned income" means income in cash or in-kind received as payment for services performed as an employee or as a self-employed individual. Earned income includes but is not limited to wages, salary, or commissions from which state or federal income taxes are paid or withheld.
(20) "Electronic equivalent" means an electronic version of an Ohio department of job family services (ODJFS) or ODM form or application which has not been modified in any way, other than format, prior to completion and submission of that form to the administrative agency. The administrative agency is not required to accept forms that are altered.
(21) "Electronic protected health information" (ePHI) means any protected health information (PHI) that is maintained or transmitted in electronic form, regardless of the format.
(22) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Encumbrance" means a claim, lien, charge, or liability attached to and binding on an identified piece of real or personal property.
(24) "Equity value" means the fair market value of a resource minus any encumbrance.
(25) "Erroneous payment" means a medicaid reimbursement made for an individual who was ineligible at the time services were received, regardless of the presence of fraud or abuse.
(26) "Excluded income" means income that state or federal law prohibits from consideration in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(27) "Fair market value" means, unless otherwise stated, the going price, at the time of the transfer or contract of sale, for which real or personal property can reasonably be expected to sell on the open market in the relevant geographic area. The appraised value of real property is determined by the county auditor and may be used to establish fair market value.
(28) "Family size" means the number of persons counted as members of an individual's medicaid household.
(29) "Federal adoption assistance" (AA) means the Title IV-E subsidy program as defined by the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (Pub. L. No. 96-272).
(30) "Federal benefit rate" (FBR) means the supplemental security income (SSI) current payment standard published annually by the social security administration (SSA).
(31) "Federal foster care maintenance" (FCM) means the Title IV-E program, as described in rule 5101:2-47-01 of the Administrative Code.
(32) "Federal kinship guardianship assistance program" (KGAP) means the Title IV-E program to provide payments to relatives, as defined in section 5101.141 of the Revised Code, who have assumed legal custody or guardianship of eligible children whom they have cared for as foster parents for a minimum of six consecutive months and for whom there is a valid KGAP or KGAP C21 agreement.
(33) "Federal means-tested public benefit" means a benefit in which eligibility for the benefit or the amount of the benefit, or both, is determined on the basis of income or resources of the individual seeking the benefit. Medicaid, cash assistance, and food assistance are federal means-tested public benefits, but certain other benefits listed in 8 U.S.C. 1613(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022) are not considered means-tested.
(34) "Federal poverty level" (FPL) means a measure of income determined annually by the department of health and human services (HHS). The FPL is designed to provide a baseline for determining financial eligibility for federal programs and benefits.
(35) "Good cause" means circumstances that reasonably prevent an individual from cooperating with the administrative agency in the eligibility determination process. Factors relevant to good cause include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, riots or civil unrest, death or serious illness of the individual or a member of his/her immediate family, or the physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations of the individual.
(36) "Gross income" means income prior to any deductions or disregards, with the exception of self-employment gross countable income.
(37) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996" (HIPAA) means a federal law to protect patient privacy, to protect security of electronic medical records, to prescribe methods and formats for exchange of electronic medical information, and to uniformly identify providers.
(38) "Immigrant" means a person who comes to the United States (U.S.) with plans to live in the country permanently. This term includes, but is not limited to, an individual who is a refugee, asylee, parolee, or other entrant regardless of whether he or she is residing in the U.S. legally.
(39) "Income" means cash, in-kind income as defined in paragraph (B)(43) of this rule, or something of value which is received, available, and attributable to an individual. Income includes the receipt of any item which can be applied, either directly or by sale or conversion, to meet the needs of an individual.
(40) "Income and eligibility verification system" (IEVS) means the electronic system that shares income and asset information among the social security administration (SSA), internal revenue service (IRS), state wage information collection agency (SWICA), agencies administering unemployment compensation (UC) benefits, and the administrative agency.
(41) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance.
(42) "Individually identifiable health information" means information that is a subset of health information that includes demographic information collected from an individual and:
(a) Is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and
(b) Relates to the past, present, or future physical condition or mental health condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual and either:
(i) Identifies the individual; or
(ii) There is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
(43) "In-kind income" means any benefit received other than cash such as food, shelter, or something that can be used to get food or shelter.
(44) "Institution for mental diseases" (IMD) means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than sixteen beds which primarily provides diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, including medical attention, nursing care, and related services.
(a) A facility is an IMD, whether or not it is licensed as such, if it is operated primarily for the care and treatment of individuals with mental diseases.
(b) An institution for persons with cognitive impairments or other developmental disabilities is not an IMD.
(45) "Lawfully residing" means a qualified non-citizen immigration status granted to an individual allowing him or her to live and/or work in the United States.
(46) "Legal custodian" means a person who has legal rights to have physical care and control of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(47) "Legal guardian" means any person, association, or corporation appointed by a probate court to exercise care and management of an individual, his or her estate, or both, as defined in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(48) "Limited English proficiency" (LEP) means the inability of any person or group of persons to speak, read, write, or understand the English language at a level that allows them to meaningfully communicate with the administrative agency.
(49) "Liquid resource" means cash or property immediately convertible to cash.
(50) "Lump-sum" means a non-recurring payment received in a single amount, as opposed to smaller payments over time.
(51) "Managed care organization" (MCO) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(52) "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities" (MBIWD) as set forth in rule 5160:1-5-03 of the Administrative Code, is a category of medical assistance that enables workers with disabilities to earn income and have resources, not to exceed the limits established by the state, without the risk of losing health care coverage.
(53) "Medicaid eligibility fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in an unauthorized benefit to himself, herself, or some other person in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022). It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or state law.
(54) "Medicaid household" means a group of individuals, defined in relationship to one specific medical assistance applicant or recipient, who impact the applicant's or recipient's family size, household income, or both.
(55) "Medical assistance" includes all programs administered by the state medicaid administrative agency.
(56) "Medical support" means an order by a court to provide medical coverage.
(57) "Medical verification of pregnancy" means a written statement signed by a licensed medical professional verifying pregnancy and includes the expected date of delivery and, if more than one, the expected number of fetuses.
(58) "Minor child" means a person younger than age eighteen.
(59) "Modified adjusted gross income" (MAGI or MAGI-based income) means the income methodology used for determining medical assistance eligibility for children through age eighteen, parents, caretaker relatives, pregnant women, and adults age nineteen through sixty-four.
(60) "Non-applicant" means a person who is not seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself but is included in an applicant's or recipient's medicaid household to determine eligibility for such applicant or recipient.
(61) "Non-citizen emergency medical assistance" (NCEMA) as established in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code, means time-limited coverage of an emergency medical condition for certain individuals who do not meet the citizenship or satisfactory immigration status requirements.
(62) "Non-cooperation" or "failure to cooperate" means failure by an individual to present required verification, or to explain why it is not possible to present the verification, after being notified the verification was required for eligibility determination.
(63) "Non-excluded income" means income (earned or unearned) that is used in the eligibility determination for medical assistance.
(64) "Outstationing" means the federal requirement as described in 42 C.F.R. 435.904 (as in effect October 1, 2022) that administrative agencies provide opportunities for low-income pregnant women and children to apply for medical assistance at locations other than the local county department of job and family services.
(65) "Parent" means a natural, adoptive, or step-parent.
(66) "Personal property" means any property that is not real property, as defined in paragraph (B)(75) of this rule. Personal property includes, but is not limited to, such things as cash, jewelry, household goods, tools, life insurance policies, automobiles, and promissory notes.
(67) "Postpartum period" means the maximum permitted period of coverage as described in 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(68) "Pre-termination review" (PTR) means a review of eligibility criteria completed prior to each discontinuance of medical assistance, to determine whether an individual is eligible for any other category of medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.916(f)(1) (as in effect October 1, 2022). Home and community-based services (HCBS), as defined in rule 5160:1-6-01.1 of the Administrative Code, the specialized recovery services (SRS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-07 of the Administrative Code, or both will be explored as part of the PTR process when:
(a) The individual or his or her authorized representative has requested HCBS or SRS; or
(b) The individual's case record contains information indicating that he or she may be eligible for or in need of HCBS or SRS. Receipt of SSI, social security disability insurance (SSDI), or any other income type resulting from an individual's disability is not sufficient, by itself, to demonstrate potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS. There must be additional factors in the case record that indicate the individual's potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS.
(69) "Private child placing agency" (PCPA) means any association that is certified to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for foster care or adoption, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(70) "Protected health information" (PHI) means individually identifiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic media, or transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.
(71) "Public children services agency" (PCSA) means an entity that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function for a county, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(72) "Public institution" means an institution, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.1010 (as in effect October 1, 2022), that is the responsibility of a governmental unit or over which a governmental unit exercises administrative control, such as a state or federal prison, local jail, detention facility, or other penal setting. Public institution does not include a medical institution, an intermediate care facility, a publicly operated community residence that serves no more than sixteen residents, or a child care institution.
(73) "Qualified entity" means the source of eligibility determinations for the presumptive eligibility program and is limited to the following:
(a) A county department of job and family services (CDJFS); or
(b) A hospital, the Ohio department of rehabilitation and correction (DRC), or the Ohio department of youth services (DYS); or
(c) A federally qualified health center (FQHC) or an FQHC look-alike that meets the requirements described in Chapter 5160-28 of the Administrative Code; or
(d) A local health department, a special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) clinic, or other entity as designated by the director.
(74) "Recipient" means an individual who has been determined eligible and is currently receiving medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(75) "Real property" means land, including buildings or immovable objects attached permanently to the land.
(76) "Refugee" means a person who flees his or her country due to persecution or a well-founded fear of persecution because of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a social group and is admitted to the United States under Section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1157 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(77) "Redetermination" means acting upon new or changed information received after an individual's eligibility has been determined but prior to the regularly scheduled annual renewal.
(a) The administrative agency shall only redetermine eligibility using the new or changed information. All other factors of eligibility not affected by the new or changed information are presumed unchanged.
(b) The original renewal date is not changed when eligibility has been redetermined, unless the administrative agency has sufficient information regarding all eligibility factors to renew eligibility without requesting additional information from the individual.
(78) "Renew" or "renewal" means a review of eligibility factors to determine whether the individual continues to meet all of the criteria of a medical assistance category. A renewal is performed annually.
(79) "Reporting" means notifying the administrative agency of any changes that may affect an individual's eligibility for medical assistance. Reporting changes and providing verifications is the responsibility of any individual, person, or entity who has a legal or financial responsibility for, or who stands in the place of, an individual, including:
(a) The individual; and
(b) The individual's spouse, including a community spouse; and
(c) The individual's parent, legal custodian, legal guardian, or caretaker relative; and
(d) The individual's authorized representative.
(80) "Residence" means the place the individual considers his or her established or principal home and to which, if absent, he or she intends to return.
(81) "Residential care facility" (RCF) means a home that provides either of the following as described in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code:
(a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; or
(b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(82) "Resources" means cash, funds held within a financial institution, investments, personal property, and real property an individual and/or the individual's spouse has an ownership interest in, has the legal ability to access in order to convert to cash, and is not legally prohibited from using for support and maintenance.
(83) "Safeguarding" means security measures taken to ensure that the information of individuals applying for or receiving medical assistance is protected against unauthorized inspection, disclosure, or use. Safeguarding also refers to the restriction on the use, or disclosure, of individual information including federal tax information (FTI), any protected health information (PHI), or other confidential information used in the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code.
(84) "Self-attestation" or "self-declaration" means a statement of factual information made by an individual.
(85) "Self-Employment gross countable income" means the income from a business minus the expenses directly related to producing the goods or services, and without which the goods or services could not be produced.
(a) When the individual has filed taxes for the previous year, use all tax forms that were filed with the internal revenue service (IRS) to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income.
(b) When the individual has not filed taxes for the previous year, the following may be used to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income:
(i) Business records including receipts for the costs of doing business; or
(ii) Estimate of anticipated income and expenses.
(86) "Spouse" means a person who is legally married to another under Ohio law.
(87) "State adoption assistance" means the state-only adoption subsidy program as described in rule 5101:2-44-03 of the Administrative Code.
(88) "State foster care maintenance" means an entitlement for financial assistance for state-only foster care services as described in Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(89) "Support Services" means non-medical services offered or provided by the administrative agency to assist the individual and may include arranging or providing transportation, making medical appointments, accompanying the individual to medical appointments, and making referrals to community and other social services to be coordinated with the individual's medicaid-contracted managed care organization (MCO), where applicable.
(90) "Suspend" or "suspended" means the temporary discontinuance of eligibility.
(91) "Temporary absence" means that an individual is considered not to have changed residence and intends to return.
(a) An individual is considered to be temporarily absent with no time limit when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The location of the absent individual is known; and
(ii) There is a definite plan for the return of the absent individual to the residence; and
(iii) The absent individual lived in the residence immediately prior to the absence, except for individuals described in paragraph (C)(1)(h) of rule 5160:1-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Child(ren) removed by the PCSA are considered temporarily absent as long as the reunification requirements specified in the reunification plan are met.
(92) "Terminate" or "terminated" has the same meaning as "discontinue" or "discontinuance" as defined in paragraph (B)(16) of this rule.
(93) "Unearned income" means all income that is not earned income as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule.
(94) "United States (U.S.)" and "state(s)" mean all fifty U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, Swain's Island, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(95) "United States citizen or national" means any individual who is:
(a) A citizen or national through birth or collective naturalization as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part I (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(b) A naturalized citizen or national as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part II (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(96) "Verification" means a document, statement, electronic validation, or other type of information provided by an individual or by a third party to confirm statements made by the individual regarding any requirement for eligibility for medical assistance. A verification document or written statement may be an original, photocopy, facsimile (fax), or electronic version of the original, unless otherwise stated.
Last updated June 27, 2025 at 12:22 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-02
(A) Person-centered planning process.
Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) will lead the person-centered planning process where possible. The individual's authorized representative should have a participatory role, as needed, and as defined by the individual, unless Ohio law confers decision-making authority to the legal representative. All references to individuals include the role of the individual's authorized representative. In addition to being led by the individual receiving services and supports, the person-centered planning process will:
(1) Include a team of people chosen by the individual.
(2) Provide necessary information and support to ensure that the individual directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions.
(3) Be timely and occur at times and locations of convenience to the individual.
(4) Reflect cultural considerations of the individual. The process will be conducted by providing information in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited English proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Include strategies for solving conflict or disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants.
(6) Ensure that providers of HCBS for the individual, or those who have an interest in or are employed by a provider of HCBS for the individual will not provide case management, provider oversight, or develop the person-centered services plan.
(7) Offer informed choices to the individual regarding the services and supports he or she receives and from whom.
(8) Include a method for the individual to request updates to the person-centered services plan as needed. The individual may request a person-centered services plan review at any time.
(B) Person-centered services plan.
(1) The person-centered services plan describes the person-centered goals, objectives and interventions selected by the individual and team to support him or her in his or her community of choice. The person-centered services plan addresses the assessed needs of the individual by identifying medically-necessary services, natural supports, medical and professional staff, and community resources. The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify the setting in which the individual resides is chosen by the individual and document the alternative home and community-based settings that were considered by the individual.
(b) Reflect the individual's strengths.
(c) Reflect the individual's preferences.
(d) Reflect clinical and support needs as identified through the assessment process.
(e) Include the individual's identified goals and desired outcomes.
(f) Identify the services and supports (paid and unpaid) that will assist the individual to achieve identified goals, and the providers of those services and supports, including natural supports and those services the individual elects to self-direct. This includes all services and supports provided through private insurance, medicare, medicaid state plan, and waiver services.
(g) Address any risk factors and measures in place to minimize them, when needed.
(h) Include back-up plans that meet the needs of the individual.
(i) Reflect that the setting chosen by the individual is integrated in, and supports the full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as people not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(2) The person-centered services plan will document that any modification of the additional conditions for provider-owned or controlled residential settings set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code is supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the person-centered services plan. In these cases, the person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify a specific and individualized assessed need;
(b) Document the positive interventions and supports used prior to any modifications to the person-centered services plan;
(c) Document less intrusive methods of meeting the need that have been attempted but were unsuccessful;
(d) Include a clear description of the condition that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Include a regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the modification;
(f) Include established time limits for periodic reviews to determine if the modification is still necessary or can be terminated;
(g) Include informed consent of the individual; and
(h) Include an assurance that interventions and supports will not cause any harm to the individual.
(3) The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Be understandable to the individual receiving services and supports, and the people important in supporting him or her. At a minimum, it will be written in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited english proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) Identify the person and/or entity responsible for monitoring the plan.
(c) Be finalized and agreed to, with the informed consent of the individual in writing, and signed by all people and providers responsible for its implementation. Acceptable signatures include, but are not limited to a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. Any accommodations to the individual's or authorized representative's signature will be documented on the plan.
(d) Be distributed to the individual and other people involved in the plan.
(e) Prevent the provision of unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(f) Be reviewed and revised upon reassessment of functional need as required by 42 CFR 441.365(e) (as in effect on October 1, 2023), at least every twelve months, when the individual experiences a significant change, or at the request of the individual.
(C) Documentation standards.
(1) Documentation standards apply to entities delegated to perform assessments and care coordination activities for nursing facility-based waiver programs. Assessments and care coordination activities include in-person visits, telephone conversations, or email exchanges.
(2) Documentation for each assessment and care coordination activity will include the following:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Name and relationship to the individual for all that participate.
(c) Date of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(d) Location of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(e) Type of assessment or care coordination activity.
(f) Detailed description of the assessment or care coordination activity, including the reason for the activity, actions completed, outcome and next steps.
(3) Documentation of all assessments and care coordination activities will be:
(a) Written in a manner that is objective, accurate, and understandable to the individual as described in paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) Completed within three business days of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(c) Accessible to ODM in the system designated by ODM.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:51 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-02 PASSPORT program (state-funded component): individual eligibility requirements.
(A) Presumptive: Only an individual meeting all the following qualifications is eligible for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of presumptive eligibility:
(1) Consultation: The individual participated in a long-term care consultation under Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Financial requirements:
(a) The individual contacted either ODA's designee or ODM's administrative agency to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, but the application is still pending because ODM's administrative agency has not yet made a final determination on the individual's financial eligibility. If ODM's administrative agency already determined the individual was eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the individual would enroll into the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program and no longer be eligible for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. If ODM's administrative agency already determined the individual was not financially eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the individual would also not be eligible to participate in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(b) The individual agreed that, if the individual enrolls into the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, then ODM's administrative agency determines the individual is financially eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, that the individual would transfer immediately to the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(c) The individual is cooperating and actively assisting ODM's administrative agency in determining if the individual is financially eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program by timely providing ODM's administrative agency with information and copies of any records ODM's administrative agency needs to make its financial eligibility determination.
(d) ODA or its designee determined that ODM's administrative agency would determine that the individual most likely meets all financial eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program listed in rules 5160:1-2-03 and 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Non-financial requirements:
(a) ODA or its designee and the individual entered into an enrollment agreement, and the agreement indicated that the individual chose to enroll in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, named the individual's representative (if any), and authorized ODA or its designee to release information.
(b) ODA or its designee determined the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program in rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Post-eligibility treatment of income (i.e., patient liability or share of cost): ODA or its designee assessed the individual's income and resources using the methodology described in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code to determine if the individual should pay any share of cost and the individual agreed to pay, and pays, any share of cost as it becomes due.
(B) Grandparented: Only an individual who meets all the following qualifications is eligible for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of a grandparented status:
(1) The individual has been enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program since September 1, 1991. (For the individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on this basis, the program was formerly known as the "PASSPORT state home care program" and the "PASSPORT grandparented home care program.")
(2) Before the individual's initial enrollment in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, and at least once every twelve months of enrollment thereafter, the individual has applied for and was denied eligibility for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, has fully complied with the application and enrollment procedures for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, and was determined ineligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. ODA or its designee shall disenroll any individual from the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program who is found eligible for enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. An individual's failure or refusal to cooperate in providing either ODA or its designee or an ODM administrative agency with the information and records necessary to establish the individual's eligibility for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program constitutes a failure to meet this eligibility requirement.
(3) ODA or its designee and a physician have determined the individual needs an intermediate level of care or a skilled level of care, as both are defined in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) The individual is financially eligible for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program based on a documented inability of the individual to pay for nursing facility care without assistance from the medicaid program. ODA or its designee only considers the individual's income and assets when determining the individual's financial eligibility for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. Countable income and assets are determined pursuant to rules 5160:1-2-03 and 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code and the medicaid eligibility manual. ODA or its designee calculates the inability to pay for nursing facility care in accordance with one of the following:
(a) If the most recent period of continuous enrollment in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program for the individual began before April 1, 1988, the individual shall present ODA or its designee with records to verify the individual lacks eleven thousand, seven hundred, and nine dollars in income and assets available within a ninety-day period to pay for nursing facility care without assistance from the medicaid program.
(b) If the most recent period of continuous enrollment in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program for the individual began on or after April 1, 1988, the individual shall present ODA or its designee with records to verify the individual lacks five thousand, eight hundred, fifty-four dollars, and fifty cents in income and assets available within a forty-five day period to pay for nursing facility care without assistance from the medicaid program.
(5) ODA or its designee has approved a person-centered services plan for the individual that is signed by the individual's physician.
(6) The individual's approved person-centered services plan indicates the total projected cost of services counted in the service plan cost cap calculation is less than six thousand dollars for a six-month period.
(7) The individual agrees to receive home and community-based services from only ODA-certified providers and agrees to cooperate with ODA or its designee in establishing and re-establishing eligibility for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program or the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, when requested by ODA's designee.
(8) The individual's participation in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, as an alternative to admission to a nursing facility, does not present, in the professional judgment of ODA or its designee, a threat to the individual's health and safety.
(C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program because the individual meets all the requirements under paragraph (A) of this rule is not eligible to participate in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program for more than ninety days, unless ODA's director approved an extended number of days.
(D) ODA's designee may allow an individual to provide verbal agreement for intent to enroll on the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program at the time of assessment if the individual is unable to provide a unique identifier of the individual. ODA's designee may collect a unique identifier of the individual for the agreements required in paragraphs (A)(2)(b), (A)(3)(a), (A)(4), and (B)(7) of this rule no later than thirty days after the individual's original enrollment date.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:46 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-2-03
(A) This rule sets forth the process for determining whether an individual is eligible for medical assistance payments for services under a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver, as described in rules 5123-9-01, 5160-31-03, 5160-33-03, 5160-40-01, 5160-41-17, 5160-42-01, 5160-46-02, 5160-58-02.2, and 5160-59-04 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Eligibility for an HCBS waiver. To receive services under an HCBS waiver, the individual shall:
(1) Be eligible for medical assistance, as described in Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Be in need of HCBS under a waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Be enrolled in an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; and
(4) Not be simultaneously enrolled in another HCBS waiver, the residential state supplement (RSS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code, or the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly (PACE).
(C) Request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) An individual may request an HCBS waiver by:
(a) Indicating the request on an application for medical assistance;
(b) Submitting an ODM 02399 "Request for Medicaid Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver" to the administrative agency;
(c) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to the administrative agency; or
(d) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved long-term services and supports agency.
(2) The effective date of an HCBS waiver request is determined in accordance with rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Processing a request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Submit the request within two business days using the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved submission process; and
(b) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(2) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is not currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Begin the application process for medical assistance, as described in rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code;
(b) Submit the request within two business days using the ODM approved submission process; and
(c) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(E) Determination of eligibility for an HCBS waiver. The administrative agency shall approve an HCBS waiver for an individual eligible for medical assistance only upon:
(1) Approval by the HCBS waiver operational agency; and
(2) Notification that the individual may be enrolled in the waiver from ODM, its designee, or an HCBS waiver operational agency, when services under the waiver are available only to a specific number of individuals.
(F) Coverage period. The HCBS waiver coverage period can have a different beginning date or ending date from the medical assistance eligibility period.
(1) HCBS cannot:
(a) Begin before an individual's medical assistance eligibility period or before an individual's retroactive medical assistance eligibility period.
(b) Extend beyond the discontinuance date of an individual's medical assistance coverage.
(c) Be provided during any period of medical assistance ineligibility.
(2) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS begins on the latest of the following dates:
(a) The date the administrative agency receives a request for an HCBS waiver from an individual;
(b) The date the individual meets all criteria for coverage of an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) The date the individual is authorized by the HCBS waiver operational agency to receive services under an HCBS waiver.
(3) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS ends when either:
(a) The administrative agency determines the individual no longer meets the conditions of eligibility, as described in rule 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code, or the criteria for coverage of HCBS; or
(b) The HCBS waiver operational agency notifies the administrative agency that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive HCBS.
(G) HCBS waiver operational agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine, in accordance with this rule and agencies 5123 and 5160 of the Administrative Code, whether the individual requesting an HCBS waiver meets the requirements of the applicable HCBS waiver program.
(2) Provide written notification to the individual of the HCBS programmatic determination.
(3) Notify the administrative agency of determinations and subsequent changes regarding approval of HCBS.
(H) Administrative agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine an individual's eligibility for an HCBS waiver in accordance with this rule. When the administrative agency determines that an individual who requests an HCBS waiver is not eligible for any category of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall deny both the medical assistance application and HCBS waiver request for that individual.
(2) Notify the applicable HCBS waiver operational agency of changes in the individual's eligibility for medical assistance coverage of services under an HCBS waiver.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 9:07 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-2-10
(A) This rule describes eligibility criteria that apply to all medical assistance programs, how eligibility criteria will be verified by the administrative agency, and when an individual will be asked to provide manual verification. Eligibility conditions that are specific to a certain eligibility group are addressed in the eligibility rule for that group.
(B) To be determined eligible for medical assistance, an individual shall:
(1) Provide a social security number (SSN) in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.910 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(a) The individual's self-declaration of SSN meets this condition unless contradictory information is provided to or maintained by the administrative agency.
(b) An individual is not required to provide an SSN when the individual:
(i) Is applying for or receiving non-citizen emergency medical assistance (NCEMA), as described in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) Refuses to obtain an SSN because of well-established religious objections. Well-established religious objections exist when the individual:
(a) Is a member of a recognized religious sect or division of the sect; and
(b) Adheres to the tenets or teachings of the sect or division of the sect and for that reason is conscientiously opposed to applying for or using a national identification number.
(c) If the individual has not been issued or cannot recall his or her SSN, the administrative agency shall assist the individual with obtaining or applying for the individual's SSN.
(2) Be a resident, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.403 (as in effect October 1, 2024), of the state of Ohio on the date of application or requested coverage begin date.
(a) The individual's self-declaration of residency meets this condition unless contradictory information is provided to or maintained by the administrative agency.
(b) An individual remains a resident despite a temporary absence from the state when the individual intends to return when the purpose of the absence has been accomplished, unless another state has determined the individual is a resident there for purposes of medicaid eligibility.
(c) The individual shall not be eligible for and receiving medical assistance in another state or U.S. territory. An individual who has recently become an Ohio resident is not ineligible for medical assistance merely due to processing delays in terminating medical assistance in the prior state of residence.
(i) When there are delays in discontinuing medical assistance in the prior state of residence and the individual is unable to provide all needed verifications, the administrative agency shall explore presumptive coverage, as described in rule 5160:1-2-13 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) When all verifications have been provided, the administrative agency shall explore eligibility for medical assistance in accordance with Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, 5160:1-5, or 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, as applicable.
(3) Be a U.S. citizen or qualified non-citizen.
(a) An individual is not required to declare or verify citizenship or non-citizen status when the individual is applying for benefits only on behalf of another person.
(b) An individual's declaration of U.S. citizenship shall be verified as described in rule 5160:1-2-11 of the Administrative Code.
(c) An individual's declaration of qualified non-citizen status shall be verified as described in rule 5160:1-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
(d) Verification of non-citizen status is not required when the individual is applying for NCEMA, as described in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code.
(4) In accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.610 (as in effect October 1, 2024) and section 5160.38 of the Revised Code, the state of Ohio shall automatically be assigned any rights to medical support and payments for medical care from any third party for:
(a) The individual; and
(b) Any medicaid-eligible individual for whom the individual is legally able to make an assignment.
(5) Cooperate with the child support enforcement agency (CSEA) in establishing the paternity of any medicaid-eligible child and in obtaining medical support and payments as described in paragraph (B)(4) of this rule, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 433.147 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(a) As part of cooperation, the individual may be required to:
(i) Appear at a state or local office to provide information or evidence relevant to the case; and
(ii) Appear as a witness at a court or other proceeding; and
(iii) Provide information, or attest to lack of information, under penalty of perjury; and
(iv) Take any reasonable steps to assist with establishing paternity and securing medical support or payments.
(b) Cooperation is required unless the individual:
(i) Is not receiving medical assistance for himself or herself;
(ii) Is a pregnant woman, including a woman who is in her postpartum period;
(iii) Has been approved for a good cause waiver as determined by the local CSEA; or
(iv) Is receiving transitional medical assistance.
(6) Cooperate with the administrative agency in identifying and providing information to assist the state with pursuing any third party who may be liable to pay for care and services. To meet this condition, the individual shall provide the name of the insurance company, billing address, subscriber identification number, group number, name of policy holder, and a list of covered individuals. In addition, the individual shall cooperate with requests:
(a) From a third-party insurance company to provide additional information that is required to authorize coverage or obtain benefits through the third-party insurance company.
(b) From a medicaid provider, managed care plan, or a managed care plan's contracted provider to provide additional information that is required for the provider or plan to obtain payments from a third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services.
(c) From a third-party insurance company, medicaid provider, managed care plan, or a managed care plan's contracted provider to forward or return to the third-party insurance company, medicaid provider, managed care plan, or managed care plan's contracted provider any payments received from the third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services when:
(i) The provider has billed the third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services provided to the individual; and
(ii) The third-party insurance company has sent payment to the individual for medicaid covered services the individual received from the provider.
(7) Meet all eligibility requirements for an eligibility category set out in an approved state plan amendment, Chapter 5160:1-2, 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, 5160:1-5, or 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, including:
(a) Income requirements for the eligibility category.
(i) When an individual's declared income exceeds the relevant federal poverty level (FPL) threshold, the individual's declared income will be accepted without further verification.
(ii) When an individual's declared income is reasonably compatible with data available through electronic data sources, the individual's declared income will be accepted without further verification. Income shall be considered reasonably compatible when:
(a) Both the declared income and the electronic data verification are above, at, or below the applicable income standard for the individual's family size for the eligibility category being determined; or
(b) The difference between the declared income and the electronic data verification is within an amount equal to the reasonable compatibility standard threshold for income specified in the state's MAGI-based eligibility verification plan.
(iii) When the administrative agency is unable to verify income through electronic data sources, acceptable verification documentation includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Information maintained as a regular part of business by a government entity;
(b) A current pay stub;
(c) An award letter from a certifying agency;
(d) IRS form 1099 or other tax documents;
(e) An employer statement including hourly or salary wage, hours worked per pay period, length of pay period, and any tax withholdings; or
(f) The individual's statement, if he or she declares the income verification cannot be accessed or submitted.
(b) Resource and asset requirements for the eligibility category.
(i) When an individual's declared resources are reasonably compatible with data available through electronic data sources, the individual's declared resources will be accepted without further verification. Resources shall be considered reasonably compatible when:
(a) Both the declared resources and the electronic data verification are above, at, or below the applicable resource standard for the eligibility category being determined; or
(b) The difference between the declared resources and the electronic data verification is within an amount equal to five per cent.
(ii) When the administrative agency is unable to verify the value of an individual's resources through electronic data sources, acceptable verification documentation includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Information maintained as a regular part of business by a government entity;
(b) A financial institution statement;
(c) Legal documents; or
(d) The individual's statement, if he or she declares the resource verification cannot be accessed or submitted.
Last updated March 4, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: March 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-03
(A) The "Ohio department of aging (ODA)" is the agency responsible for daily operations for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver. ODA will operate this waiver pursuant to an interagency agreement with the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) in accordance with sections 5162.35 and 173.52 of the Revised Code. ODA will establish processes and procedures to enroll individuals on the waiver that is in accordance with rule 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(B) An individual is eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only if the individual meets all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The needed services are not readily available through another source at the level required to allow the individual to live in the community.
(3) The individual agrees to participate in PASSPORT and not be simultaneously enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the state-funded component of the assisted living program, another medicaid home and community-based program, the residential state supplement (RSS) program, or the program of all inclusive care for the elderly (PACE) while enrolled in PASSPORT.
(4) The individual's health related needs can be safely met in a home and community-based setting as determined by ODA or its designee.
(5) The individual agrees to participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(6) The individual:
(a) Has a need for and agrees to receive at least one waiver service monthly that is otherwise unavailable through another source (including, but not limited to, private pay, community resources and the medicaid state plan) in an amount sufficient to meet the individual's assessed needs; or
(b) Has a need for:
(i) Continuous nursing services for more than four hours in length,
(ii) At least one waiver service annually, and
(iii) Monthly monitoring of the individual's health and welfare through a combination of telephonic and in-person contacts with the case manager and agrees to cooperate with the monthly monitoring.
(7) The individual resides in a setting that possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code and that is not a hospital, nursing facility (NF), intermediate care facility for individuals with an intellectual disability (ICF-IID), or another licensed or certified facility, any facility covered by section 1616(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1382(e) (January 1, 2025) residential care facility or another group living arrangement subject to state licensure or certification.
(8) The individual is age sixty years or older at the time of enrollment.
(9) The individual is determined to meet the criteria for an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code and, in the absence of PASSPORT, requires NF services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.40 (as in effect on October 1, 2024).
(C) To be enrolled and maintain enrollment in PASSPORT, the individual will meet all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for PASSPORT in accordance with paragraph (B) of this rule.
(2) The services in the person-centered services plan are approved by one of the medical practitioners in paragraphs (C)(2)(a) to (C)(2)(c) of this rule, acting within their scope of practice. Approval may be verbal or written and is to be obtained prior to initial enrollment. Written approval may be satisfied via electronic signature.
(a) A licensed physician;
(b) A licensed certified nurse practitioner;
(c) A licensed physician assistant.
(3) The individual cost limit does not exceed fourteen thousand and seven hundred dollars per month for waiver services.
(a) At the time of enrollment, the initial cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan does not exceed the cost limit.
(b) The ongoing cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan may not exceed the cost limit unless otherwise approved by ODA.
(4) There is an available PASSPORT slot that does not exceed the CMS-authorized limit for individuals enrolled for the waiver program year.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet the criteria in paragraph (B) or paragraph (C) of this rule, the individual will be denied enrollment or disenrolled from PASSPORT. In such instances, the individual is notified of their hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:44 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-6-07.1
(A) This rule describes the process for calculating an individual's post-eligibility treatment of income (PETI), commonly referred to as patient liability or share of cost, when the individual is not living in a medical institution. This rule only applies to an individual who is both eligible for medical assistance under the special income level (SIL) as described in rule 5160:1-6-03.1 of the Administrative Code and who is receiving HCBS waiver or PACE services.
(B) The administrative agency will reduce its payment to the HCBS waiver or PACE providers for services provided to the individual by the amount of the individual's patient liability calculated in accordance with this rule.
(C) The individual must pay the patient liability amount to his or her providers identified by the HCBS waiver or PACE administrative agency.
(D) Providers are to collect the full patient liability amount or up to the cost of care, whichever is less.
(E) Patient liability must be recalculated when there is a change in circumstances that affects the patient liability amount.
(F) Patient liability can be established for retroactive eligibility as described in paragraph (L) of rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code and will follow the same process as described in paragraph (K) of this rule.
(G) Once eligibility has been established, patient liability cannot be increased for past months.
(H) A patient liability calculated for a child younger than age nineteen shall not increase during the child's continuous eligibility period as described in rule 5160:1-2-14 of the Administrative Code. Any decrease in a child's patient liability results in a new maximum amount, which will not increase for the remainder of the child's continuous eligibility period.
(I) Providers are required to refund to the individual any overpayments of patient liability paid by the individual, such as when retroactive patient liability adjustments are made.
(J) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Assisted living waiver maintenance needs allowance (ALMNA)" is an amount equal to the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit rate (FBR).
(2) "Special individual maintenance needs allowance (SIMNA)" is sixty-five per cent of the special income level.
(K) For purposes of this rule, patient liability is calculated in the following order:
(1) Total the individual's gross monthly earned and unearned income, including SSI payments. In the case of an institutionalized spouse, include any income attributed to the institutionalized spouse in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Exclude the following payments from the individual's gross monthly income:
(a) Payments to victims of Nazi persecution.
(b) Austrian social insurance payments based, in whole or in part, on wage credits received under the provisions of the Austrian General Social Insurance Act, paragraphs 500 through 506 (as in effect October 1, 2024). These payments need to be documented and identifiable separate from countable insurance.
(c) Payments from the Dutch government under the Netherlands' Benefit Act for victims of persecution from 1940-1945 (Dutch acronym, WUV) (Pub. L. No. 103-286).
(d) Restitution payments under the Civil Liberties Act of 1988, to U.S. citizens of Japanese ancestry and permanent resident Japanese non-citizens who were interned during World War II, or their survivors, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4215 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(e) Restitution payments under the Aleutian and Pribilof Island Restitution Act, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4236 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(f) Agent Orange settlement fund payments received on or after January 1, 1989, as a result of the Agent Orange Compensation Exclusion Act (Pub. L. No. 101-201).
(g) Department of defense payments to certain persons captured and interned in North Vietnam, in accordance with the Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-78).
(h) Radiation exposure compensation trust fund payments, in accordance with the Radiation Exposure Compensation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 101-426).
(i) Veterans affairs payments made to or on behalf of:
(i) Certain Vietnam veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(ii) Certain Korea service veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(iii) The natural children, regardless of age or marital status, with certain birth defects born to a woman who served in Vietnam.
(j) Veterans administration pensions, including payments for aid and attendance, up to the amount of ninety dollars per month, paid to veterans or their surviving spouse, if any, who are residing in a nursing facility or are receiving HCBS waiver services. This exclusion applies to:
(i) A veteran without a spouse or dependent minor or disabled child; and
(ii) A veteran's surviving spouse without a dependent minor or disabled child.
(k) Payments made to Native Americans as listed in section IV of 20 C.F.R. 416 Subpart K Appendix (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(l) SSI benefits received under authority of sections 1611(e)(1)(E) and (G) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024) for institutionalized individuals during the first three full months of institutionalization. The administrative agency must not retroactively redetermine patient liability determinations, made under the continued benefit provision, if the individual's actual stay exceeds the expected stay of ninety days or less.
(m) Residential state supplement (RSS) payments to institutionalized individuals, in accordance with rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code.
(n) Payments from a state fund for victims of crime.
(o) Payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class action settlement in the case of "Factor VIII or IX concentrate blood products litigation," MDL986, no. 93-C-7452 (N.D. Ill), per section 4735 of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Pub. L. No. 105-33).
(p) Payments from the Ricky Ray Hemophilia Fund Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-369) or payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class settlement in the case of Susan Walker v. Bayer Corporation, 96-C-5024 (N.D. III).
(q) Payments made to individuals under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000 (Pub. L. No. 106-398).
(r) Assistance (other than wages or salaries) under the Older Americans Act of 1965 under 92 Stat. 1515, 42 U.S.C. 3020a Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(s) Student financial assistance received under the Higher Education Act (HEA) of 1965 (as in effect October 1, 2024) or bureau of Indian affairs is excluded from income, regardless of use:
(i) Pell grants;
(ii) Student services incentives;
(iii) Academic achievement incentive scholarships;
(iv) Federal supplemental education opportunity grants;
(v) Federal educational loans (Stafford loans, William D. Ford federal direct and direct PLUS loans, etc.);
(vi) Upward bound;
(vii) Gear up (gaining early awareness and readiness for undergraduate programs);
(viii) State educational assistance programs funded by the leveraging educational assistance programs; and
(ix) Work-study programs.
(t) Matching funds that are deposited into individual development accounts (IDAs), either demonstration project or TANF-funded, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 604 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(u) Accounts under the Stephen Beck, Jr., Achieving a Better Life Experience (ABLE) Act of 2014 (Pub. L. No. 113-295). The following are not considered income to the account holder:
(i) Contributions to an ABLE account by another individual or third party.
(ii) Interest earned on an ABLE account.
(iii) Distributions from an ABLE account.
(v) Federal and state foster care payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E for a child currently living in the household.
(w) Federal or state adoption assistance payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E.
(x) Payments received under the kinship guardianship assistance program (KGAP), state KGAP, or kinship guardianship assistance program connections to twenty-one (KGAP C21).
(y) Child care assistance under the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 113-186).
(z) Assistance or services received through the domestic volunteer service under 42 U.S.C. 66 per 42 U.S.C. 5044(f) (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(aa) Payments made for supporting services or reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses to volunteers participating in corporation for national and community service (CNCS, formerly ACTION) programs in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 1382a (as in effect October 1, 2024):
(i) AmeriCorps VISTA program;
(ii) Special and demonstration volunteer program;
(iii) Retired senior volunteer program (RSVP);
(iv) Foster grandparents program; and
(v) Senior companion program.
(bb) Assistance or services received through federal food and nutrition programs:
(i) Supplemental nutrition assistance program (SNAP);
(ii) The value of foods donated by the U.S. department of agriculture commodity supplemental food program;
(iii) The value of supplemental food assistance received under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (Pub. L. No. 89-642) and the special food service program for children under the National School Lunch Act (Pub. L. No. 90-302);
(iv) The special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC); and
(v) Nutrition program benefits provided for the elderly under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(cc) Assistance received under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (Pub. L. No. 100-707) and assistance provided under any federal statute because of a presidentially-declared disaster.
(dd) Assistance, with respect to the dwelling unit occupied by such individual (or such individual and spouse), under the United States Housing Act of 1937 (Pub. L. No. 75-412), the National Housing Act (Pub. L. No. 73-479), section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-117), title V of the Housing Act of 1949 (Pub. L. No. 81-171), or section 202(h) of the Housing Act of 1959 (Pub. L. No. 86-372).
(ee) Home energy assistance provided on the basis of need, in accordance with 20 C.F.R. 416.1157 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(ff) Relocation assistance provided under title II of the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisitions Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L. No. 91-646) provided to individuals displaced by or through any federal, federally-assisted, state, state-assisted, local, or locally-assisted government project in the acquisition of real property.
(gg) The first two thousand dollars per calendar year received as compensation for participation in clinical trials that meet the criteria detailed in section 1612(b) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(3) Subtract the applicable personal needs allowance (PNA) as follows:
(a) For individuals receiving services under an HCBS waiver, other than the assisted living waiver, the PNA is the SIMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(b) For individuals receiving services under the assisted living waiver or in an assisted living facility receiving services under the mycare waiver, the PNA is the ALMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(c) For individuals receiving PACE services and residing in the community, the PNA is the SIMNA. Individuals receiving PACE services and residing in an assisted living facility are considered to be residing in the community.
(4) When the individual has a community spouse, subtract the monthly income allowance (MIA) for the community spouse.
(a) The MIA of the community spouse is calculated as follows:
(i) Determine the excess shelter allowance (ESA):
(a) Total and round down to the nearest dollar the community spouse's expenses for the principal place of residence, as defined in rule 5160:1-3-05.13 of the Administrative Code, including any rent or mortgage payment (including principal and interest), current property taxes, insurance, and any required maintenance charge for a condominium or cooperative; then
(b) When the community spouse is responsible for payment towards the cost of gas, electric, coal, wood, oil, water, sewage, or telephone service for the residence, add in the standard utility allowance; then
(c) Subtract the ESA standard.
(d) The remainder is the ESA.
(ii) Add the calculated ESA to the minimum monthly maintenance needs allowance (MMMNA) standard to determine the MMMNA. Except in accordance with a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, the MMMNA must not exceed the MMMNA cap which is updated annually.
(iii) Subtract the community spouse's gross monthly income from the lesser of the MMMNA, calculated in paragraph (K)(4)(a)(ii) of this rule, or the MMMNA cap. When a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code results in a MMMNA that is greater than the MMMNA cap, use the amount established in the hearing decision. The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the MIA.
(b) When there is court ordered support that is greater than the MIA calculated above, the court ordered amount is used as the MIA.
(c) When the community spouse's income is still below the MMMNA after all of the institutionalized spouse's income is allocated to the community spouse, the community spouse resource allowance can be increased in accordance with rules 5160:1-6-04 and 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, to generate additional income for the community spouse.
(5) When the individual has dependent family members, subtract either the family allowance (FA) or the family maintenance needs allowance (FMNA). The FA does not apply when there is an FMNA.
(a) Subtract an FA when the institutionalized individual has family members residing with his or her spouse in the community. The FA is calculated as follows:
(i) For each family member, multiply the MMMNA standard by one-third; then
(ii) Subtract that family member's gross monthly income; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the allowance amount for that family member.
(v) The allowances for each family member are added together to determine the FA.
(b) Subtract an FMNA when the institutionalized individual has dependent family members who resided with the institutionalized individual immediately before the individual was admitted to a medical institution. The FMNA does not apply when there is a spouse in the community. The FMNA is calculated as follows:
(i) The FMNA standard is the Ohio works first (OWF) payment standard for the same number of applicable dependent family members.
(ii) Subtract the combined monthly income of the dependent family members from the FMNA standard; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the FMNA.
(6) The following types of health care costs shall be subtracted from the institutionalized individual's patient liability. Any requests for subtraction of these costs must include documentation that clearly shows the type of medical expense, the amount the individual is responsible for paying, and the date the service or item was provided to the individual.
(a) Health insurance premiums (including medicaid and medicare premiums) and coinsurance, insurance deductibles and copayments, that are incurred by:
(i) The institutionalized individual;
(ii) The institutionalized individual's spouse; or
(iii) The institutionalized individual's minor or disabled child.
(b) The cost of any of the institutionalized individual's incurred expenses for medical care, recognized under Ohio law, but not covered by medicaid and not subject to third-party payment. The medical expenses, and any request to subtract such expenses from the patient liability, must meet the following criteria:
(i) The service was medically necessary as determined by the administrative agency.
(ii) Expenses for medical care were not incurred while serving a restricted medicaid coverage period (RMCP) per rule 5160:1-6-06.5 of the Administrative Code. Expenses that were incurred while serving an RMCP shall not count as unpaid past expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iii) Unpaid patient liability shall not count as unpaid past medical expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iv) The request for the subtraction of incurred expenses for medical care can only be initiated by either the institutionalized individual or person or entity who has the legal ability to act on the individual's behalf, including the institutionalized individual's authorized representative. A request for a deduction cannot be initiated by a medical services provider or supplier, unless such provider or supplier is also the institutionalized individual's authorized representative.
(v) Unpaid medical expenses that were incurred in the past may be subtracted from the patient liability as long as the services meet the criteria described in paragraph (K)(6)(b) of this rule.
(7) Subtract the payment in an amount up to fifteen dollars per month, or the amount approved by the administrative agency, to administer a qualified income trust (QIT) account in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-03.2 of the Administrative Code.
(8) The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the individual's monthly patient liability, for a full month of HCBS or PACE services.
(9) The individual's patient liability will be prorated when the individual is enrolled in an HCBS waiver or PACE program for less than a full month. Prorated patient liability amounts are calculated as follows:
(a) Determine the per diem patient liability amount by dividing the patient liability for a full month of institutionalization by the number of days in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined.
(b) Determine the actual number of days of institutionalization in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined, including the first date of institutionalization in the month. The date of discharge or the date of death is not included in this calculation.
(c) Multiply the actual number of days of institutionalization by the per diem patient liability amount and round this number down to the nearest dollar. This is the individual's prorated patient liability.
(L) The individual will receive written notification of the amount of patient liability for which he or she is responsible. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with the patient liability amount.
(M) When applicable, the individual will receive written notification of the MIA, FA, or FMNA that were calculated in accordance with this rule. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with those amounts.
Last updated December 6, 2025 at 3:03 PM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-05
(A) For purposes of determining an individual's nursing-facility (NF) based level of care, the following definitions apply unless a term is otherwise defined in a specific rule:
(1) "Activity of daily living (ADL)" means a personal or self-care task that enables an individual to meet basic life needs. "ADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Bathing" means the ability of an individual to cleanse one's body by showering, tub, or sponge bath, or any other generally accepted method.
(b) "Dressing" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to dress oneself and includes the following two components:
(i) Putting on and taking off an item of clothing or prosthesis; and
(ii) Fastening and unfastening an item of clothing or prosthesis.
(c) "Eating" means the ability of an individual to feed oneself. Eating includes the processes of getting food into one's mouth, chewing, and swallowing, or the ability to use and self-manage a feeding tube.
(d) "Grooming" means the ability of an individual to care for one's appearance and includes the following three components:
(i) Oral hygiene;
(ii) Hair care; and
(iii) Nail care.
(e) "Mobility" means the ability of an individual to use fine and gross motor skills to reposition or move oneself from place to place and includes the following three components:
(i) "Bed mobility" means the ability of an individual to move to or from a lying position, turn from side to side, or otherwise position the body while in bed or alternative sleep furniture;
(ii) "Locomotion" means the ability of an individual to move between locations by ambulation or by other means; and
(iii) "Transfer" means the ability of an individual to move between surfaces, including but not limited to, to and from a bed, chair, wheelchair, or standing position.
(f) "Toileting" means the ability of an individual to complete the activities necessary to eliminate and dispose of bodily waste and includes the following four components:
(i) Using a commode, bedpan, or urinal;
(ii) Changing incontinence supplies or feminine hygiene products;
(iii) Cleansing self; and
(iv) Managing an ostomy or catheter.
(2) "Adverse level of care determination" means a determination that an individual does not meet the criteria for a specific level of care.
(3) "Alternative form" means a form that is used in place of and contains all of the data elements of, the ODM 03697, "Level of Care Assessment" to request a level of care determination from the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee.
(4) "Assistance" means the hands-on provision of help in the initiation or completion of a task.
(5) "Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(6) "Current diagnoses" means a written medical determination by the individual's attending physician, whose scope of practice includes diagnosis, listing those diagnosed conditions that currently impact the individual's health and functional abilities.
(7) "Delayed in-person visit" means an in-person visit that occurs within a specified period of time after a desk review has been conducted that includes the elements of a long-term care consultation, in accordance with Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code, for the purposes of exploring home and community-based services (HCBS) options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate.
(8) "Desk review" means a level of care determination process that is not conducted in person.
(9) "Developmental disabilities level of care" means the level of care as described in rule 5123-8-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "ICF-IID" means an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.
(11) "Immediate need" means an individual has a need that may result in substantial harm or decline in functioning if waiver services and supports are not received within thirty calendar days.
(12) "In-person" means a level of care assessment and determination process conducted in the physical presence of the individual for the purposes of exploring nursing facility services or HCBS options and making referrals to the individual as appropriate, that is not conducted by a desk review only.
(13) "Individual" means a medicaid recipient or person applying for medicaid eligibility.
(14) "Instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)" means the ability of an individual to complete community living skills. "IADL" includes the following defined activities:
(a) "Community access" means the ability of an individual to use available community services and supports to meet one's needs and includes the following three components:
(i) "Accessing transportation" means the ability to get and use transportation.
(ii) "Handling finances" means the ability of an individual to manage one's money. Handling finances includes all of the following:
(a) Knowing where money is;
(b) Knowing how to get money;
(c) Paying bills; and
(d) Knowing how to get and use benefits and services, including but not limited to:
(i) Health benefits and insurance;
(ii) Social benefits; and
(iii) Home utilities.
(iii) "Telephoning" means the ability to make and answer telephone calls or use technology to connect to community services and supports.
(b) "Environmental management" means the ability of an individual to maintain the living arrangement in a manner that ensures the health and safety of the individual and includes the following three components:
(i) "Heavy chores" means the ability to move heavy furniture and appliances for cleaning, turn mattresses, and wash windows and walls; and
(ii) "House cleaning" means the ability to make beds, clean the bathroom, sweep and mop floors, dust, clean and store dishes, pick up clutter, and take out trash;
(iii) "Yard work and maintenance" means the ability to care for the lawn, rake leaves, shovel snow, complete minor home repairs, and paint.
(c) "Meal preparation" means the ability of an individual to prepare or cook food for oneself.
(d) "Personal laundry" means the ability of an individual to wash and dry one's clothing and household items by machine or by hand.
(e) "Shopping" means the ability to obtain or purchase one's necessary items. Necessary items include, but are not limited to, groceries, clothing, and household items. Shopping does not include handling finances or accessing transportation.
(15) "Less than twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the presence of another person, or the presence of a remote monitoring device that does not need the individual to initiate a response, during a portion of a twenty-four hour period of time.
(16) "Level of care determination" means an assessment and evaluation by ODM or its designee of an individual's physical, mental, social, and emotional status, using the processes described in rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code, to compare the criteria for all of the possible levels of care as described in rules 5160-3-06 to 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, and make a decision about whether an individual meets the criteria for a level of care.
(17) "Level of care validation" means the verification process for ODM or its designee that includes verifying the preadmission screening and resident review criteria have been met for an individual as well as reviewing and entering an individual's current level of care in the electronic records that are maintained by ODM.
(18) "Long-term services and supports" means institutional or community-based medical, health, psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care services that may be provided to medicaid-eligible individuals.
(19) "Medication administration" means the ability of an individual to prepare and self-administer all forms of over-the-counter (OTC) and prescription medication. Intravenous medication administration will be considered a skilled nursing service for the purposes of determining NF-based level of care, OTC and all other self-administered prescription medication will not be considered a skilled nursing service.
(20) "Need" means the inability of an individual to complete a necessary and applicable task independently, safely, and consistently. An individual does not have a need when:
(a) The individual is not willing to complete a task or does not have the choice to complete a task.
(b) The task can be completed with the use of available assistive devices and accommodations.
(21) "Nursing facility (NF)" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code. A facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of health is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification and will be treated as a NF for the purposes of this rule.
(22) "NF-based level of care" means the intermediate and skilled levels of care, as described in rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.
(23) "NF-based level of care program" means a NF, a home and community-based services medicaid waiver that uses a NF-based level of care, or other medicaid program that uses a NF-based level of care.
(24) "PASRR" means the preadmission screening and resident review requirements mandated by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act and implemented in accordance with rules 5160-3-14, 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03, and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(25) "Physician" means a person licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or licensed in another state as defined by applicable law, to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.
(26) "Skilled nursing services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, provided by a licensed practical nurse (LPN) at the direction of a registered nurse or by a registered nurse directly.
(27) "Skilled rehabilitation services" means specific tasks that are, in accordance with Title 47 of the Revised Code, provided directly by a licensed or other appropriately certified technical or professional health care personnel.
(28) "Supervision" means either of the following:
(a) Reminding an individual to perform or complete an activity; or
(b) Observing while an individual performs an activity to ensure the individual's health and safety.
(29) "Twenty-four hour support" means that an individual needs the continuous presence of another person throughout the course of the entire day and night during a twenty-four hour period of time.
(30) "Unstable medical condition" means clinical signs and symptoms are present in an individual and a physician has determined that:
(a) The individual's signs and symptoms need extensive monitoring and ongoing evaluation of the individual's status and care and there are supporting diagnostic or ancillary testing reports that justify the need for frequent monitoring or adjustment of the treatment regimen; and
(b) Changes in the individual's medical condition are uncontrollable or unpredictable and may need immediate interventions.
Last updated July 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-03 PASSPORT program (state-funded component): individual disenrollment and other actions.
(A) Presumptive: For each individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of paragraph (A) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Disenrollment: ODA or its designee shall disenroll any individual who no longer meets all requirements under paragraph (A) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code unless the only requirement the individual no longer meets is the PETI (i.e., patient-liability or share of cost) requirement listed in paragraph (A)(5) of that rule, during a state of emergency declared by the governor, or during a federal public health emergency if federal financial participation pays for all of the individual's services.
(2) Post-disenrollment limitations: After ODA or its designee disenrolls an individual from the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the following limits apply:
(a) The individual is not eligible to re-enroll into the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of presumptive eligibility.
(b) The individual is not eligible to enroll into the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program until ODM's administrative agency determines the individual meets all medicaid financial eligibility requirements and ODA or its designee determines the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The individual is not eligible to enroll into the state-funded component of the assisted living program.
(B) Grandparented: For an individual who is enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of paragraph (B) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code:
(1) Reassessment: ODA or its designee shall do all of the following:
(a) Verify if the individual continues to meet all eligibility requirements under paragraph (B) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code whenever ODA or its designee reassesses the condition and service needs of the individual.
(b) Reassess the individual to assess the individual's condition and service needs at least once every twelve months or at any time the individual's condition or service needs change substantially.
(c) Develop and implement a revised person-centered services plan for the individual at least once every six months so long as the individual continues to meet all the eligibility requirements under paragraph (B) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Disenrollment:
(a) ODA or its designee may propose to disenroll an individual from the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program for any of the following:
(i) The individual does not continue to meet all the eligibility requirements under paragraph (B) of rule 173-40-02 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) The individual's permanent relocation.
(b) When the individual's services are suspended for any reason for sixty calendar days, ODA or its designee shall provide the individual (or the individual's authorized representative, if any) with notice of disenrollment from the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(c) Suspensions which ultimately result in disenrollment have a disenrollment date which is retroactive to the first day of the suspension of services.
(3) Post-disenrollment limitations: After ODA or its designee disenrolls an individual from the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the following limits apply:
(a) The individual is not eligible to re-enroll into the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program on the basis of presumptive eligibility.
(b) The individual is not eligible to enroll into the state-funded component of the assisted living program.
(C) Appeals: An eligible individual may appeal a decision made under this rule pursuant to section 173.523 of the Revised Code. The individual's appeal is timely only if the request for a hearing is received by ODA within thirty days of the date in which ODA mailed the notice of opportunity for hearing.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:46 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-04 PASSPORT program (state-funded component): provider requirements.
The state-funded component of the PASSPORT program may pay a provider for providing a service covered under rule 173-40-05 of the Administrative Code only if the provider is certified to provide the service under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code and section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
Last updated March 1, 2023 at 8:42 AM
History
- Effective: March 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-05
(A) The person-centered services plan for an individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program may authorize any service allowed under rule 5160-31-05 of the Administrative Code for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(B) The state-funded component of the PASSPORT program does not pay a provider for any service not explicitly authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
Last updated March 1, 2023 at 8:42 AM
History
- Effective: March 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-05
(A) The purpose of this rule is to establish the services covered by the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community based services (HCBS) program.
(B) The PASSPORT program benefit package is limited to the following services:
(1) Adult day as set forth in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Alternative meals as set forth in rule 173-39-02.2 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Choices home care attendant as set forth in rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code;
(4) Community integration as set forth in rule 173-39-02.15 of the Administrative Code;
(5) Community transition as set forth in rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code;
(6) Enhanced community living as set forth in rule 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code;
(7) Homemaker as set forth in rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code;
(8) Home care attendant as set forth in rule 173-39-02.24 of the Administrative Code;
(9) Home delivered meals as set forth in rule 173-39-02.14 of the Administrative Code;
(10) Home maintenance and chore as set forth in rule 173-39-02.5 of the Administrative Code;
(11) Home medical equipment and supplies as set forth in rule 173-39-02.7 of the Administrative Code;
(12) Home modification as set forth in rule 173-39-02.9 of the Administrative Code;
(13) Non-medical transportation as set forth in rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code;
(14) Nutrition consultation as set forth in rule 173-39-02.10 of the Administrative Code;
(15) Out-of-home respite as set forth in rule 173-39-02.23 of the Administrative Code;
(16) Personal care as set forth in rule 173-39-02.11 of the Administrative Code;
(17) Personal emergency response system as set forth in rule 173-39-02.6 of the Administrative Code;
(18) Social work or counseling as set forth in rule 173-39-02.12 of the Administrative Code;
(19) Structured family caregiving as set forth in rule 173-39-02.25 of the Administrative Code;
(20) Vehicle modifications as set forth in rule 173-39-02.26 of the Administrative Code; and
(21) Waiver nursing as set forth in rule 173-39-02.22 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Services will be delivered by providers who meet the requirements in Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code in a manner that is consistent with the individual's person-centered services plan as documented in the PASSPORT information management system (PIMS).
(D) In accordance with the federally approved PASSPORT waiver, the services identified in this paragraph are subject to employer and/or budget authority if elected by the individual. Services will be provided in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (B) of this rule:
(1) The following services are subject to employer authority, including the ability to hire, fire, and train employees:
(a) Choices home care attendant; and
(b) Personal care.
(2) The following services are subject to budget authority, including the ability to negotiate reimbursement rates paid to providers furnishing services:
(a) Alternative meals;
(b) Choices home care attendant;
(c) Home medical equipment and supplies;
(d) Home maintenance and chore; and
(e) Home modification.
(E) An individual who elects to direct any of the services provided in paragraph (D) of this rule will be assessed by their case manager to determine the individual's ability to direct their services as set forth in rule 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code.
(1) If an individual demonstrates the ability to direct their services, the case manager may initiate the orientation process to familiarize the individual with the participant direction of services including the role of the financial management service (FMS).
(2) If an individual is unable to demonstrate the ability to direct his or her care and to assume the responsibilities associated with the participant direction authorities in paragraph (D) of this rule, the individual may choose an authorized representative to act on his or her behalf.
(3) If no authorized representative is available, the case manager will assist the individual with obtaining services through Ohio department of aging-certified long-term care agency providers.
(F) If an individual who is seeking to direct his or her services chooses an authorized representative to act on his or her behalf in accordance with paragraph (E)(2) of this rule, the authorized representative will not serve as the individual's provider.
Last updated April 17, 2026 at 8:04 AM
History
- Effective: April 17, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-40-06 PASSPORT program (state-funded component): individuals' choices and responsibilities.
An individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program has the same choices and responsibilities as rule 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code provides to an individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
ODA's designee has the same responsibilities with respect to an individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program as rule 173-42-06 of the Administrative Code provides to ODA's designee with respect to an individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-06
(A) Person-centered planning:
(1) The individual is subject to rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code. To comply with that rule, the individual and ODA's designee have flexibility to meet by telephone, video conference, or in person to develop the individual's person-centered services plan (plan).
(2) ODA's designee shall draft the plan according to the requirements in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Choices and responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual may choose a team of people to join the individual and ODA's designee in the meeting in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule.
(b) The individual shall cooperate with, and show respect to, ODA's designee to facilitate the following:
(i) Assessing the individual and visiting the individual's home to determine the individual's eligibility for the PASSPORT program, enroll the individual into the PASSPORT program, and determine the individual's service needs.
(ii) Recruiting, selecting, and dismissing the individual's providers. 42 C.F.R. 431.51 allows an individual to choose the providers from whom the individual wants to receive services, so long as each provider the individual chooses is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(iii) Developing and maintaining back-up plans that meet the individual's needs.
(c) After the plan is developed, the individual shall do the following:
(i) Understand the services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Use the services ODA's designee authorizes in the approved plan.
(iii) Notify ODA's designee if the individual desires to change the provider from whom the individual receives services.
(iv) Notify ODA's designee of any significant change that may affect the individual's service needs so that ODA's designee may update the plan. Significant changes include the following:
(a) The provider does not provide an authorized service at the time, or for the period of time, authorized by ODA's designee.
(b) The individual moves to another address.
(c) The individual repeatedly refuses to receive services.
(4) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only pays for services authorized in the plan.
(B) General responsibilities for the individual regarding providers:
(1) Treating providers with respect.
(2) Allowing ODA's designee to exchange information with any of the individual's service providers on a need-to-know basis.
(3) Neither requesting, nor offering assistance to, a provider to engage in unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior when providing a service.
(4) Reporting any incident involving the provider to ODA's designee. In turn, ODA's designee is subject to the incident-reporting requirements in rule 5160-44-05 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Notifying ODA's designee if the provider (or if an agency provider, the provider's staff) misses a scheduled service episode.
(6) Notifying the provider if the individual is going to miss a scheduled service episode, unless the provider is already informed of the individual's absence.
(7) Providing the provider (or, if an agency provider, the provider's staff) with the individual's unique identifier to verify that the provider (or the provider's staff) provided a service immediately following the conclusion of each episode.
(8) Verifying when each episode of service begins and ends, and if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires using electronic visit verification (EVV), verifying when each episode of service begins and ends by using the provider's chosen EVV method.
(9) Working with ODA's designee to resolve problems and concerns. If requested by the individual, ODA's designee shall act as a facilitator to resolve conflicts between the individual and the provider.
(C) Qualifications for individuals to direct participant-directed providers:
(1) An individual qualifies to direct a participant-directed provider if ODA's designee determines that all of the following are met:
(a) The provider is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(b) The individual successfully completes any training that ODA or its designee determines is necessary for the individual to direct a participant-directed provider.
(c) ODA's designee determines that the individual is able to direct a provider (i.e., perform the responsibilities of an employer) based upon an assessment by ODA's designee of the individual's strengths and weaknesses related to the individual's ability to direct a provider and understanding of all of the following:
(i) The services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) The service activities the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program covers for each service the individual would receive.
(iii) The methods for hiring and firing a participant-directed provider and selecting and dismissing agency and non-agency providers.
(iv) How to review databases and check criminal records according to Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(v) The methods for developing written or electronic activity plans with providers.
(vi) How to determine the necessary skills for a provider to meet the individual's specific needs and the options for providers to acquire those skills.
(vii) The methods for supervising and monitoring the provider's performance of specific activities, including written or electronic approval of the provider's time sheets.
(viii) How to work with ODA's designee to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if a provider is unable to provide the agreed-upon service.
(ix) How to seek assistance from the state or regional long-term care ombudsman program to resolve a problem or concern with a provider.
(x) The state appeal and fair hearing request procedures.
(xi) How to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, and to do so by using EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(xii) Records-retention requirements.
(2) ODA's designee shall retain records of its assessment and determination under paragraph (C)(1)(c) of this rule.
(D) Choices and responsibilities regarding participant-directed providers: If ODA's designee authorizes a participant-directed provider for the individual in the person-centered services plan, the following additional responsibilities apply:
(1) Responsibilities for ODA's designee:
(a) Providing the individual with the following information in a manner that is most effective for the individual:
(i) A list of the individual's choices and responsibilities listed in this rule.
(ii) The provider's requirements under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Information on the PASSPORT program.
(b) Reviewing the information listed under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule with the individual and offer assistance to help the individual understand the information.
(c) Helping the individual recruit, hire, retain, and fire the individual's participant-directed provider.
(d) Communicating with the individual in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality.
(e) Helping the individual identify the an appropriate method for the individual to verify that the provider provides each episode of service according to the person-centered services plan, retain records on verified services, and provide (or give access to) those records to the participant-directed provider.
(f) Revising the person-centered services plan to remove authorization for a participant-directed provider if both of the following occur:
(i) Either the individual fails to comply with the responsibilities for individuals under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule or the individual's health and safety cannot be assured by a participant-directed provider.
(ii) ODA's designee notifies the individual that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive a service from a participant-directed provider and the individual's right to a hearing on this matter under division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Responsibilities for the individual and ODA's designee to perform together:
(a) For any person the individual has under final consideration to hire as the individual's participant-directed provider, the individual may seek the assistance of ODA's designee to comply with section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The individual and ODA's designee shall work together to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if the provider cannot, or does not, meet the provider's obligation to provide a service to the individual.
(c) The individual shall consult with ODA's designee to determine what, if any, skills the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs, training the provider needs to obtain those skills, deadline to impose on the provider to complete the training, and means for the provider to access the training. The individual may participate in the training.
(d) The individual shall work with the financial management service that ODA's designee provides for individuals who direct participant-directed providers under the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(e) The individual shall work with ODA's designee to ensure that the person-centered services plan reflects the primary method to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, including EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code obligates participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(3) Responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual shall develop an activity plan with the provider, date the plan, and provide the individual's unique identifier to authenticate the plan, in a manner that does not conflict with the person-centered services plan.
(b) The individual shall designate a location in the individual's home in which the provider may safely store a copy of the individual's activity plan in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality. (Having a copy of the activity plan in the individual's home contributes to the provider's ability to adhere to the activity plan.)
(c) No individual may verify blank time sheets or time sheets that the provider (or the provider's staff) completes before providing services.
(E) Authorized representative: If an individual has an authorized representative, the individual's authorized representative may represent the individual for any purpose under this rule.
(F) Definitions for this rule:
"Agency provider," 'non-agency provider," and "participant-directed provider" have the same meanings as in the definition of "provider" in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Financial management service" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Unique identifier" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-42 Medicaid-Funded PASSPORT Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-01 PASSPORT program (medicaid-funded component): introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code. (See Chapter 173-40 of the Administrative Code for rules on the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program.)
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PASSPORT program" means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code.
"Person-centered services plan" means the outline of services that a case manager authorizes a provider to provide to an individual, regardless of the funding source for those services. It includes the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: February 7, 2022
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-33
(A) Designation of an authorized representative.
(1) ) An individual may designate any person or organization to serve as that individual's authorized representative. Any person serving as an authorized representative must be at least eighteen years or older.
(2) Authority for a person or organization to act on behalf of the individual accorded under state law, including but not limited to, a court order establishing legal guardianship, must be treated as a written designation by the individual of authorized representation.
(3) The designation of an authorized representative must be in writing, and must identify what duties the individual is authorizing the representative to perform.
(4) If the designated authorized representative is unwilling or unable to accept the responsibility of being an authorized representative, the authorized representative must inform the administrative agency and the individual of the refusal or withdrawal.
(B) The authorized representative:
(1) Must present proper identification, if requested by the administrative agency, prior to the disclosure of medicaid information to the authorized representative.
(2) Must agree to maintain or be legally bound to maintain the confidentiality of any information regarding the individual provided by the administrative agency.
(3) Will receive copies of notices and correspondence sent to the individual by the administrative agency.
(4) Stands in the place of the individual. Any responsibility of the individual is a responsibility of the authorized representative. Any action taken by the authorized representative or failure to act will be accepted as the action or lack of action of the individual.
(5) Shares all responsibilities set out in rule 5160:1-2-08 of the Administrative Code.
(C) The administrative agency may contact the individual to clarify or verify information provided by an authorized representative if the authorized representative provides information that seems contradictory, unclear, or unrealistic.
(D) The administrative agency may choose not to contact the authorized representative if the administrative agency believes that the authorized representative might endanger the individual in a situation of domestic violence, abuse, or neglect in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.502(g)(5) (as in effect October 1, 2015).
(E) If the authorized representative is a provider or staff member or volunteer of an organization, the authorized representative must affirm that he or she will adhere to the regulations in 42 C.F.R. Part 431 Subpart F (as in effect October 1, 2015), 42 C.F.R. 447.10 (as in effect October 1, 2015), 45 C.F.R. 155.260(f) (as in effect October 1, 2015), as well as other relevant state and federal laws concerning conflicts of interest and confidentiality of information.
(F) The power to act as authorized representative is valid until the individual notifies the administrative agency that the authorized representative is no longer authorized to act on his or her behalf, or the authorized representative informs the administrative agency the he or she no longer is acting in such capacity, or there is a change in the legal authority upon which the authorized representative's authority was based. Such notice should include the applicant or authorized representative's signature as appropriate.
(G) Assistance from persons or organizations who are not authorized representatives.
(1) A person or organization may accompany and assist an individual with portions of the application, verification, or redetermination process without being an individual's authorized representative.
(2) The administrative agency must not reveal confidential information or send notices or correspondence to a person or organization who is assisting an individual, unless the person or organization is designated as an authorized representative.
(3) A person or organization who is assisting an individual must provide accurate information to the administrative agency, to the best of his or her knowledge, regardless of whether the person or organization is an authorized representative.
History
- Effective: January 13, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-1-01
(A) This rule contains definitions generally used in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(B) Definitions.
(1) "Abuse" means any action by an individual or entity that results in unnecessary costs to the medical assistance program in accordance with 42 C.F.R 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(2) "Administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and/or an agent of ODM authorized to determine eligibility for a medical assistance program.
(3) "Advance notice of adverse action" means a written notice of the administrative agency's intent to discontinue or suspend medical assistance, reduce the level of benefits or covered services, or increase the amount of an individual's premium or patient liability, sent no less than fifteen calendar days prior to the date of the proposed action in accordance with rules 5101:6-2-04 and 5101:6-2-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Applicant" means an individual who is seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself through an application submission or a transfer from another agency or insurance affordability program in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.4 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(5) "Approve" or "approval" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(6) "Assets" means all income and resources of the individual and of the individual's spouse. This includes any income or resources the individual or the individual's spouse is entitled to, but does not receive, because of an action taken to avoid receipt of the asset by:
(a) The individual or the individual's spouse; or
(b) A person, including a court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place of, or on behalf of, the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(c) Any person, including any court or administrative body, acting at the direction, or upon the request, of the individual or the individual's spouse.
(7) "Assignment" means an individual eligible for medical assistance has transferred his or her right, or the rights of any other individual for whom he or she can legally make an assignment, to collect and retain third-party and/or medical support payments to ODM up to the amount of medical services paid under the medicaid program.
(8) "Authorized representative" means a person, who is at least eighteen years of age, or a legal entity who stands in place of the individual. Actions or failures of an authorized representative will be accepted as the action or failure of the individual. When an individual has designated an authorized representative, all references to the individual's responsibilities include the authorized representative in accordance with rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Base eligibility" means the individual meets all of the eligibility requirements for at least one category of medical assistance described in Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, or 5160:1-5 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Caretaker relative" means a relative of a dependent child by blood, adoption, or marriage with whom the child is living, who assumes primary responsibility for the child's care (as may, but is not required to, be indicated by claiming the child as a tax dependent for federal income tax purposes), and who is one of the following:
(a) The child's father, mother, brother, sister, stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, or stepsister; or
(b) The child's grandfather, grandmother, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece, including such relatives with the prefix great, great-great, grand, or great-grand; or
(c) The child's first cousin or first cousin once removed; or
(d) The spouse of such parent or relative, even after the marriage is terminated by death or divorce.
(11) "Case record" means electronic or paper documents and information used to determine, redetermine, or renew an individual's eligibility for medical assistance.
(12) "Creditable insurance" or "creditable coverage" means health insurance coverage as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-3(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(a) This includes:
(i) A group health plan; or
(ii) Health insurance coverage; or
(iii) Medicare part A, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395c to 1395i-5 (as in effect October 1, 2022) or part B, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395j to 1395w-6 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(iv) Coverage under medicaid, as set forth in Title XIX of the Social Security Act, other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under the pediatric vaccine program set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1396s (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(v) Armed forces health insurance as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization; or
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool; or
(viii) A federal employee health plan offered under 5 U.S.C. 8901 to 8992 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(ix) A public health plan; or
(x) A peace corps volunteer health benefit plan under section 22 U.S.C. 2504 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(b) Creditable insurance does not include:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance; or
(ii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; or
(iii) Workers' compensation or similar insurance; or
(iv) Automobile medical payment insurance; or
(v) Credit insurance which pays off existing debts in the event of death, disability, or unemployment; or
(vi) Coverage for employment onsite medical clinics; or
(vii) Other similar insurance coverage under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits; or
(viii) Limited-scope dental or vision benefits; or
(ix) Benefits for long-term care, nursing facility care, home health care, or community-based care; or
(x) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; or
(xi) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if purchased separately; or
(xii) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1395ss (as in effect October 1, 2022), coverage supplemental to the coverage provided to military or former military personnel under 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022), and similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan; or
(xiii) Coverage through a medical cost-sharing program, including a health care cost-sharing ministry.
(13) "Deduction" means a verifiable amount the individual pays for an expense. Garnishments or liens placed against earned or unearned income of an individual are not considered a deduction, regardless of the reason for the garnishment or lien.
(14) "Deny" or "denial" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is not eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(15) "Dependent child" means a person younger than age eighteen living with a parent or caretaker relative.
(16) "Discontinue" or "discontinuance" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is no longer eligible, or has failed to cooperate with verification of eligibility, for one or more categories of medical assistance currently being received by that individual, resulting in a written notice of the administrative agency's intention to end coverage under that category and providing notice of hearing rights in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.917 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(17) "Disregard" means the amount subtracted from gross, non-excluded income in the medical assistance budget calculation.
(18) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic and treatment" (EPSDT) means screening, vision, dental, and hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d (as in effect October 1, 2022) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services, whether or not such services are covered under the medicaid state plan. Healthchek is Ohio's EPSDT program.
(19) "Earned income" means income in cash or in-kind received as payment for services performed as an employee or as a self-employed individual. Earned income includes but is not limited to wages, salary, or commissions from which state or federal income taxes are paid or withheld.
(20) "Electronic equivalent" means an electronic version of an Ohio department of job family services (ODJFS) or ODM form or application which has not been modified in any way, other than format, prior to completion and submission of that form to the administrative agency. The administrative agency is not required to accept forms that are altered.
(21) "Electronic protected health information" (ePHI) means any protected health information (PHI) that is maintained or transmitted in electronic form, regardless of the format.
(22) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Encumbrance" means a claim, lien, charge, or liability attached to and binding on an identified piece of real or personal property.
(24) "Equity value" means the fair market value of a resource minus any encumbrance.
(25) "Erroneous payment" means a medicaid reimbursement made for an individual who was ineligible at the time services were received, regardless of the presence of fraud or abuse.
(26) "Excluded income" means income that state or federal law prohibits from consideration in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(27) "Fair market value" means, unless otherwise stated, the going price, at the time of the transfer or contract of sale, for which real or personal property can reasonably be expected to sell on the open market in the relevant geographic area. The appraised value of real property is determined by the county auditor and may be used to establish fair market value.
(28) "Family size" means the number of persons counted as members of an individual's medicaid household.
(29) "Federal adoption assistance" (AA) means the Title IV-E subsidy program as defined by the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (Pub. L. No. 96-272).
(30) "Federal benefit rate" (FBR) means the supplemental security income (SSI) current payment standard published annually by the social security administration (SSA).
(31) "Federal foster care maintenance" (FCM) means the Title IV-E program, as described in rule 5101:2-47-01 of the Administrative Code.
(32) "Federal kinship guardianship assistance program" (KGAP) means the Title IV-E program to provide payments to relatives, as defined in section 5101.141 of the Revised Code, who have assumed legal custody or guardianship of eligible children whom they have cared for as foster parents for a minimum of six consecutive months and for whom there is a valid KGAP or KGAP C21 agreement.
(33) "Federal means-tested public benefit" means a benefit in which eligibility for the benefit or the amount of the benefit, or both, is determined on the basis of income or resources of the individual seeking the benefit. Medicaid, cash assistance, and food assistance are federal means-tested public benefits, but certain other benefits listed in 8 U.S.C. 1613(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022) are not considered means-tested.
(34) "Federal poverty level" (FPL) means a measure of income determined annually by the department of health and human services (HHS). The FPL is designed to provide a baseline for determining financial eligibility for federal programs and benefits.
(35) "Good cause" means circumstances that reasonably prevent an individual from cooperating with the administrative agency in the eligibility determination process. Factors relevant to good cause include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, riots or civil unrest, death or serious illness of the individual or a member of his/her immediate family, or the physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations of the individual.
(36) "Gross income" means income prior to any deductions or disregards, with the exception of self-employment gross countable income.
(37) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996" (HIPAA) means a federal law to protect patient privacy, to protect security of electronic medical records, to prescribe methods and formats for exchange of electronic medical information, and to uniformly identify providers.
(38) "Immigrant" means a person who comes to the United States (U.S.) with plans to live in the country permanently. This term includes, but is not limited to, an individual who is a refugee, asylee, parolee, or other entrant regardless of whether he or she is residing in the U.S. legally.
(39) "Income" means cash, in-kind income as defined in paragraph (B)(43) of this rule, or something of value which is received, available, and attributable to an individual. Income includes the receipt of any item which can be applied, either directly or by sale or conversion, to meet the needs of an individual.
(40) "Income and eligibility verification system" (IEVS) means the electronic system that shares income and asset information among the social security administration (SSA), internal revenue service (IRS), state wage information collection agency (SWICA), agencies administering unemployment compensation (UC) benefits, and the administrative agency.
(41) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance.
(42) "Individually identifiable health information" means information that is a subset of health information that includes demographic information collected from an individual and:
(a) Is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and
(b) Relates to the past, present, or future physical condition or mental health condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual and either:
(i) Identifies the individual; or
(ii) There is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
(43) "In-kind income" means any benefit received other than cash such as food, shelter, or something that can be used to get food or shelter.
(44) "Institution for mental diseases" (IMD) means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than sixteen beds which primarily provides diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, including medical attention, nursing care, and related services.
(a) A facility is an IMD, whether or not it is licensed as such, if it is operated primarily for the care and treatment of individuals with mental diseases.
(b) An institution for persons with cognitive impairments or other developmental disabilities is not an IMD.
(45) "Lawfully residing" means a qualified non-citizen immigration status granted to an individual allowing him or her to live and/or work in the United States.
(46) "Legal custodian" means a person who has legal rights to have physical care and control of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(47) "Legal guardian" means any person, association, or corporation appointed by a probate court to exercise care and management of an individual, his or her estate, or both, as defined in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(48) "Limited English proficiency" (LEP) means the inability of any person or group of persons to speak, read, write, or understand the English language at a level that allows them to meaningfully communicate with the administrative agency.
(49) "Liquid resource" means cash or property immediately convertible to cash.
(50) "Lump-sum" means a non-recurring payment received in a single amount, as opposed to smaller payments over time.
(51) "Managed care organization" (MCO) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(52) "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities" (MBIWD) as set forth in rule 5160:1-5-03 of the Administrative Code, is a category of medical assistance that enables workers with disabilities to earn income and have resources, not to exceed the limits established by the state, without the risk of losing health care coverage.
(53) "Medicaid eligibility fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in an unauthorized benefit to himself, herself, or some other person in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022). It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or state law.
(54) "Medicaid household" means a group of individuals, defined in relationship to one specific medical assistance applicant or recipient, who impact the applicant's or recipient's family size, household income, or both.
(55) "Medical assistance" includes all programs administered by the state medicaid administrative agency.
(56) "Medical support" means an order by a court to provide medical coverage.
(57) "Medical verification of pregnancy" means a written statement signed by a licensed medical professional verifying pregnancy and includes the expected date of delivery and, if more than one, the expected number of fetuses.
(58) "Minor child" means a person younger than age eighteen.
(59) "Modified adjusted gross income" (MAGI or MAGI-based income) means the income methodology used for determining medical assistance eligibility for children through age eighteen, parents, caretaker relatives, pregnant women, and adults age nineteen through sixty-four.
(60) "Non-applicant" means a person who is not seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself but is included in an applicant's or recipient's medicaid household to determine eligibility for such applicant or recipient.
(61) "Non-citizen emergency medical assistance" (NCEMA) as established in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code, means time-limited coverage of an emergency medical condition for certain individuals who do not meet the citizenship or satisfactory immigration status requirements.
(62) "Non-cooperation" or "failure to cooperate" means failure by an individual to present required verification, or to explain why it is not possible to present the verification, after being notified the verification was required for eligibility determination.
(63) "Non-excluded income" means income (earned or unearned) that is used in the eligibility determination for medical assistance.
(64) "Outstationing" means the federal requirement as described in 42 C.F.R. 435.904 (as in effect October 1, 2022) that administrative agencies provide opportunities for low-income pregnant women and children to apply for medical assistance at locations other than the local county department of job and family services.
(65) "Parent" means a natural, adoptive, or step-parent.
(66) "Personal property" means any property that is not real property, as defined in paragraph (B)(75) of this rule. Personal property includes, but is not limited to, such things as cash, jewelry, household goods, tools, life insurance policies, automobiles, and promissory notes.
(67) "Postpartum period" means the maximum permitted period of coverage as described in 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(68) "Pre-termination review" (PTR) means a review of eligibility criteria completed prior to each discontinuance of medical assistance, to determine whether an individual is eligible for any other category of medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.916(f)(1) (as in effect October 1, 2022). Home and community-based services (HCBS), as defined in rule 5160:1-6-01.1 of the Administrative Code, the specialized recovery services (SRS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-07 of the Administrative Code, or both will be explored as part of the PTR process when:
(a) The individual or his or her authorized representative has requested HCBS or SRS; or
(b) The individual's case record contains information indicating that he or she may be eligible for or in need of HCBS or SRS. Receipt of SSI, social security disability insurance (SSDI), or any other income type resulting from an individual's disability is not sufficient, by itself, to demonstrate potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS. There must be additional factors in the case record that indicate the individual's potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS.
(69) "Private child placing agency" (PCPA) means any association that is certified to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for foster care or adoption, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(70) "Protected health information" (PHI) means individually identifiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic media, or transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.
(71) "Public children services agency" (PCSA) means an entity that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function for a county, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(72) "Public institution" means an institution, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.1010 (as in effect October 1, 2022), that is the responsibility of a governmental unit or over which a governmental unit exercises administrative control, such as a state or federal prison, local jail, detention facility, or other penal setting. Public institution does not include a medical institution, an intermediate care facility, a publicly operated community residence that serves no more than sixteen residents, or a child care institution.
(73) "Qualified entity" means the source of eligibility determinations for the presumptive eligibility program and is limited to the following:
(a) A county department of job and family services (CDJFS); or
(b) A hospital, the Ohio department of rehabilitation and correction (DRC), or the Ohio department of youth services (DYS); or
(c) A federally qualified health center (FQHC) or an FQHC look-alike that meets the requirements described in Chapter 5160-28 of the Administrative Code; or
(d) A local health department, a special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) clinic, or other entity as designated by the director.
(74) "Recipient" means an individual who has been determined eligible and is currently receiving medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(75) "Real property" means land, including buildings or immovable objects attached permanently to the land.
(76) "Refugee" means a person who flees his or her country due to persecution or a well-founded fear of persecution because of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a social group and is admitted to the United States under Section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1157 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(77) "Redetermination" means acting upon new or changed information received after an individual's eligibility has been determined but prior to the regularly scheduled annual renewal.
(a) The administrative agency shall only redetermine eligibility using the new or changed information. All other factors of eligibility not affected by the new or changed information are presumed unchanged.
(b) The original renewal date is not changed when eligibility has been redetermined, unless the administrative agency has sufficient information regarding all eligibility factors to renew eligibility without requesting additional information from the individual.
(78) "Renew" or "renewal" means a review of eligibility factors to determine whether the individual continues to meet all of the criteria of a medical assistance category. A renewal is performed annually.
(79) "Reporting" means notifying the administrative agency of any changes that may affect an individual's eligibility for medical assistance. Reporting changes and providing verifications is the responsibility of any individual, person, or entity who has a legal or financial responsibility for, or who stands in the place of, an individual, including:
(a) The individual; and
(b) The individual's spouse, including a community spouse; and
(c) The individual's parent, legal custodian, legal guardian, or caretaker relative; and
(d) The individual's authorized representative.
(80) "Residence" means the place the individual considers his or her established or principal home and to which, if absent, he or she intends to return.
(81) "Residential care facility" (RCF) means a home that provides either of the following as described in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code:
(a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; or
(b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(82) "Resources" means cash, funds held within a financial institution, investments, personal property, and real property an individual and/or the individual's spouse has an ownership interest in, has the legal ability to access in order to convert to cash, and is not legally prohibited from using for support and maintenance.
(83) "Safeguarding" means security measures taken to ensure that the information of individuals applying for or receiving medical assistance is protected against unauthorized inspection, disclosure, or use. Safeguarding also refers to the restriction on the use, or disclosure, of individual information including federal tax information (FTI), any protected health information (PHI), or other confidential information used in the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code.
(84) "Self-attestation" or "self-declaration" means a statement of factual information made by an individual.
(85) "Self-Employment gross countable income" means the income from a business minus the expenses directly related to producing the goods or services, and without which the goods or services could not be produced.
(a) When the individual has filed taxes for the previous year, use all tax forms that were filed with the internal revenue service (IRS) to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income.
(b) When the individual has not filed taxes for the previous year, the following may be used to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income:
(i) Business records including receipts for the costs of doing business; or
(ii) Estimate of anticipated income and expenses.
(86) "Spouse" means a person who is legally married to another under Ohio law.
(87) "State adoption assistance" means the state-only adoption subsidy program as described in rule 5101:2-44-03 of the Administrative Code.
(88) "State foster care maintenance" means an entitlement for financial assistance for state-only foster care services as described in Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(89) "Support Services" means non-medical services offered or provided by the administrative agency to assist the individual and may include arranging or providing transportation, making medical appointments, accompanying the individual to medical appointments, and making referrals to community and other social services to be coordinated with the individual's medicaid-contracted managed care organization (MCO), where applicable.
(90) "Suspend" or "suspended" means the temporary discontinuance of eligibility.
(91) "Temporary absence" means that an individual is considered not to have changed residence and intends to return.
(a) An individual is considered to be temporarily absent with no time limit when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The location of the absent individual is known; and
(ii) There is a definite plan for the return of the absent individual to the residence; and
(iii) The absent individual lived in the residence immediately prior to the absence, except for individuals described in paragraph (C)(1)(h) of rule 5160:1-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Child(ren) removed by the PCSA are considered temporarily absent as long as the reunification requirements specified in the reunification plan are met.
(92) "Terminate" or "terminated" has the same meaning as "discontinue" or "discontinuance" as defined in paragraph (B)(16) of this rule.
(93) "Unearned income" means all income that is not earned income as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule.
(94) "United States (U.S.)" and "state(s)" mean all fifty U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, Swain's Island, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(95) "United States citizen or national" means any individual who is:
(a) A citizen or national through birth or collective naturalization as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part I (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(b) A naturalized citizen or national as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part II (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(96) "Verification" means a document, statement, electronic validation, or other type of information provided by an individual or by a third party to confirm statements made by the individual regarding any requirement for eligibility for medical assistance. A verification document or written statement may be an original, photocopy, facsimile (fax), or electronic version of the original, unless otherwise stated.
Last updated June 27, 2025 at 12:22 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-02
(A) Person-centered planning process.
Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) will lead the person-centered planning process where possible. The individual's authorized representative should have a participatory role, as needed, and as defined by the individual, unless Ohio law confers decision-making authority to the legal representative. All references to individuals include the role of the individual's authorized representative. In addition to being led by the individual receiving services and supports, the person-centered planning process will:
(1) Include a team of people chosen by the individual.
(2) Provide necessary information and support to ensure that the individual directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions.
(3) Be timely and occur at times and locations of convenience to the individual.
(4) Reflect cultural considerations of the individual. The process will be conducted by providing information in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited English proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Include strategies for solving conflict or disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants.
(6) Ensure that providers of HCBS for the individual, or those who have an interest in or are employed by a provider of HCBS for the individual will not provide case management, provider oversight, or develop the person-centered services plan.
(7) Offer informed choices to the individual regarding the services and supports he or she receives and from whom.
(8) Include a method for the individual to request updates to the person-centered services plan as needed. The individual may request a person-centered services plan review at any time.
(B) Person-centered services plan.
(1) The person-centered services plan describes the person-centered goals, objectives and interventions selected by the individual and team to support him or her in his or her community of choice. The person-centered services plan addresses the assessed needs of the individual by identifying medically-necessary services, natural supports, medical and professional staff, and community resources. The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify the setting in which the individual resides is chosen by the individual and document the alternative home and community-based settings that were considered by the individual.
(b) Reflect the individual's strengths.
(c) Reflect the individual's preferences.
(d) Reflect clinical and support needs as identified through the assessment process.
(e) Include the individual's identified goals and desired outcomes.
(f) Identify the services and supports (paid and unpaid) that will assist the individual to achieve identified goals, and the providers of those services and supports, including natural supports and those services the individual elects to self-direct. This includes all services and supports provided through private insurance, medicare, medicaid state plan, and waiver services.
(g) Address any risk factors and measures in place to minimize them, when needed.
(h) Include back-up plans that meet the needs of the individual.
(i) Reflect that the setting chosen by the individual is integrated in, and supports the full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as people not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(2) The person-centered services plan will document that any modification of the additional conditions for provider-owned or controlled residential settings set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code is supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the person-centered services plan. In these cases, the person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify a specific and individualized assessed need;
(b) Document the positive interventions and supports used prior to any modifications to the person-centered services plan;
(c) Document less intrusive methods of meeting the need that have been attempted but were unsuccessful;
(d) Include a clear description of the condition that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Include a regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the modification;
(f) Include established time limits for periodic reviews to determine if the modification is still necessary or can be terminated;
(g) Include informed consent of the individual; and
(h) Include an assurance that interventions and supports will not cause any harm to the individual.
(3) The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Be understandable to the individual receiving services and supports, and the people important in supporting him or her. At a minimum, it will be written in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited english proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) Identify the person and/or entity responsible for monitoring the plan.
(c) Be finalized and agreed to, with the informed consent of the individual in writing, and signed by all people and providers responsible for its implementation. Acceptable signatures include, but are not limited to a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. Any accommodations to the individual's or authorized representative's signature will be documented on the plan.
(d) Be distributed to the individual and other people involved in the plan.
(e) Prevent the provision of unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(f) Be reviewed and revised upon reassessment of functional need as required by 42 CFR 441.365(e) (as in effect on October 1, 2023), at least every twelve months, when the individual experiences a significant change, or at the request of the individual.
(C) Documentation standards.
(1) Documentation standards apply to entities delegated to perform assessments and care coordination activities for nursing facility-based waiver programs. Assessments and care coordination activities include in-person visits, telephone conversations, or email exchanges.
(2) Documentation for each assessment and care coordination activity will include the following:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Name and relationship to the individual for all that participate.
(c) Date of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(d) Location of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(e) Type of assessment or care coordination activity.
(f) Detailed description of the assessment or care coordination activity, including the reason for the activity, actions completed, outcome and next steps.
(3) Documentation of all assessments and care coordination activities will be:
(a) Written in a manner that is objective, accurate, and understandable to the individual as described in paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) Completed within three business days of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(c) Accessible to ODM in the system designated by ODM.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:51 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-02 PASSPORT program (medicaid-funded component): eligibility requirements for individuals.
A person is eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only if the person meets the eligibility requirements under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-03
(A) The "Ohio department of aging (ODA)" is the agency responsible for daily operations for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver. ODA will operate this waiver pursuant to an interagency agreement with the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) in accordance with sections 5162.35 and 173.52 of the Revised Code. ODA will establish processes and procedures to enroll individuals on the waiver that is in accordance with rule 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(B) An individual is eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only if the individual meets all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The needed services are not readily available through another source at the level required to allow the individual to live in the community.
(3) The individual agrees to participate in PASSPORT and not be simultaneously enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the state-funded component of the assisted living program, another medicaid home and community-based program, the residential state supplement (RSS) program, or the program of all inclusive care for the elderly (PACE) while enrolled in PASSPORT.
(4) The individual's health related needs can be safely met in a home and community-based setting as determined by ODA or its designee.
(5) The individual agrees to participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(6) The individual:
(a) Has a need for and agrees to receive at least one waiver service monthly that is otherwise unavailable through another source (including, but not limited to, private pay, community resources and the medicaid state plan) in an amount sufficient to meet the individual's assessed needs; or
(b) Has a need for:
(i) Continuous nursing services for more than four hours in length,
(ii) At least one waiver service annually, and
(iii) Monthly monitoring of the individual's health and welfare through a combination of telephonic and in-person contacts with the case manager and agrees to cooperate with the monthly monitoring.
(7) The individual resides in a setting that possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code and that is not a hospital, nursing facility (NF), intermediate care facility for individuals with an intellectual disability (ICF-IID), or another licensed or certified facility, any facility covered by section 1616(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1382(e) (January 1, 2025) residential care facility or another group living arrangement subject to state licensure or certification.
(8) The individual is age sixty years or older at the time of enrollment.
(9) The individual is determined to meet the criteria for an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code and, in the absence of PASSPORT, requires NF services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.40 (as in effect on October 1, 2024).
(C) To be enrolled and maintain enrollment in PASSPORT, the individual will meet all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for PASSPORT in accordance with paragraph (B) of this rule.
(2) The services in the person-centered services plan are approved by one of the medical practitioners in paragraphs (C)(2)(a) to (C)(2)(c) of this rule, acting within their scope of practice. Approval may be verbal or written and is to be obtained prior to initial enrollment. Written approval may be satisfied via electronic signature.
(a) A licensed physician;
(b) A licensed certified nurse practitioner;
(c) A licensed physician assistant.
(3) The individual cost limit does not exceed fourteen thousand and seven hundred dollars per month for waiver services.
(a) At the time of enrollment, the initial cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan does not exceed the cost limit.
(b) The ongoing cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan may not exceed the cost limit unless otherwise approved by ODA.
(4) There is an available PASSPORT slot that does not exceed the CMS-authorized limit for individuals enrolled for the waiver program year.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet the criteria in paragraph (B) or paragraph (C) of this rule, the individual will be denied enrollment or disenrolled from PASSPORT. In such instances, the individual is notified of their hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:44 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-03 PASSPORT program (medicaid-funded component): enrollment and reassessment of individuals.
(A) Initial contact: An individual may contact either ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The two agencies coordinate processing applications for enrollment as follows:
(1) If the individual makes initial contact with ODM's administrative agency, then ODM's administrative agency shall help the individual apply and process the applications for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. If ODM's administrative agency notifies ODA's designee that the individual meets all financial eligibility requirements, then ODA's designee shall initiate contact with the individual to conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If the individual makes initial contact with ODA's designee, then ODA's designee shall help the individual apply for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program and conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) After the individual applies for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, ODA or its designee shall notify the individual of the existence of the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program in Chapter 173-40 of the Administrative Code and offer the individual an opportunity to apply for enrollment in the state-funded component of the program.
(B) Denial: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code, then the following responsibilities apply:
(1) If ODM's administrative agency determines the individual does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODA's designee and notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all non-financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Enrollment: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual meets all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code, then ODA's designee shall notify the individual that the individual meets all eligibility requirements and enroll the individual according to paragraph (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this rule.
(1) Available slot: ODA's designee shall enroll the individual in the program without placing the individual on the unified waiting list, if all the following conditions exist:
(a) A waiver slot in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program is available.
(b) The individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements for the program.
(c) The individual continues to want to enroll in the program.
(2) No available slot: If a waiver slot is not available in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, ODA's designee may enroll the individual when a waiver slot becomes available by one of the following two means:
(a) Unified waiting list: If an individual meets all the non-financial eligibility requirements, but a slot is not available in the PASSPORT program, ODA's designee shall place the individual on the unified waiting list according to rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code, unless the individual qualifies for the home first component of the PASSPORT program, as addressed in paragraph (C)(2)(b) of this rule.
(b) Home first: If an individual meets all requirements for the home first component of the PASSPORT program in section 173.521 of the Revised Code, ODA's designee shall enroll the individual before enrolling any individual from the unified waiting list.
(D) Reassessment: ODA's designee shall reassess each individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program no less often than one time before each anniversary date of enrollment. After ODA's designee conducts each reassessment, if the individual continues to qualify for the medicaid-funded component of the program, the individual may decide if the individual wishes to remain in the program by signing an ODA-approved enrollment agreement as a condition of continued enrollment. During an emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, ODA's designee may collect the individual's handwritten or electronic signature on the enrollment agreement on a date later than the date the individual agrees to continue in the program, but no later than the next reassessment of the individual.
(E) An authorized representative may represent an individual in the enrollment and reassessment processes.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-44-04
(A) The United States centers for medicare and medicaid services limits the number of slots available for enrollment in the medicaid-funded components of the assisted living and PASSPORT programs which may cause a waiting list. A lack of capacity in PACE may also cause a waiting list. (This rule does not apply to the state-funded components of the assisted living or PASSPORT programs.)
(B) Waiting list:
(1) If ODA's designee determines an individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, but a slot is not available for enrollment in the program, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall place the individual on the unified waiting list established under section 173.55 of the Revised Code according to the latter of the date the individual applied for the program or the date the individual met all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied.
(2) ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall offer enrollment to any individual on the unified waiting list for the assisted living, PACE, or PASSPORT programs who meets all of the eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, in compliance with the enrollment rule for the program, according to the chronological order that ODA's designee placed the individual on the waiting list, unless prohibited by rule 173-38-03, 173-50-03, or 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(a) The following rules present the eligibility requirements:
(i) Assisted living: See rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The following rules present the enrollment process:
(i) Assisted living: See rules 173-38-03 and 5160-33-04 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rules 173-42-03 and 5160-31-04 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If ODA's designee offers enrollment to an individual from the unified waiting list, but the individual declines enrollment, the individual may remain on the unified waiting list and ODA's designee shall offer enrollment to the next individual on the list according to the order this rule establishes.
(4) If a slot is available in the program to which an eligible individual applied, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall not place the individual on the unified waiting list.
(C) Definitions for this rule:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly."
"PASSPORT program" (PASSPORT) means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-06 PASSPORT program (medicaid-funded component): individuals' choices and responsibilities.
(A) Person-centered planning:
(1) The individual is subject to rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code. To comply with that rule, the individual and ODA's designee have flexibility to meet by telephone, video conference, or in person to develop the individual's person-centered services plan (plan).
(2) ODA's designee shall draft the plan according to the requirements in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Choices and responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual may choose a team of people to join the individual and ODA's designee in the meeting in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule.
(b) The individual shall cooperate with, and show respect to, ODA's designee to facilitate the following:
(i) Assessing the individual and visiting the individual's home to determine the individual's eligibility for the PASSPORT program, enroll the individual into the PASSPORT program, and determine the individual's service needs.
(ii) Recruiting, selecting, and dismissing the individual's providers. 42 C.F.R. 431.51 allows an individual to choose the providers from whom the individual wants to receive services, so long as each provider the individual chooses is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(iii) Developing and maintaining back-up plans that meet the individual's needs.
(c) After the plan is developed, the individual shall do the following:
(i) Understand the services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Use the services ODA's designee authorizes in the approved plan.
(iii) Notify ODA's designee if the individual desires to change the provider from whom the individual receives services.
(iv) Notify ODA's designee of any significant change that may affect the individual's service needs so that ODA's designee may update the plan. Significant changes include the following:
(a) The provider does not provide an authorized service at the time, or for the period of time, authorized by ODA's designee.
(b) The individual moves to another address.
(c) The individual repeatedly refuses to receive services.
(4) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only pays for services authorized in the plan.
(B) General responsibilities for the individual regarding providers:
(1) Treating providers with respect.
(2) Allowing ODA's designee to exchange information with any of the individual's service providers on a need-to-know basis.
(3) Neither requesting, nor offering assistance to, a provider to engage in unethical, unprofessional, disrespectful, or illegal behavior when providing a service.
(4) Reporting any incident involving the provider to ODA's designee. In turn, ODA's designee is subject to the incident-reporting requirements in rule 5160-44-05 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Notifying ODA's designee if the provider (or if an agency provider, the provider's staff) misses a scheduled service episode.
(6) Notifying the provider if the individual is going to miss a scheduled service episode, unless the provider is already informed of the individual's absence.
(7) Providing the provider (or, if an agency provider, the provider's staff) with the individual's unique identifier to verify that the provider (or the provider's staff) provided a service immediately following the conclusion of each episode.
(8) Verifying when each episode of service begins and ends, and if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires using electronic visit verification (EVV), verifying when each episode of service begins and ends by using the provider's chosen EVV method.
(9) Working with ODA's designee to resolve problems and concerns. If requested by the individual, ODA's designee shall act as a facilitator to resolve conflicts between the individual and the provider.
(C) Qualifications for individuals to direct participant-directed providers:
(1) An individual qualifies to direct a participant-directed provider if ODA's designee determines that all of the following are met:
(a) The provider is qualified and willing to provide the services the individual needs.
(b) The individual successfully completes any training that ODA or its designee determines is necessary for the individual to direct a participant-directed provider.
(c) ODA's designee determines that the individual is able to direct a provider (i.e., perform the responsibilities of an employer) based upon an assessment by ODA's designee of the individual's strengths and weaknesses related to the individual's ability to direct a provider and understanding of all of the following:
(i) The services authorized in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) The service activities the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program covers for each service the individual would receive.
(iii) The methods for hiring and firing a participant-directed provider and selecting and dismissing agency and non-agency providers.
(iv) How to review databases and check criminal records according to Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(v) The methods for developing written or electronic activity plans with providers.
(vi) How to determine the necessary skills for a provider to meet the individual's specific needs and the options for providers to acquire those skills.
(vii) The methods for supervising and monitoring the provider's performance of specific activities, including written or electronic approval of the provider's time sheets.
(viii) How to work with ODA's designee to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if a provider is unable to provide the agreed-upon service.
(ix) How to seek assistance from the state or regional long-term care ombudsman program to resolve a problem or concern with a provider.
(x) The state appeal and fair hearing request procedures.
(xi) How to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, and to do so by using EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code requires participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(xii) Records-retention requirements.
(2) ODA's designee shall retain records of its assessment and determination under paragraph (C)(1)(c) of this rule.
(D) Choices and responsibilities regarding participant-directed providers: If ODA's designee authorizes a participant-directed provider for the individual in the person-centered services plan, the following additional responsibilities apply:
(1) Responsibilities for ODA's designee:
(a) Providing the individual with the following information in a manner that is most effective for the individual:
(i) A list of the individual's choices and responsibilities listed in this rule.
(ii) The provider's requirements under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Information on the PASSPORT program.
(b) Reviewing the information listed under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule with the individual and offer assistance to help the individual understand the information.
(c) Helping the individual recruit, hire, retain, and fire the individual's participant-directed provider.
(d) Communicating with the individual in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality.
(e) Helping the individual identify the an appropriate method for the individual to verify that the provider provides each episode of service according to the person-centered services plan, retain records on verified services, and provide (or give access to) those records to the participant-directed provider.
(f) Revising the person-centered services plan to remove authorization for a participant-directed provider if both of the following occur:
(i) Either the individual fails to comply with the responsibilities for individuals under paragraphs (D)(2) and (D)(3) of this rule or the individual's health and safety cannot be assured by a participant-directed provider.
(ii) ODA's designee notifies the individual that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive a service from a participant-directed provider and the individual's right to a hearing on this matter under division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Responsibilities for the individual and ODA's designee to perform together:
(a) For any person the individual has under final consideration to hire as the individual's participant-directed provider, the individual may seek the assistance of ODA's designee to comply with section 173.38 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The individual and ODA's designee shall work together to develop a back-up plan for providing a service if the provider cannot, or does not, meet the provider's obligation to provide a service to the individual.
(c) The individual shall consult with ODA's designee to determine what, if any, skills the provider needs to meet the individual's specific needs, training the provider needs to obtain those skills, deadline to impose on the provider to complete the training, and means for the provider to access the training. The individual may participate in the training.
(d) The individual shall work with the financial management service that ODA's designee provides for individuals who direct participant-directed providers under the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(e) The individual shall work with ODA's designee to ensure that the person-centered services plan reflects the primary method to verify when each episode of service begins and ends, including EVV, if rule 5160-1-40 of the Administrative Code obligates participant-directed providers to use EVV.
(3) Responsibilities for the individual:
(a) The individual shall develop an activity plan with the provider, date the plan, and provide the individual's unique identifier to authenticate the plan, in a manner that does not conflict with the person-centered services plan.
(b) The individual shall designate a location in the individual's home in which the provider may safely store a copy of the individual's activity plan in a manner that protects the individual's confidentiality. (Having a copy of the activity plan in the individual's home contributes to the provider's ability to adhere to the activity plan.)
(c) No individual may verify blank time sheets or time sheets that the provider (or the provider's staff) completes before providing services.
(E) Authorized representative: If an individual has an authorized representative, the individual's authorized representative may represent the individual for any purpose under this rule.
(F) Definitions for this rule:
"Agency provider," 'non-agency provider," and "participant-directed provider" have the same meanings as in the definition of "provider" in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Financial management service" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Unique identifier" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-05
This rule sets the standards and procedures for managing incidents that may have a negative impact on individuals. The purpose of this rule is to establish the procedures for reporting and addressing critical incidents and reportable incidents and to prevent and reduce the risk of harm to individuals. This rule applies to multiple programs administered by the Ohio department of aging (AGE) and the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM). AGE and ODM may designate other entities to perform one or more of the incident management functions set forth in this rule.
(A) For the purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Case Management Agency" or "CMA" means an entity delegated or contracted by AGE or ODM to perform case management activities and related functions for individuals enrolled on a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver program.
(2) "Health and safety action plan" or "HSAP" means a document developed by the waiver case management agency or recovery management agency that identifies situations, circumstances, and behaviors that without intervention may jeopardize the individual's health and welfare and potentially risk the individual's program enrollment. The HSAP sets forth the interventions necessary to mitigate risks to the health and welfare of an individual and to ensure the individual's needs are met.
(3) "Incident" means an alleged, suspected, or actual event that is not consistent with the routine care of or service delivery to an individual that may have a negative impact on the health and welfare of the individual.
(4) "Incident management system" means the system in which reported incidents are entered, including investigative and review notes, findings and results, and prevention plans.
(5) "Individual" means a person enrolled on an HCBS waiver or in the specialized recovery services (SRS) program.
(6) "Investigative entity" means ODM, AGE, or their designee.
(7) "Recovery management agency" or "RMA" means the agency delegated or contracted by ODM to perform case management activities via the recovery manager and related functions for individuals enrolled in the SRS program.
(8) "Restraint" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Restrictive intervention" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Seclusion" means as defined in rule 5160-45-01 of the Administrative Code.
(11) "Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of evidence to indicate the reported incident is more likely to have occurred than not to have occurred.
(12) "Unauthorized restraint" means any restraint which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver or program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(13) "Unauthorized restrictive intervention" means any restrictive intervention which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver or program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(14) "Unauthorized seclusion" means any seclusion which is prohibited by an individual's HCBS waiver program, inappropriately applied due to lack of necessity, conducted without individual choice, conducted without the appropriate level of authorization as specified by the waiver or program, or not documented within the individual's record.
(B) The following incidents will be reported and investigated or reviewed as described in paragraph (E) of this rule:
(1) Critical incidents:
(a) Abuse: the injury, confinement, control, intimidation, or punishment of an individual that has resulted in physical harm, pain, fear, or mental anguish. Abuse includes, but is not limited to physical, emotional, psychological, verbal, and sexual abuse.
(b) Behavioral support misuse: the use of unauthorized restraint, unauthorized restrictive intervention, or unauthorized seclusion.
(c) Neglect: when there is a duty to do so, failing to provide an individual with any treatment, care, goods, or services necessary to maintain the health or welfare of the individual.
(d) Exploitation: the unlawful or improper act of using an individual or an individual's resources through the use of manipulation, intimidation, threats, deceptions, or coercion for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or gain.
(e) Misappropriation: the act of depriving, defrauding, or otherwise obtaining the money or real or personal property (including prescribed medication) of an individual that could potentially impact the health and welfare of the individual.
(f) Unnatural or accidental death: death of an individual resulting from an accident or death that otherwise could not have reasonably been expected, including but not limited to death caused by abuse, neglect, suicide, medication error, and homicide.
(g) Self-harm or suicide attempt: self-harm or suicide attempt that includes a physical attempt by an individual to harm themselves that results in emergency department treatment, in-patient observation, or hospital admission.
(h) Medication error: any medication error that results in a consultation with a poison control center (including telephone calls), an emergency department or urgent care visit, hospitalization, or death, involving:
(i) A medication prescribed to the individual; or
(ii) Any supplement, over-the-counter medication, or medication not prescribed to the individual.
(i) The health and welfare of the individual is at risk due to the individual being lost or missing.
(2) Reportable incidents
(a) Natural deaths that are not due to events such as accidents, injuries, homicide, suicide, or overdoses.
(b) Individual or family member behavior, action, or inaction resulting in the creation of, or adjustment to, a health and safety action plan.
(c) The health and welfare of the individual is at risk due to any of the following:
(i) Loss of the individual's paid or unpaid caregiver;
(ii) Prescribed medication issue not resulting in a consultation with a poison control center, an emergency department of urgent care visit, hospitalization, or death; or
(iii) Eviction or housing crisis.
(d) Suicide attempt that does not result in emergency room treatment, in-patient observation, or hospital admission.
(C) Programs to which this rule applies.
(1) The nursing facility-based level of care HCBS waiver programs administered by AGE and ODM including the assisted living waiver as set forth in Chapter 173-38 of the Administrative Code, the preadmission screening system providing options and resources today waiver as set forth in Chapter 173-42 of the Administrative Code, the Ohio home care waiver as set forth in Chapter 5160-46 of the Administrative Code, and the MyCare Ohio waiver as set forth in Chapter 5160-58 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The SRS state plan program as set forth in Chapter 5160-43 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Upon an individual's enrollment on an HCBS waiver or the SRS program and at the time of each annual reassessment the CMA or RMA will do the following:
(1) Obtain written confirmation that the individual received information about how to report abuse, neglect, exploitation, and all other incidents as defined in this rule.
(2) Document and maintain the written confirmation within the individual's case record.
(E) The following process will be followed upon the occurrence of an incident.
(1) Initial incident report.
(a) Upon discovering an incident, ODM, AGE, their delegates, and all service providers of nursing facility-based level of care HCBS waiver services or services under the SRS program will:
(i) Take immediate action to ensure the health and welfare of the individual.
(ii) Report the incident to the relevant CMA or RMA immediately upon discovery of the incident, but no later than one business day after discovering the incident, unless bound by federal, state, or local law, or the requirements of professional licensure or certification to report sooner.
(b) All incident reports will include the following information when available:
(i) The facts relevant to the incident;
(ii) A description of what happened;
(iii) The incident type;
(iv) The date of the incident;
(v) The location of the incident;
(vi) The names and contact information of all persons involved; and
(vii) All actions taken to ensure the health and welfare of the individual.
(2) Receipt of report and documentation of the incident.
(a) The CMA or RMA will do the following upon discovering or receiving report of an incident.
(i) Ensure immediate action was taken to protect the health and welfare of the individual. If such action was not taken, take action immediately, but no later than twenty-four hours after becoming aware of the incident.
(ii) Notify all of the appropriate entities with investigative or protective authority, and the appropriate additional regulatory, oversight, or advocacy agencies including but not limited to:
(a) Local law enforcement if the incident involves suspected criminal conduct;
(b) The local coroner's office when the death of an individual is reportable in accordance with section 313.12 of the Revised Code;
(c) The local county board of developmental disabilities;
(d) The local child protective services agency (CPS);
(e) The local adult protective services agency (APS);
(f) The Ohio department of health, or other licensure or certification board or accreditation body if the incident involves a provider regulated by that entity;
(g) The local probate court if the incident may involve the legal guardian of the recipient.
(iii) Enter all critical incidents into the incident management system within one business day of becoming aware of the incident.
(iv) Enter all reportable incidents into the incident management system within three business days of becoming aware of the incident.
(3) Critical incident investigation.
(a) The investigative entity will investigate all critical incidents and do the following upon receipt of a reported incident.
(i) Within one business day of receiving a report of an incident, review the reported incident and verify the following:
(a) Immediate action was taken to protect the health and welfare of the individual and any other recipients of service who may be at risk. If such action was not taken, take action immediately, but no later than twenty-four hours after discovering the need for such action.
(b) The appropriate entities with investigative or protective authority, and the appropriate additional regulatory, oversight, or advocacy agencies were notified. If such action was not taken, do so as soon as possible.
(ii) Within two business days of receiving a report of an incident, initiate an investigation.
(iii) Conduct a review of all relevant documents, including person-centered care plans, service plans, assessments, clinical notes, communication notes, results from an investigation conducted by a third-party entity when available, provider documentation, provider billing records, medical reports, police and fire department reports, and emergency response system reports.
(iv) Conduct and document interviews with everyone who may have information relevant to the incident.
(v) Identify, to the extent possible, all causes and contributing factors.
(vi) Determine whether the incident is substantiated.
(vii) Document all investigative activities in the incident management system.
(viii) Conclude the investigation no later than forty-five business days after the investigative entity's initial receipt of the incident report, unless a longer time frame has been previously approved by ODM or AGE.
(ix) For investigations conducted by ODM's designee, at the conclusion of the investigation, provide a summary of the investigative findings and whether or not the incident was substantiated to the appropriate CMA or RMA.
(4) Reportable incident review and remediation: For each reportable incident, the CMA or RMA will address and remediate the incident as determined appropriate by the CMA or RMA.
(5) Follow up and closeout responsibilities of the CMA or RMA.
(a) Upon receipt of the findings for a substantiated incident, review the investigation results and include the information from the results when developing a person-centered prevention plan or updating the care plan to ensure the health and safety of the individual.
(b) Communicate a summary of the investigative findings with the individual and their authorized representative or legal guardian using trauma informed care, unless such action could jeopardize the health and welfare of the individual.
(i) The summary will be provided through verbal communication, unless the individual or their authorized representative or legal guardian requests the summary in writing.
(ii) The CMA or RMA will retain documentation that the summary was provided.
(c) For incidents that resulted in a CPS or APS referral, communicate a summary of the investigative findings to the relevant agency within seven business days after being notified that the investigation is complete.
(d) For all substantiated critical incidents, except in the case of death, enter a prevention plan into the incident management system no later than seven business days after the conclusion of the investigation, indicating closure of the incident.
(e) For all reportable incidents, address and remediate the incident as determined appropriate, and close the incident in the incident management system no later than forty-five business days after submission of the incident in the incident management system.
(F) AGE and ODM may request further review of any incident, conduct a separate independent review or investigation of any incident, determine necessary additional action, or assume responsibility for conducting an investigation or review.
Last updated August 27, 2026 at 8:02 AM
History
- Effective: August 27, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-02
(A) The purpose of this rule is to define the terms used in Chapter 5160-31 of the Administrative Code governing the preadmission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver program.
(B) "Assessment" means an evaluation used to obtain information about an individual including their condition, personal goals and preferences, functional limitations, health status, and other factors that are relevant to the authorization and provision of services. Information obtained from the assessment supports the determination of program eligibility and the development of the person-centered services plan.
(C) "Authorized representative" means as defined in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(D) "Case manager" means as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(E) "Centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS)" means the federal agency that is part of the United States department of health and human services, and that administers the medicaid program and approves HCBS waivers.
(F) "Financial management service (FMS)" means a support provided to waiver participants who direct some or all of their waiver services. In the PASSPORT waiver, this support is conducted as an administrative activity through an entity under contract with the state of Ohio. When used in conjunction with the participant-directed authorities available to individuals enrolled in PASSPORT, this support includes operating a payroll service for participant-employed workers and making required payroll withholdings.
(G) "Home and community-based services (HCBS)" means services furnished under the provisions set forth in 42 C.F.R. 441 Subpart G (October 1, 2024) that permit individuals to live in a home setting rather than in a facility. HCBS waiver services are approved by CMS for specific populations and are not otherwise available under the medicaid state plan.
(H) "Home first" means the component of the PASSPORT HCBS waiver program that offers priority enrollment in the waiver for certain individuals in accordance with section 173.521 of the Revised Code.
(I) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance or home and community-based services.
(J) "Level of care (LOC)" means the designation describing an individual's person's functional levels and nursing needs pursuant to the criteria defined in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
(K) "Nursing Facility (NF)" means as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
(L) "ODA's designee" means as defined in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
(M) "ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" as defined in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(N) "PASSPORT" or "PASSPORT HCBS waiver program" means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code and approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid services.
(O) "Person-centered services plan" means as defined in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(P) "Provider" means an agency or a person with a signed medicaid provider agreement with ODM and certified by ODA.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:44 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-43 Long Term Care Consultation Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-43-01 Long-term care consultation program: introduction and definitions.
(A) The long-term care consultation program provides information to individuals and their representatives about options available to meet their long-term care needs and factors to consider when making long-term care decisions in accordance with section 173.42 of the Revised Code.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
(1) "Individual" means a person who may qualify to receive a long-term care consultation.
(2) "Level of care" means the review and determination process under rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code.
(3) "Long-term care consultation" and "consultation" have the same meanings as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
(6) "Pre-admission screening and resident review" has the same meaning as in rules 5160-3-15.1 and 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Program administrator" has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Representative" has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:47 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-14
(A) Level of care determination process, generally:
(1) A level of care determination may occur in-person, by a desk review, or by telephone and is one component of medicaid eligibility to receive medicaid payment for services provided in a nursing facility (NF) or through a NF-based home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver or other NF-based level of care program.
(2) An individual who is seeking admission to a NF is subject to both a preadmission screening and resident review (PASRR) process, as described in rules 5160-3-15, 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03, and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code, and a level of care determination process.
(a) The preadmission screening process will be completed before a level of care determination or a level of care validation can be issued.
(b) In order for the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) to consider payment for services provided to an individual in a NF who is eligible for medicaid, the individual will have received a non-adverse PASRR determination and subsequent NF-based level of care determination.
(i) NF services that predate the PASRR determination are not eligible for medicaid payment.
(ii) The level of care effective date cannot precede the date that the PASRR criteria were met.
(iii) A level of care cannot be requested or determined retroactively with an effective date prior to or within an active post-payment claim review period.
(iv) Not-withstanding paragraphs (A)(2)(b)(i), (A)(2)(b)(ii), and (A)(2)(b)(iii) of this rule if an individual is admitted to a NF for a stay of thirty calendar days or less under a hospital exemption that has been submitted in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.1 of the Administrative Code, the level of care criteria will be deemed met for the first thirty days after admission. If the individual remains in the NF after the thirtieth calendar day, a level of care determination will be requested in accordance with paragraphs (B) to (H) of this rule.
(v) If an individual receives a non-adverse level II PASRR determination indicating the need for NF services and the individual meets the criteria for the intermediate level of care described in paragraphs (A)(4) and (B) of rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative code, or the skilled level of care described in paragraph (C) of rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, a level of care determination may be issued effective on or after the date that the PASRR criteria were met.
(vi) Not-withstanding paragraph (A)(2)(b)(iv) of this rule, if a NF receives medicaid payment from ODM or its designee for an individual who does not have a NF-based level of care determination, the NF is subject to the claim adjustment for overpayments process described in rule 5160-1-19 of the Administrative Code.
(vii) If an individual receives an adverse level II PASRR determination, the individual appearing to meet the criteria described in paragraphs (A)(4) and (B), or paragraph (C) of rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code or receipt of a non-adverse NF-based level of care determination will not be used to overturn the adverse level II determination.
(3) Services will not be eligible for medicaid payment for any individual applying for a NF-based HCBS waiver or other NF-based level of care program until the specific program eligibility criteria are met.
(B) Level of care request.
(1) In order for ODM or its designee (hereafter referred to as ODM) to make a level of care determination, ODM will receive a complete level of care request from a NF or a complete application for a NF-based HCBS waiver or program. A level of care request is considered complete when all necessary data elements are included and completed on the ODM 03697, "Level of Care Assessment" or alternative form and any necessary supporting documentation is submitted with the ODM 03697 or alternative form, as described in paragraphs (B)(2) to (B)(5) of this rule.
(2) A complete level of care request, alternative form, or submitted documentation will not be considered a substitute for a level of care determination.
(3) Necessary data elements:
(a) Individual's legal name;
(b) Individual's medicaid case number, if applicable;
(c) Date of original admission to the facility, if applicable;
(d) Individual's current address, including county of residence;
(e) Individual's current diagnoses or diagnoses as of the requested retroactive effective date, if applicable;
(f) Date of onset for each diagnosis, if available;
(g) Individual's current medications, treatments, and required medical services or as of the requested retroactive effective date, if applicable;
(h) A description of the individual's current activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living or description as of the requested retroactive effective date, if applicable;
(i) A description of the individual's current mental and behavioral status or status as of the requested retroactive effective date, if applicable; and
(j) Type of service setting requested.
(4) Certification on the ODM 03697 or alternative form.
(a) A certification means a signature from a physician, nurse practitioner as defined in Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, or physician assistant as defined in Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and date. ODM will allow an electronic signature or signature received via fax or mail for the certification.
(b) A certification will be obtained within thirty calendar days of submission of the ODM 03697 or alternative form.
(c) Exceptions to the certification:
(i) When an individual resides in the community and ODM determines that the individual's health and welfare is at risk and that it is not possible for the submitter of the ODM 03697 or alternative form to obtain a physician, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant signature and date at the time of the submission of the ODM 03697 or alternative form, a verbal certification is acceptable.
(ii) ODM will obtain a certification within thirty days of the verbal certification.
(5) Necessary supporting documentation with the ODM 03697 or alternative form when the individual is subject to a preadmission screening process:
(a) A copy of the ODM 03622, "Preadmission Screening/Resident Review (PAS/RR) Identification Screen" and ODM 07000, "Hospital Exemption from Preadmission Screening Notification", as applicable, in accordance with rules 5160-3-15.1 and 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code; and
(b) Any preadmission screening results and assessment forms.
(C) When a complete level of care request is received:
(1) ODM will issue a level of care determination and notify the individual and authorized representative, as applicable, of the level of care determination. If the determination is adverse, information regarding the individual's hearing rights will be included with the determination in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) In accordance with rules 5160:1-2-01 and 5160:1-6-03.1 of the Administrative Code, the county department of job and family services (CDJFS) will determine medicaid eligibility and issue proper notice and hearing rights to the individual.
(D) When an incomplete level of care request is received:
(1) ODM will notify the submitter and specify the necessary information to be provided on or with the ODM 03697 or alternative form and allow fourteen calendar days to provide the information. If the submitter provides a complete level of care within fourteen calendar days, the steps described in paragraph (C) of this rule will be performed.
(a) If a complete level of care request is not received within fourteen calendar days of the notification of an incomplete request, the request may be denied and documented in the electronic record maintained by ODM.
(2) In accordance with rules 5160:1-2-01 and 5160:1-6-03.1 of the Administrative Code, the CDJFS will determine medicaid eligibility and issue proper notice and hearing rights to the individual.
(E) Desk review level of care determination.
(1) A desk review level of care determination will occur within one business day from the date of receipt of a complete level of care request when:
(a) ODM determines that an individual is seeking admission or re-admission to a NF from an acute care hospital or hospital emergency room.
(b) A CDJFS requests a level of care determination for an individual who is receiving adult protective services, as defined in rule 5101:2-20-01 of the Administrative Code, and the CDJFS submits an ODM 03697 or alternative form at the time of the level of care request.
(2) A desk review level of care determination will occur within five calendar days from the date of receipt of a complete level of care request when:
(a) ODM determines that an individual who resides in a NF is requesting to change from a non-medicaid payor to medicaid payment for the individual's continued NF stay.
(b) ODM determines that an individual who resides in a NF is requesting to change from medicaid managed care to medicaid fee-for-service as payment for the individual's continued NF stay.
(c) ODM determines that an individual is transferring from one NF to another NF.
(F) In-person level of care determination.
(1) An in-person level of care determination will occur within ten calendar days from the date of receipt of a complete level of care request when:
(a) An individual or the authorized representative of an individual requests an in-person level of care determination.
(b) ODM makes an adverse level of care determination during a desk review level of care determination.
(c) ODM determines that the information needed to make a level of care determination through a desk review is inconsistent.
(d) An individual resides in the community and ODM verifies that the individual does not have a current NF-based level of care.
(e) ODM determines that an individual has a pending disenrollment from a NF-based HCBS waiver due to the individual no longer having a NF-based level of care.
(2) An in-person level of care determination will occur within two business days from the date of a level of care request from a CDJFS for an individual who is receiving adult protective services when the CDJFS does not submit an ODM 03697 or alternative form at the time of the level of care request.
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (F)(1) or (F)(2) of this rule, ODM will allow a telephonic or video conference level of care determination at the request of the individual.
(G) Delayed in-person visit.
(1) A delayed in-person visit will occur within ninety calendar days after ODM conducts a desk review level of care determination for an individual as described in paragraph (E)(1)(a), (E)(1)(b), or (E)(2)(a) of this rule.
(2) Not-withstanding paragraph (G)(1) of this rule a delayed in-person visit does not have to occur for the following:
(a) An individual as described in paragraph (E)(2)(b) or (E)(2)(c) of this rule.
(b) An individual who declines a delayed in-person visit.
(c) An individual who has had a long-term care consultation, in accordance with Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code, since the individual's NF admission.
(d) An individual who has had an in-person resident review, in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code, since the individual's NF admission.
(e) An individual who is receiving care under a medicaid care management system that utilizes a care management, case management, or care coordination model, including but not limited to case management services provided through an HCBS waiver.
(H) Level of care validation.
ODM may conduct a level of care validation in lieu of an in-person level of care determination within one business day from the date of a level of care request for:
(1) An individual who is currently enrolled on a NF-based HCBS waiver and is seeking admission to a NF.
(2) An individual who is currently a NF resident and is seeking readmission to the same NF after a hospitalization.
Last updated July 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-15.1
(A) The purpose of this rule is to set forth the level I and level II preadmission screening requirements pursuant to section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019, to ensure that individuals seeking admission, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, to a medicaid-certified nursing facility (NF) who have serious mental illness (SMI) and/or a developmental disability (DD) as defined in rules 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code are identified and not admitted to a NF unless a thorough evaluation indicates that such placement is appropriate and adequate services will be provided regardless of payor source.
(B) A level I screening as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code is required:
(1) Prior to any new admission, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, to a NF.
(2) Prior to a categorical determination, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(3) When an individual is directly admitted to a NF from any of the following:
(a) A hospital that is maintained, operated, managed or governed by the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services (OhioMHAS) under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons; or
(b) A free standing hospital, or unit of a hospital licensed by OhioMHAS under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code; or
(c) An out-of state psychiatric hospital or unit of such hospital.
(4) When a non Ohio resident is seeking admission to an Ohio NF from an out-of-state NF.
(a) If the non Ohio resident has been determined or suspected to have a SMI and/or DD by the other state, the other state's level II evaluation(s) of the individual and any additional supporting documentation should be submitted with the preadmission request.
(b) Submission of the required forms and documentation does not constitute completion of the level I process.
(c) The NF can not admit an individual until the PASRR screening process as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code is complete and a determination for the individual is received by the NF pursuant to section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019.
(C) Level I screening requirements.
(1) Level I will be administered by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or its designee, OhioMHAS or its designee, the Ohio department of developmental disability (DODD) or its designee, social worker, professional counselor, hospital discharge planners or one of the professionals listed in paragraph (H)(6) of this rule.
(2) The level I has to be submitted via the electronic system designated by ODM.
(3) The submitter of the level I is responsible for gathering information from the individual, family, legal guardian and available medical records to ensure an accurate level I and, when applicable, level II determination outcomes.
(4) The submitter is expected to include any necessary supporting documentation within the electronic system designated by ODM for validation.
(5) The submitter of the level I has to certify that the level I information that is submitted is true, accurate and complete to the best of their knowledge. The absence of such certification by the submitter will result in an incomplete level I submission.
(6) For an individual seeking medicaid payment, the ODM approved level of care (LOC) assessment will be completed in accordance with rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code, unless the individual is enrolled in a medicaid managed care plan as defined in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(7) The NF is responsible for ensuring every individual residing in the NF has completed the PASRR screening process as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code prior to NF admission.
(D) Level I screening outcomes.
(1) An individual will be considered to have indications of DD when the individual meets the criteria specified in rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code or the individual receives services from a county board of DD.
(a) Individuals with indications of DD will be subject to further review by DODD in accordance with rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Such individuals will not be considered to have completed the PASRR screening requirements as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code until DODD has issued the level II determination pursuant to section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019 and in accordance with rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(2) An individual will be considered to have indications of a SMI when the individual meets the criteria specified in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(a) Individuals with indications of a SMI shall be subject to further review by OhioMHAS, in accordance with rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Such individuals will not be considered to have completed the PASRR screening process as defined in rule 5160-3-15 until OhioMHAS has issued the level II determination pursuant to section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019 and in accordance with rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Individuals determined to have no indications of a SMI and/or DD are not subject to a level II evaluation.
(a) Such individuals are considered to have met PASRR screening requirements effective on the date an accurate and complete level I screening was submitted.
(b) The printed result letter generated via the electronic system designated by ODM is evidence of PASRR compliance.
(4) Individuals with indications of both SMI and DD will be subject to further review by both OhioMHAS and DODD in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code. Such individuals will not be considered to have met PASRR screening requirements as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code until both OhioMHAS and DODD have issued the level II determination.
(5) Any individual who has been determined by DODD or OhioMHAS to be ruled out, in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, is not subject to further PASRR review.
(E) ODM or its designee, OhioMHAS and/or DODD, are the only entities that have the authority to render level I screening result outcomes. The individual must not be admitted into the NF until prescreening requirements as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code have been met pursuant to section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019.
(F) Categorical determination requirements.
(1) Consists of a level I with sufficient documentation that the individual meets one of the following categories:
(a) Emergency NF stay when the individual is temporarily admitted to a NF pending further assessment in emergency situations requiring protective services, not to exceed seven days; or
(b) Respite NF stay when the individual is being admitted to a NF for a maximum of fourteen days in order to provide respite to in-home caregivers to whom the individual is expected to return following the respite stay.
(2) A face to face assessment is not required for a categorical determination provided there is enough data to determine that the individual meets the categorical requirements.
(3) The NF has to submit the request for a categorical determination via the electronic system designated by ODM.
(4) The NF has to initiate a resident review as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code for residents admitted under a categorical determination that require a stay longer than the specified time limit for the category.
(5) The NF can not admit an individual requesting a categorical determination until the NF receives a determination for the individual from the appropriate level II entity.
(G) Hospital discharge exemption requirements.
(1) An individual does not qualify for admission using the hospital discharge exemption unless:
(a) The individual is being admitted to a NF directly from an Ohio hospital or a unit of a hospital that is not operated by or licensed by OhioMHAS under section 5119.14 or section 5119.33 of the Revised Code, after receiving acute inpatient care at that hospital; or
(b) The individual is an Ohio resident seeking admission to a NF directly from an out-of-state hospital that is not an out-of-state psychiatric hospital or psychiatric unit within an out-of-state hospital, after receiving acute inpatient care at that hospital; and
(c) The individual requires the level of services provided by a NF for the condition for which he or she was treated in the hospital; and
(d) The individual's attending physician provides written certification that is signed and dated no later than the date of discharge from the hospital that the individual is likely to require the level of services provided by a NF for less than thirty days.
(2) The discharging hospital has to request a hospital discharge exemption via the electronic system designated by ODM.
(3) When the NF accepts the placement of the individual, the NF acknowledges that the individual meets the criteria described in paragraph (G) of this rule.
(4) The admitting NF is expected to maintain the hospital discharge exemption documentation in the resident's record at the NF.
(5) The NF has to initiate a resident review, as defined in rule 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code, prior to the individual's thirtieth day in the NF when an individual requires a continued stay beyond thirty days.
(6) When an individual is admitted under the hospital discharge exemption and is subsequently admitted to a hospital or transfers to another NF during the first thirty days of the individual's NF stay, the days in the hospital or previous NF count towards the individual's thirty day hospital discharge exemption time period. A new hospital discharge exemption can not be granted during the existing exemption time period.
(7) When an adverse determination has been issued by OhioMHAS or DODD within the last sixty calendar days prior to the new NF admission, the individual is not eligible for a hospital discharge exemption. A level I screening has to be initiated in accordance with paragraph (C) of this rule.
(H) Level II evaluation and determination requirements.
(1) The new admission of an individual with a SMI or DD is not permitted unless the individual has either been determined, in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123:2-14-01 of the Administrative Code, to need the level of services provided by a NF, or qualifies for admission under the hospital discharge exemption provision set forth in paragraph (G) of this rule, regardless of the individual's payor source.
(2) Individuals determined by OhioMHAS and/or DODD not to meet NF level of service as defined in rules 5160-3-15, 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code will not be admitted and medicaid payment will not be available for NF services.
(3) The level II evaluation will be complete and determination made prior to any new admission of an individual to a NF in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification and NF provider agreement.
(4) For current residents of a facility in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification and NF provider agreement, the level II requirements have to be met prior to the effective date of the NF provider agreement between ODM and the newly certified NF or prior to the availability of medicaid payment for the medicaid eligible individual.
(5) The level II determinations are made by OhioMHAS and/or DODD in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019.
(6) Before an adverse determination as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code can be issued, both of the following conditions have to be met:
(a) A face-to-face, telephonic, or video conference assessment of the individual and a review of the medical records accurately reflecting the individual's current condition are performed by one of the following professionals within the scope of his/her practice:
(i) Medical doctor or doctor of osteopathic medicine;
(ii) Registered nurse (RN);
(iii) Master of science of nursing;
(iv) Clinical nurse specialist;
(v) Certified nurse practitioner;
(vi) Licensed social worker, under supervision of a licensed independent social worker (LISW);
(vii) Licensed independent social worker;
(viii) Professional counselor, under supervision of a licensed professional clinical counselor (PCC);
(ix) Professional clinical counselor;
(x) Psychologist;
(xi) Qualified mental health professional as defined in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code; or
(xii) Qualified intellectual disability professional; or
(xiii) Service and support administrator as defined in section 5126.15 of the Revised Code.
(b) Authorized personnel from OhioMHAS and DODD other than the personnel identified in paragraph (H)(6)(a) of this rule who have conducted the face-to-face, telephonic, or video conference assessment, have reviewed the assessment and, made the final determination regarding the need for NF services and specialized services.
(I) NF to NF transfer requirements.
(1) The admitting NF is responsible for ensuring that all individuals have met the PASRR screening requirements as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code prior to entering the NF.
(2) The admitting NF will initiate a referral for a resident review as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code for any individual transferred to its facility upon the discovery of a significant change in the individual's condition as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The admitting NF is responsible for ensuring that copies of the resident's most recent level I screening results letter and, if applicable, level II evaluation and determination accompany the transferring resident.
(4) The admitting NF is expected to retain the written notification of the level II determinations received from the transferring NF in the individual's resident record at the facility.
(J) Level I and level II requests for additional information.
(1) ODM or its designee, OhioMHAS and/or DODD may request any additional information required in order to make a preadmission screening determination.
(2) When ODM or its designee, OhioMHAS and/or DODD need additional information in order to make the preadmission screening determination, they will provide written notice to the NF, the individual, the hospital, the referring entity, and the individual's representative, if applicable. This notice will specify the missing forms, data elements and other documentation needed to make the required determinations.
(3) In the event the individual and/or other entity does not provide the necessary information within fourteen calendar days, ODM or its designee, OhioMHAS and DODD is expected to provide written notice to the individual, the individual's guardian or authorized representative, if applicable, and the NF that the admission is not permitted due to failure to provide information necessary for the completion of the preadmission screening process and that the individual may appeal the determination in accordance with the provisions of division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code. The individual, regardless of payment source, cannot be admitted to the NF.
(4) When the individual or other entity submits the requested information within the timeframes specified in the notice, ODM or its designee, OhioMHAS and/or DODD will proceed with the preadmission screening process.
(K) An individual will undergo a new level I screening in accordance with the provisions of this rule when:
(1) The individual received a completed preadmission screening as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code indicating that NF services are needed but the individual has not been admitted to a NF within one hundred eighty days of the most recent level II that was not a categorical determination, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code; or
(2) The individual received a categorical determination by OhioMHAS and/or DODD that NF services are needed and the individual has not been admitted to a NF immediately following discharge from a hospital setting, or within twenty fours hours from the date of the catergorical emergency determination, or within sixy days from the date of the categorical respite determination.
(L) Level I and level II notification and record retention.
(1) In accordance with all requirements specified in rule 5101:6-2-32 of the Administrative Code, ODM, or its designee, has to report the outcome of the level I to the individual, their guardian, or authorized representative, if applicable, the NF and the appropriate level II entity.
(2) In accordance with all requirements specified in rule 5101:6-2-32 of the Administrative Code, DODD and OhioMHAS will provide a printed copy of the level II determination to the individual, their guardian or authorized representative, if applicable, the individual's physician and the NF. The level II determination will contain notice of the individual's right to appeal an adverse determination made by the level II entities.
(3) When an adverse determination is issued, the facility will provide the individual, their guardian or authorized representative, if applicable, with notice of the intent to discharge in accordance with section 3721.16 of the Revised Code.
(4) The NF is expected to maintain a printed copy of the level I result notice and, if applicable, a printed copy of the level II determination received from OhioMHAS and DODD in the individual's resident record at the facility
(M) Preadmission screening compliance.
(1) NFs which, whether intentionally or otherwise, fail to accept any new admission, readmission, or NF transfers pursuant to this rule are in violation of their medicaid provider agreements. This is true regardless of the payment source for the individual's NF stay.
(2) PASRR level I screening and/or level II determinations will not be backdated.
(3) An adverse determination as the result of a preadmission evaluation performed by OhioMHAS or DODD may be appealed in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Level II determinations made by OhioMHAS or DODD in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect, July 1, 2019 cannot be overturned by ODM and/or Ohio department of health. Only appeal determinations made in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code may overturn an adverse PASRR determination.
(5) Medicaid payment is not available for NF stays for individuals who are otherwise medicaid-eligible until the date on which the preadmission screening requirements as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code have been met.
(6) ODM has authority to ensure compliance with the provisions of this rule, including but not limited to the following:
(a) Official notice to the NF of PASRR noncompliance;
(b) Development of a compliance corrective action plan;
(c) Mandatory PASRR training;
(d) NF site visits;
(e) Recoupment of funds for number of days PASRR requirements were not met for the resident.
(7) NF, local administrators, hospitals and all state agencies and their designees will comply, with accuracy and timeliness, to all requests for records and compliance plans issued by ODM.
Last updated April 8, 2021 at 1:29 PM
History
- Effective: April 2, 2021
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-15.2
(A) The purpose of this rule is to set forth resident review requirements in compliance with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect on July 1, 2019, which prohibits nursing facilities (NF) from retaining individuals with serious mental illness (SMI) as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code and/or developmental disabilities (DD) as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code unless a thorough evaluation indicates that such placement is appropriate and adequate services are provided. A resident review will be completed whenever an individual experiences a significant change in condition as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code and that change has a material impact on their functioning as it relates to their mental illness or developmental disability status.
(B) Resident review requirements.
(1) No individual with SMI or DD can be retained as a resident in a nursing facility (NF), regardless of payment source, unless it has been determined in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123:14-01 of the Administrative Code, that:
(a) The individual needs the level of services provided by a NF; or
(b) The individual had resided in a NF for at least thirty months at the time of the first resident review determination that established that the individual does not require the level of services provided by a NF, and
(i) Requires specialized services only; and
(ii) The individual has chosen to remain in a NF after being informed of service alternatives to NF placement.
(2) The NF will initiate and submit a resident review via the electronic system designated by ODM.
(3) The NF will include supporting documentation of the individual's current condition, including evidence of the individual's need for services in a NF, when submitting the resident review.
(4) The NF is responsible for the accurate and timely submission of the resident review request to the Ohio department of developmental disabilities (DODD) and/or Ohio department of mental health and addiction services (OhioMHAS) and for ensuring that a copy of the resident review determination is maintained in the resident's file in accordance with the provisions of this rule.
(C) Resident review will be completed for an individual who meets any of the following criteria:
(1) The individual was admitted under the hospital discharge exemption as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, and has since been found to require more than thirty days of services at the NF. The resident review will be submitted no later than the twenty-ninth day from the date of admission; or
(2) The individual had been in a NF and was admitted directly into a different NF following an intervening hospital stay for psychiatric treatment, or was readmitted to the same NF directly following a hospital stay for psychiatric treatment. A resident review for a significant change in condition will be submitted within twenty-four hours of the individual's NF admission to a different NF or readmission to the same NF; or
(3) The individual has experienced a significant change in condition as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code. The resident review will be submitted within seventy-two hours following identification of the significant change; or
(4) The individual was admitted as a result of a negative level I preadmission screening and there is subsequent evidence of possible, but previously unrecognized or unreported, SMI and/or DD; or
(5) The individual received a categorical determination as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, and has since been found to need a stay in a NF that will exceed the specified time limit for that category. Unless the individual meets the criteria for a resident review extension described in paragraph (F) of this rule, the resident review has to be submitted as soon as the NF has reason to believe the individual may need to remain in a NF beyond the expiration date of the categorical determination but no later than the expiration date of the categorical determination; or
(6) The individual received a resident review determination for a specified period of time as established by DODD or OhioMHAS and has since been found to need a stay in a NF exceeding the specified period of time. The resident review will be submitted at least thirty days prior to the expiration of the determination.
(D) Resident review outcomes.
(1) Individuals determined to have no indications of SMI or DD are not subject to further resident review.
(2) Individuals determined to have indications of SMI or DD will be subject to further resident review by the OhioMHAS or DODD in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Individuals determined to have indications of both SMI and DD will not be considered to have completed the resident review process until both OhioMHAS and DODD have issued the resident review determinations.
(4) If an individual who is subject to a resident review has indications of SMI or DD and is discharged from the NF after submission of the resident review request, but prior to the determination, or prior to the due date for the request, the NF will notify OhioMHAS and/or DODD.
(5) Individuals previously determined by OhioMHAS and/or DODD to be ruled out from preadmission screening in accordance with rules 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code are not subject to further review.
(E) Resident review placement determinations.
(1) OhioMHAS and DODD may approve a determination that the level of services provided by the NF will meet the individual's long term needs and for an unspecified period of time.
(2) OhioMHAS and DODD may approve a determination that the level of services provided by a NF will meet the individual's short term needs and for a specified period of time.
(a) OhioMHAS and DODD may approve such a determination for no more than one hundred eighty days.
(b) Unless a resident review extension is requested and granted in accordance with paragraph (F) of this rule, the NF will initiate a resident review in accordance with paragraph (C)(4) of this rule when the individual stay exceeds the specified period of time.
(c) In conjunction with local entities, the NF will initiate and continue discharge planning activities throughout the period of time specified on the determination notice.
(F) Resident review extension request requirements.
(1) A resident review determination extension may be requested by the NF on behalf of an individual that received a resident review determination for a specified period of time as established by the DODD or OhioMHAS and is believed to need a stay in a NF exceeding the specified period of time.
(2) The NF will submit the resident review extension request for consideration directly to DODD or OhioMHAS for approval via the electronic system approved by ODM.
(3) Extension requests and approvals cannot exceed ninety days.
(4) In order to receive consideration for an extension to the initial determination, the NF will initiate a resident review at least thirty days prior to the expiration of the determination.
(a) The NF is responsible for the accurate and timely submission of the resident review extension request to DODD or OhioMHAS in accordance with the provisions of this rule.
(b) Resident review extension requests submitted after the expiration of the individual's determination are in violation of this rule and the NF will be considered out of compliance with PASRR requirements in accordance with this rule from the day after the expiration of specified date stated on the initial resident review until the day the resident review extension is subsequently approved if applicable, by DODD or OhioMHAS.
(c) DODD and OhioMHAS are expected to notify ODM in writing when instances specified in paragraph (F)(4)(b) of this rule occur.
(5) The NF will include supporting documentation of the individual's current condition including evidence of the individual's need for services in a NF past the specified period of time established by DODD and/or OhioMHAS when submitting the request for an extension.
(6) A request for an extension is expected to include documentation of discharge planning activities. The written record of discharge planning activities has to include the alternative settings and services explored and the steps taken to ensure that a safe and orderly discharge occurs.
(7) DODD and OhioMHAS will keep a record of all resident review extension requests received by NFs and approved or denied by DODD or OhioMHAS.
(8) DODD and OhioMHAS will submit a resident review extension summary in the form of a list to ODM on a monthly basis with the following information:
(a) Date extension request was received by DODD or OhioMHAS;
(b) Name of NF;
(c) Name of resident;
(d) Date of original specified resident review;
(e) The number of previous granted extensions and number of days currently being requested by the NF;
(f) Reason for extension; and
(g) Date of approval or denial of extension request.
(9) The NF is expected to maintain a printed copy of the resident review extension approval and all supporting documentation in the resident's record at the NF.
(G) NF to NF transfers:
(1) If an individual is to be transferred to another Ohio NF after submission of the resident review request but prior to receipt of the resident review determination:
(a) The transferring NF will notify the appropriate level II entity of the transfer. Written notice will be provided to the level II entity by the NF no later than the day the individual is transferred. The transferring NF is expected to provide sufficient contact information to enable the completion of the resident review process.
(b) At or prior to the time the individual is transferred, the transferring NF will provide the admitting NF with copies of all PASRR related documents pertaining to the individual and written notice of the individual's current PASRR status. If known, the notice should include contact information for the resident review evaluator assigned by OhioMHAS and DODD.
(c) The admitting NF cannot accept the individual as a NF transfer unless it receives this information at or prior to the time the individual is admitted to the NF.
(d) If the transferring individual is medicaid eligible at the time of the transfer, the transferring NF will also provide written notice of the transfer and the current PASRR status of the individual to ODM or its designee. Such notice will be provided no later than the date on which the individual is transferred.
(H) Resident review requests for additional information:
(1) OhioMHAS and DODD may request additional information necessary to make a resident review determination.
(2) If OhioMHAS or DODD request additional information to make the resident review determination, the agency will provide written notice to the NF, the individual, and the individual's representative, if applicable. This notice will specify the missing forms, data elements and other documentation needed to make the required determinations.
(3) In the event the individual or other entity does not provide the necessary information within fourteen calendar days, the agency that requested the information will provide written notice to the individual, the individual's representative, if applicable, and the NF that a continued stay in the NF is not permitted due to failure to provide information necessary for the completion of the resident review process and the individual may appeal the determination in accordance with the provisions of division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(I) Resident review notification:
(1) In accordance with rule 5101:6-2-32 of the Administrative Code, the appropriate level II entity will provide written notification of all resident review determinations made.
(a) Such written notice will be provided to:
(i) The evaluated individual and his or her legal representative;
(ii) The NF in which the individual is a resident;
(iii) The individual's attending physician;
(iv) The individual's medicaid managed care plan, if applicable, as defined in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Such written notice has to include all of the following components:
(i) The determination as to whether and, when applicable, the estimated length of time the individual requires the level of services provided by a NF;
(ii) The determination as to whether the individual requires specialized services for SMI and/or DD;
(iii) The placement and/or service options that are available to the individual consistent with those determinations; and
(iv) The individual's right to appeal the determination(s).
(2) Upon receipt of the written notice of an adverse determination, the NF will provide the individual with notice of the intent to discharge. When an expiration date is specified in the written notice, the NF will provide the individual with notice of the intent to discharge at least thirty days prior to the expiration date.
(3) All individuals who are subject to a resident review and who do not meet the retention criteria set forth in paragraph (B)(1) of this rule will be discharged from the NF and relocated to an appropriate setting in accordance with section 3721.16 of the Revised Code.
(4) The NF will maintain a written record of discharge planning activities which will include the alternative settings and services explored and the steps taken to ensure that a safe and orderly discharge occurs.
(5) The NF will retain the written notification of the resident review determinations received from OhioMHAS and DODD in the resident's record at the facility.
(J) Medicaid payment for services.
(1) Medicaid payment is available for the provision of NF services to medicaid-eligible individuals subject to resident review only when the individual has met the criteria for retention set forth in paragraph (B)(1) of this rule.
(2) A resident review determination is not a level of care determination. Individuals seeking medicaid payment for the NF stay will meet the level of care requirements in accordance with Chapter 5160-3 of the Administrative Code.
(3) For medicaid eligible individuals, medicaid payment is available through the time period specified in the notice or during the period an appeal is in progress.
(4) When a resident review is not initiated by the NF within the timeframes specified in paragraph (C) of this rule, but is performed at a later date, medicaid payment is not available for services furnished to the eligible individual from the date the resident review was due through the date in which the resident review determination was received by the NF.
(K) Resident review compliance.
(1) NFs who fail to initiate a resident review or request a resident review extension pursuant to this rule are in violation of their medicaid provider agreements. This is true regardless of the payment source for the individual's NF stay.
(2) Adverse PASRR determinations may be appealed in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Level II resident review determinations made by OhioMHAS or DODD in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019 cannot be overturned by ODM or Ohio department of health. Only appeals determinations made in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code may overturn an adverse PASRR determination.
(4) If the individual is subject to resident review and there is no record of the determination in the medical record and no indication that they are in progress, the NF will notify OhioMHAS and/or DODD.
(5) OhioMHAS and DODD will utilize criteria relating to the need for NF care or specialized services that is consistent with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019, and the ODM approved state plan for medicaid, including criteria consistent with Chapter 5160-3 of the Administrative Code, in making their determinations whether individuals with SMI and/or DD meet the level of services provided by a NF.
(6) ODM has authority to ensure compliance with the provisions of this rule, including but not limited to the following:
(a) Official notice to the NF of PASRR noncompliance;
(b) Development of a compliance corrective action plan;
(c) Mandatory PASRR training;
(d) NF site visits;
(e) Recoupment of funds for number of days PASRR requirements were not met for the resident in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 483.122.
History
- Effective: December 30, 2019
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-43-02 Long-term care consultation program: general standards for providing consultations.
(A) The program administrator may provide a consultation in person or by telephone or video conference.
(B) The program administrator shall offer a consultation to any individual who contacts the program administrator to seek information about options available to meet long-term care needs.
(C) On application for admission to a nursing facility or on seeking medicaid payment for a continued stay in a nursing facility, the following apply:
(1) The nursing facility shall notify the program administrator of any individual that was admitted to the nursing facility under a a categorical determination in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.1, 5122-21-03, or 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code, but has since been found to need a stay in a nursing facility that will exceed the time limits identified in those rules. The nursing facility shall notify the program administrator no later than seventy-two hours after the expiration of the time limit, unless rule 173-43-03 of the Administrative Code indicates that the program administrator is not required to provide a consultation to the individual. On being notified, the program administrator shall determine if a consultation is required.
(2) If the program administrator is not required to provide a consultation to an individual under rule 173-43-03 of the Administrative Code, then the nursing facility shall specify the reason why the program administrator is not required to provide a consultation in the individual's record.
(3) The program administrator shall provide a consultation at a time agreed to by the program administrator and the individual, whether before or after admission to a nursing facility.
(4) The nursing facility shall not deny or limit access to the facility or a resident of the facility to any person who is attempting to provide a consultation.
(5) The program administrator may obtain information about an individual who is applying to a nursing facility or seeking medicaid payment for a continued stay in a nursing facility from the individual, the nursing facility to which admission is being sought, the pre-admission screening and resident review under rules 5160-3-15.1 and 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code, or through the resident assessment instrument as defined in rule 5160-3-43.1 of the Administrative Code.
(6) A nursing facility that has a provider agreement with the department of medicaid may admit an individual as a resident only if the nursing facility has evidence of all of the following:
(a) The nursing facility complied with this rule.
(b) The nursing facility complied with rule 173-43-03 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The program administrator provided a consultation to the individual, unless rule 173-43-03 of the Administrative Code exempted the individual.
(D) Concurrent assessments: The program administrator may incorporate either of the following assessments into a consultation:
(1) The level-of-care assessment under rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The pre-admission screening and resident review under rules 5160-3-15.1 and 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code.
(E) Components of each consultation: When providing a consultation, the program administrator shall focus on the individual's needs, circumstances, and values and provide the individual with information about options available to meet the individual's needs, including all of the following information:
(1) The availability of any long-term care options open to the individual.
(2) Sources and methods of both private and public payment for long-term care services.
(3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available program, services, and benefits.
(4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and self-reliance, including support services provided by the individual's family, friends, and community.
(5) If the individual is a veteran, as defined in section 5901.01 of the Revised Code, or the spouse, surviving spouse, or representative of the veteran, the following additional information:
(a) The availability of health care or financial benefits through the United States department of veterans affairs.
(b) Information about congressionally-chartered veterans service organizations or the county veterans service office that can assist with investigating and applying for benefits through the United States department of veterans affairs.
(6) Support for the individual as the individual explores the range of options available, makes decisions about the appropriate services to meet the individual's needs, and creates a plan of care.
(F) At the conclusion of the consultation, the program administrator shall provide the individual (or the individual's representative) with a written or electronic summary of the options and resources discussed. The information the program administrator provides to an individual during a consultation is not binding. The individual may choose the long-term services and supports that best meet the individual's needs.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:47 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5122-21-03
(A) Purpose:
This rule sets forth a process for a state-contracted vendor and the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services to respectively evaluate and determine whether an individual with indications of serious mental illness (SMI) requires those services provided in a medicaid-certified nursing facility (NF), and if so whether that individual needs specialized services for mental illness that exceed NF services.
(B) Applicability:
This rule applies to individuals who have indications of SMI and are seeking admission into a NF, and for NF residents with indications of SMI who are seeking to continue residing in a NF. It also applies to individuals seeking readmission to a NF after having transferred from a NF to a hospital or unit that is licensed or certified by the department, and to individuals with indications of SMI who are transferring from one NF to another NF, with or without an intervening hospital stay.
(C) Definitions:
(1) An 'administrative letter' is a communication device in which the state declines to reconsider a previously issued PASRR determination to the individual or guardian. An administrative letter is not a new PASRR determination, thus it does not carry appeal rights.
(2) 'Adverse determination' means a determination made in accordance with rules 5160-3-15, 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code, that an individual does not require the level of services provided by a NF. This includes any PASRR determination issued by the department that allows a time-limited approval, such as a categorical, time specified, or an extension.
(3) 'Assessor' means a professional possessing a clinical licensure approved by the department's medical director to complete the level II PASRR evaluation.
(4) 'Attending Physician' means the physician whom an individual, or the family of an individual, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment of care of the individual, or if the individual or the individual's family has not assigned responsibility, the physician who has accepted responsibility.
(5) 'Business day' means a day of the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services" or "board" means the body constituted according to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, or a community mental health board or an alcohol and drug addiction services board as described in section 340.021 of the Revised Code; which have the same duties as described in section 340.03 of the Revised Code,
(7) 'Categorical determination' means a presumptive pre-admission screen (PAS) approval issued without the completion of a face to face assessment for an individual diagnosed with developmental disabilities (DD) or SMI.
(8) 'Department' means the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services.
(9) 'Developmental disability' (DD) has the same meaning defined in rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(10) 'DODD' means the Ohio department of developmental disabilities.
(11) 'Evaluation' also known as an assessment or a level II evaluation as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, includes a face to face interview between an assessor and the individual, their guardian, or authorized representative, if applicable. The purpose of an evaluation is to assess the individual's need for the level of services provided in a NF, and to assess whether the individual would need specialized services for mental illness if approved for NF services.
(12) 'Extension' is a time-limited approval for up to ninety days of additional stay in a NF, following a previously issued specified-period or extension approval, granted in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code. An extension is given solely to allow for effective discharge planning.
(13) 'Guardian' has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of Revised Code.
(14) 'Hospital exemption' (exempted hospital discharge) means the same as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(15) 'Indefinite approval is an approval that permits a NF to admit an individual diagnosed with SMI. Individuals admitted to a NF under an indefinite approval will be required to adhere to all PASRR requirements related to NF residents.
(16) 'Individual' in this rule means a person regardless of payment source, who is seeking admission, readmission, or transfer to a medicaid-certified NF or a facility in the process of becoming medicaid-certified NF.
(17) 'Level I' means the same as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(18) "Level II' means the combination of the disability-specific PASRR evaluation and the determination issued by DODD and/or the department.
(19) 'Level II determination' or "determination" in this rule means the department's finding of whether an individual diagnosed with SMI requires the level of services provided in a NF, and whether the individual requires specialized services for mental illness if found to require NF services.
(20) 'Long-term resident' means the same as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(21) 'Nursing facility' (NF) has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of Revised Code. A long-term care facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification by the Ohio department of health (ODH) and shall be treated as NF for purposes of this rule.
(22) 'Pre-admission screening' refers to the level I screening as defined in paragraph (B)(15) of rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(23) 'Psychiatric unit or hospital' refers to those facilities that are licensed or operated by the department.
(24) 'Reviewer' refers to a licensed mental health clinician who reviews the PASRR screen, supporting documents, the level II assessment, and the summary report to issue the state's determination of whether the individual requires NF services. If the determination is yes, then the reviewer indicates whether the individual needs specialized services for mental illness. If it is determined that the individual is not in need of NF services, then the reviewer may recommend community service that may address the individual's needs.
(25) 'Rule-out' means a determination made by the department that the individual is not subject to further review. An individual may be ruled-out at any time during the PASRR assessment when it is determined that the individual:
(a) Does not have SMI, even though the individual was diagnosed with mental illness.
(b) Has a primary diagnosis of dementia (including Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder);
(c) Has a non-primary diagnosis of dementia without a primary diagnosis that is a SMI; or,
(d) The individual has physician-ordered end-of-life services.
(26) 'Serious mental illness' (SMI) includes the following criteria regarding diagnosis, level of impairment and recent treatment:
(a) Diagnosis - The individual does not have dementia for which the treatment is considered primary, but has a major mental disorder diagnosable under the most recent edition of the "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders" (DSM); and this mental disorder includes, but is not limited to, one of the following: schizophrenia, mood, delusional (paranoid), panic or other severe anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, personality disorder, other psychotic disorder, or a mental disorder other than developmental disability that may lead to a chronic disability diagnosable under the DSM.
(b) Level of impairment - within the past six months, due to the mental disorder, the individual has experienced functional limitations on a continuing or intermittent basis in major life activities that would be appropriate for the individual's developmental stage.
(c) Recent treatment - the treatment history indicates that the individual has experienced at least one of the following:
(i) Psychiatric treatment more intensive than counseling and/or psychotherapy performed on an outpatient basis more than once within the past two years.
(ii) Within the last two years, due to the mental disorder, experienced an episode of significant disruption to the usual living arrangement, for which supportive services were required, or which resulted in intervention by housing or law enforcement officials; or
(iii) Is admitted to a psychiatric unit at the time of seeking NF services.
(27) 'Significant change in condition' means the same as is defined in rule 5160-03-15 of the Administrative Code.
(28) 'Specialized services for mental illness' mean those services specified by the PASRR determination for an individual diagnosed with SMI, which are arranged by the department and may be provided under the behavioral health services as described in rules 5160-8-05 and 5160-27-02 of the Administrative Code, which combined with services by the nursing facility, results in the continuous and aggressive implementation of an individualized plan of care in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 483.120, as in effect January 1, 2019.
(29) 'Specified determinations' is a time-limited approval that may be issued to a NF resident for a stay of up to one hundred eighty days, for the completion of prescribed therapies for which a NF is certified to provide, or to allow for effective discharge planning.
(D) The process by which the department receives referrals for determinations is:
(1) All individuals who are seeking admission into a NF, or who are seeking to continue residing in a NF after a RR triggering event, are required by federal and state regulations to undergo a level one PASRR screen to identify whether the individual possesses indications of SMI or DD
(2) All individuals identified in paragraph (D)(1) of this rule who are identified with indications or suspicion of SMI or DD during a level one PASRR screen are referred to the department or DODD, as appropriate, for a level II determination as set forth by this rule.
(E) Evaluation process:
The level II evaluation includes a face to face interview between the assessor and the individual with indication of SMI who is seeking admission into or to continue residing in a NF; and a review of the individual's medical or NF records to determine the individual's functional level. It may also include the assessor interviewing other professionals and any court-appointed guardian who might have in-depth knowledge of the individual.
(1) The required components of a level II evaluation are:
(a) The assessor will determine the need for and arrange for translation service to ensure the individual's or guardian's full participation throughout the evaluation.
(b) The assessor will inquire of the the individual or guardian whether there are family members or significant others who should be asked to participate in the evaluation. If yes, then the assessor will arrange to interview these individuals, if available.
(c) A comprehensive history and physical examination. The following areas must be included (if not previously addressed):
(i) Complete medical history;
(ii) Review of all body systems;
(iii) Specific evaluation of the person's neurological system in the areas of motor functioning, sensory functioning, gait, deep tendon reflexes, cranial nerves, and abnormal reflexes;
(iv) In the case of abnormal findings which are the basis for a NF placement, additional evaluations conducted by appropriate specialists;
(v) A comprehensive drug history including current or immediate past use of medications that could mask or mimic symptoms of mental illness; and,
(vi) A psychosocial evaluation of the person, including current living arrangements and medical and support systems;
(d) A comprehensive psychiatric evaluation including a complete psychiatric history, evaluation of general intellectual functioning, memory functioning, orientation, description of current attitudes and overt behaviors, affect, suicidal or homicidal ideation, paranoia degree of reality testing (presence and content of delusions), and hallucinations;
(e) A functional assessment of the individual's ability to engage in activities of daily living and the level of support that would be needed to assist the individual to perform these activities while living in the community. The assessment determines whether this level of services can be provided to the individual in an alternative community setting or whether the level of services needed is such that NF placement is required. The focus must be placed on whether the individual can perform the activities of daily living if given the opportunity. A refusal to perform the activity does not constitute an inability. The functional assessment must address at least the following:
(i) Self-monitoring of health status;
(ii) Self-administering and scheduling of medical treatment, including medication compliance;
(iii) Self-monitoring of nutritional status;
(iv) Handling money;
(v) Dressing appropriately; and,
(vi) Bathing and, grooming.
(f) Assessment for the need of specialized services, as defined in paragraph (C)(28) of this rule.
(2) The evaluation concludes with the submission of a written assessment summary in which the assessor reports their findings to the department, along with supporting documents acquired during the review of the individual's records.
(3) Personnel requirements related to the evaluation process are:
(a) The professionals approved to complete the history and physical examination must be in accordance with those listed in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Codes.
(b) In addition to those licensed clinicians listed in rule 5160-3-15.1 of the Administrative Code, individuals with the following licenses or credentials are eligible to be level II assessors for individuals with indications of SMI:
(i) Licensed independent marriage and family therapist;
(ii) Psychology intern;
(iii) Psychology fellow;
(iv) Psychology assistant;
(v) Psychologist;
(vi) Physician;
(vii) Registered nurse;
(viii) Licensed social worker;
(ix) Licensed independent social worker;
(x) Professional counselor; or,
(xi) Professional clinical counselor
(4) Level II evaluations may be moved to desk reviews, instead of a face to face interview between the assessor and the individual with indication of SMI who is seeking admission into or to continue residing in a NF, at the discretion of the department during the COVID-19 state of emergency declared by the governor.
(F) Pre-admission screen (PAS) determination process:
(1) A level II PAS determines whether the individual requires the level of services provided by a NF, based on a comprehensive analysis of all data; the review considers the most inclusive (least restrictive) placement and the need for specialized services for mental illness if NF services are required.
(2) Individualized determinations are performed on all individuals seeking NF services, except those individuals whose admission into a NF are based on categorical determination to require the level of services provided by a NF.
(3) A categorical determination presumes that the individual meets the criteria for NF services, and is defined in paragraph (C)(7) of this rule. A categorical determination does not indicate whether the individual requires specialized services for mental illness, and approves the individual to be admitted into a NF for limited periods as defined in the following categories:
(a) An 'emergency NF stay' is a temporary admission to a NF pending further assessment in emergency situations requiring protective services, with placement in a NF not to exceed seven days, in accordance with rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code. The individual must be admitted to a NF within twenty-four hours of determination or immediately following discharge from a hospital, for a period of no more than seven days; or
(b) A 'respite admission' permits the individual to be admitted into a NF for up to fourteen days, in accordance with rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code. The individual must be admitted to a NF within sixty days of determination for respite of no more than fourteen days and does not need specialized services for mental illness.
(4) Non-residents located within Ohio who are seeking admission to a medicaid-certified NF will be subject to the same standards as Ohio residents who are seeking NF services. If these individuals show indications of SMI upon completing the PASRR screen they will be scheduled for a level II evaluation and will be issued a determination from the department.
The department will not assess non-residents located in Ohio seeking admission into out-of-state NFs.
(G) Resident review (RR) determination process:
(1) A RR determines whether the individual who is already a NF resident requires the level of services provided by a NF, based on a comprehensive analysis of all data; the review considers the most inclusive (least restrictive) placement and the need for specialized services for mental illness if NF services are required.
(2) Individualized determinations are made on all NF residents seeking to continue residing in a NF.
(3) A resident review determination may conclude the following:
(a) The NF resident does require NF services. The determination would also indicate whether the resident requires specialized services for mental illness. If so, the determination would list the services that would meet the resident's needs.
(b) The NF resident does not require ongoing NF services but would benefit from a specified period (short-term) stay in the NF to allow for the completion of prescribed therapies. In this case, the determination would also indicate whether the NF resident requires specialized services for mental illness.
(c) The NF resident does not require NF services and is within an approved specified period and found to require an extension of the short-term stay to allow for effective discharge planning directly related to the resident's complex needs. In this case, the determination would also indicate whether the NF resident requires specialized services for mental illness.
(d) The NF resident does not require NF services, and is issued a PASRR determination requiring a transition to a more inclusive community option. In this case, the determination would make recommendations for needed supports, including behavioral health services and supports that may address the individual's needs during discharge planning, transition, and to sustain the individual in the community. The NF administration is required to issue a thirty-day notice to discharge the resident, according to rule 3701-61-03 of the Administrative Code.
(H) A determination that an individual needs specialized services for mental illness shall result in the aggressive implementation of an individualized plan of care approved by the medical director of the department or designee that:
(1) Is developed and supervised by an interdisciplinary team which includes a physician, trained mental health professionals and, as appropriate, other professionals;
(2) Prescribes specific therapies and treatment activities for an individual exhibiting symptom of SMI which necessitates supervision by trained mental health personnel;
(3) Is available in the community; and is time limited and directed toward diagnosing and reducing the individual's behavioral symptoms that necessitated intervention, improving the individual's level of independent functioning, and achieving a functioning level that permits an optimal quality of life.
(I) Notification:
(1) The department notifies the following entities or individuals when it issues a determination of findings in response to an individual who was suspected of possessing SMI and seeking NF services.
(a) The individual seeking NF services or court-appointed guardian.
(b) The NF administration.
(c) The individual's attending physician, if provided.
(d) The discharging hospital, except if the individual utilized the hospital exemption.
(2) The notice of findings includes the following information and is distributed to hospital discharge planners, NF administrations, individuals located in the community, or court-appointed guardians:
(a) A determination as to whether the individual was found to require NF level of services.
(b) A determination as to whether the individual requires specialized services for mental illness, if the individual was found to require NF services, and provides recommendations for community behavioral health services to individuals who were not found to require the level of services provided in a NF.
(c) Identifies the placement option that is the most inclusive in which the individual can access needed supports and services, that is consistent with the determination for the need for the level of NF services.
(d) Discharge arrangements, if applicable; and
(e) Appeal rights as outlined in paragraph (J) of this rule.
(3) The department will notify the community behavioral health boards of all instances when one of its residents applied to be admitted into or to continue residing in a NF. This will occur via the electronic board reporting function that is maintained within the department's PASRR data management system.
(a) The purpose of the board notification is to inform an individual's community of residence that the individual might benefit from access to community behavioral health services.
(b) The notification also presents the board with an opportunity to deter its resident from unnecessary institutionalization, or to facilitate effective discharge planning to allow the NF resident to transition to the community when the NF placement is inappropriate, or the NF resident chooses to reside in the community.
(4) Turnaround times:
(a) The department shall meet the national standard of issuing a determination on the annual average of seven to nine business days (approximately fourteen calendar days) from the point of receiving a referral.
(b) The department shall expedite issuing determinations associated with individuals being discharged from psychiatric units or hospitals that are licensed or operated by the department at the time of application. The department shall issue an expedited determinations within an average of forty-eight hours from the point of receiving a referral from an individual admitted to a psychiatric unit or hospital.
(5) Possible outcomes for a PASRR determination for an individual diagnosed with SMI seeking NF services:
(a) Yes NF/no specialized services
(b) Yes NF/yes specialized services
(c) No NF/no specialized services (may benefit from access to community services)
(J) Appeal rights:
(1) The individual or the court-appointed guardian may appeal an adverse PASRR determination issued by the department within the timeframes set forth in rule 5101:6-6-01 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The department may conduct an informal reconsideration of an adverse determination when notified by the bureau of state hearings (BSH) of a scheduled hearing, or upon a request from the individual and or court-appointed guardian to submit additional information.
(3) The department will work collaboratively with relevant staff at DODD to jointly reconsider an adverse determination issued to an individual diagnosed with SMI and DD.
(K) PASRR-compliance:
(1) The department will monitor the utilization of hospital exemptions associated with individuals who possess a diagnosis of mental illness.
(2) The department will monitor the following types of time-specified determinations for individuals diagnosed with SMI:
(a) A categorical emergency NF admission, as defined in paragraph (F)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) A categorical respite admission, as defined in paragraph (F)(3)(b) of this rule.
(c) A specified determination approval, as defined in paragraph (C)(29) of this rule.
(d) An extension, as defined in paragraph (C)(12) of this rule.
(3) Reporting instances of a failure to comply with PASRR requirements:
(a) All identified instances in which the department concludes that a NF administration failed to comply with PASRR requirements will be referred to ODM.
(b) Residents diagnosed with mental illness admitted to or retained in a NF who receive an adverse PASRR determination will be referred to the appropriate board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, on a case by case basis, for possible assistance with accessing needed community supports.
History
- Effective: November 21, 2020
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5123-14-01
(A) Purpose
This rule sets forth a process for the Ohio department of developmental disabilities and county boards of developmental disabilities to determine whether an individual is eligible for admission to a nursing facility or eligible to continue to receive services in a nursing facility.
(B) Scope
This rule applies to individuals who are seeking admission to a nursing facility who have indications of developmental disabilities, individuals who are residents of a nursing facility who have indications of developmental disabilities, and persons acting on behalf of these applicants or residents. This rule does not apply to individuals seeking readmission to a nursing facility after having transferred from a nursing facility to a hospital for care nor to individuals transferring from one nursing facility to another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital stay.
(C) Definitions
For the purposes of this rule, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) "Adverse determination" means a determination made in accordance with this rule and rules 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, and 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code, that an individual does not require the level of services provided by a nursing facility. A determination that an individual does not require nursing facility services shall meet both of the following conditions:
(a) An assessment of the individual conducted in person, by video conference, or by telephone and a review of the medical records accurately reflecting the individual's current condition is performed by one of the following professionals within the scope of his or her practice:
(i) Physician;
(ii) Registered nurse;
(iii) A person who holds a master of science in nursing degree;
(iv) Clinical nurse specialist;
(v) Certified nurse practitioner;
(vi) Licensed social worker, under supervision of a licensed independent social worker;
(vii) Licensed independent social worker;
(viii) Professional counselor, under supervision of a professional clinical counselor;
(ix) Professional clinical counselor;
(x) Psychologist;
(xi) Qualified intellectual disability professional; or
(xii) Service and support administrator.
(b) Authorized personnel from the department and/or the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services, other than the personnel identified in paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule who conducted the assessment, have reviewed the assessment and made the final determination regarding the need for nursing facility services and specialized services for developmental disabilities and/or specialized services for serious mental illness.
(2) "Business day" means a day of the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Categorical determination" means a preadmission screening determination which may be made for an individual with developmental disabilities and/or serious mental illness without first completing a full level II evaluation for developmental disabilities and/or level II evaluation for serious mental illness when the individual's circumstances fall within one of the following two categories:
(a) The individual requires an emergency nursing facility stay, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code; or
(b) The individual is seeking admission to a nursing facility for a respite nursing facility stay, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "County board" means a county board of developmental disabilities.
(5) "Department" means the Ohio department of developmental disabilities.
(6) "Developmental disabilities" means:
(a) A condition described in the American association on intellectual and developmental disabilities publication, "Intellectual Disability: Definition, Classification, and Systems of Supports" (eleventh edition, 2009); or
(b) A related condition which means a developmental disability as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code or a severe, chronic disability that meets all of the following conditions:
(i) It is attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other condition other than mental illness, found to be closely related to an intellectual disability because it results in impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior similar to that of persons with intellectual disability, and requires treatment or services; and
(ii) It is manifested before the person reaches the age of twenty-two; and
(iii) It is likely to continue indefinitely; and
(iv) It results in substantial functional limitations in three or more of the following areas of major life activity:
(a) Self-care;
(b) Understanding and use of language;
(c) Learning;
(d) Mobility;
(e) Self-direction;
(f) Capacity for independent living; or
(g) Economic self-sufficiency (for persons sixteen years and older).
(7) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Hospital discharge exemption" means an exemption from preadmission screening for a new admission, as defined in rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code, to a nursing facility. The discharging hospital shall request a hospital discharge exemption via the electronic system approved by the Ohio department of medicaid.
(9) "Individual" means a person who is seeking admission, readmission, or transfer to a nursing facility, or who resides in a nursing facility.
(10) "Level I screening" means the process by which the Ohio department of medicaid or its designee screens individuals who are seeking new admissions to identify those who have indications of developmental disabilities or serious mental illness, and who, therefore, shall be further evaluated by the department and/or the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services.
(11) "Level II evaluation for developmental disabilities" means the process by which the department determines:
(a) Whether, due to the individual's physical and mental condition, an individual who has developmental disabilities requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility or another type of setting; and
(b) When the level of services provided by a nursing facility is needed, whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities.
(12) "Level II evaluation for serious mental illness" means the process by which the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services determines:
(a) Whether, due to the individual's physical and mental condition, an individual who has serious mental illness requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility or another type of setting; and
(b) When the level of services provided by a nursing facility is needed, whether the individual requires specialized services for serious mental illness.
(13) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code. A long-term care facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of medicaid is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification by the Ohio department of health and shall be treated as a nursing facility for the purposes of this rule.
(14) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or osteopathy who is licensed to practice medicine.
(15) "Preadmission screening" means the preadmission portion of the preadmission screening and resident review requirements mandated by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect on the effective date of this rule, which shall be implemented in accordance with this rule and rules 5160-3-15.1 and 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(16) "Psychiatric hospital" means:
(a) A hospital that the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services maintains, operates, manages, and governs pursuant to section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of persons with mental illness; or
(b) A free-standing hospital or unit of a hospital, licensed by the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services pursuant to section 5119.33 of the Revised Code; or
(c) An out-of-state psychiatric hospital or psychiatric unit within an out-of-state hospital.
(17) "Resident review" means the resident review portion of the preadmission screening and resident review requirements mandated by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect on the effective date of this rule, which shall be implemented in accordance with this rule and rules 5160-3-15.2 and 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(18) "Resident review for developmental disabilities" means the process set forth in this rule by which the department determines whether, due to the individual's physical and mental condition, an individual who is subject to resident review, and who has developmental disabilities, requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility or another type of setting and whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities.
(19) "Ruled out" means that an individual has been determined not to be subject to further review by the department or the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services. An individual may be ruled out at any point in the preadmission screening and resident review process if the department or the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services finds that the individual being evaluated:
(a) Does not have developmental disabilities or serious mental illness; or
(b) Has a primary diagnosis of dementia (including Alzheimer's disease or a related disorder) which is not acute or due to another medical condition; or
(c) Has a non-primary diagnosis of dementia without a primary diagnosis of serious mental illness and does not have a diagnosis of developmental disabilities or a related condition.
(20) "Serious mental illness" has the same meaning as in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(21) "Specialized services for developmental disabilities" means the services or supports identified through the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities or the resident review for developmental disabilities. Specialized services for developmental disabilities shall be provided or arranged by the county board. Individuals determined through the processes set forth in this rule to require specialized services for developmental disabilities shall not be placed on a waiting list for such services. Specialized services for developmental disabilities shall be:
(a) Individualized;
(b) Based on person-centered assessment, rather than determined categorically based on disability or diagnosis;
(c) Made available at the frequency and intensity required to address the individual's specific needs in each of the areas of major life activity (i.e., self-care, understanding and use of language, learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent living, and economic self-sufficiency) for which functional limitations have been identified; and
(d) Unique services that support the individual's independence or reintegration to the community from an institutional setting (e.g., behavioral support) not otherwise available through the routine, rehabilitative services provided by the nursing facility.
(D) Referral for level II evaluation for developmental disabilities
(1) After completion of the level I screening, the Ohio department of medicaid or its designee shall forward a request for a level II evaluation for developmental disabilities for an individual who has indications of developmental disabilities to the department.
(a) The department shall complete the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities and make a determination regarding:
(i) A request for an individual relocating from outside of Ohio who is not an Ohio resident; or
(ii) A request for a categorical determination.
(b) The department shall forward requests other than those described in paragraph (D)(1)(a) of this rule to the county board of the county in which the request is initiated. When the county in which the request is initiated is not the county in which the individual resides and/or the county in which the nursing facility is located, the department shall notify the county board of the county in which the individual resides and the county board of the county in which the nursing facility is located. The county board of the county in which the request is initiated shall be responsible for completing the review and collaborating with the other county boards to agree on a recommendation.
(2) No one who has indications of developmental disabilities shall move into a nursing facility in Ohio until the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities determination has been made by the department.
(E) Level II evaluation for developmental disabilities conducted by county boards
(1) Within seven business days of receipt of the referral by the department of an individual for a level II evaluation for developmental disabilities, the county board shall gather data, complete an evaluation, and submit its recommendations in the form of a written evaluative report to the department regarding whether the individual has developmental disabilities and whether nursing facility services and specialized services for developmental disabilities are required.
(2) The county board shall be responsible for requesting any information necessary to make the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities and recommendations. The evaluation shall be based on relevant data that are valid, accurate, and reflect the current functional status of the individual being evaluated.
(3) Persons completing the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities shall not have a direct or indirect affiliation with a nursing facility.
(4) The level II evaluation for developmental disabilities shall involve the individual being evaluated, the individual's guardian, and the individual's family if available and if the individual or guardian agrees to family participation.
(5) The level II evaluation for developmental disabilities shall be adapted to the cultural background, language, ethnic origin, and means of communication used by the individual being evaluated.
(6) The level II evaluation for developmental disabilities has three components:
(a) Developmental disabilities assessment based on documentation of:
(i) The individual's intellectual functioning as measured by a psychologist or other related condition as identified by a physician.
(ii) A determination of whether the individual meets developmental disabilities eligibility criteria pursuant to section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.
(b) Nursing facility needs assessment based on evaluation of written documentation which shall include:
(i) The history and physical examination performed by a registered nurse, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, a person registered by the state medical board as a physician assistant pursuant to Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code, or a physician. If the history and physical examination are performed by someone other than a physician, a physician shall review and concur with the conclusions. If the history and physical examination are performed by a clinical nurse specialist or a certified nurse practitioner who has entered into a standard care arrangement with a collaborative physician in accordance with section 4723.431 of the Revised Code, physician review is only required as indicated in the standard care arrangement.
(ii) Current nursing care needs.
(iii) Current medications.
(iv) Current functional status including any therapy assessments and reports (e.g., physical therapy, speech therapy, occupational therapy, or respiratory therapy).
(v) Current social history, including current living arrangement prior to admission and any medical problems, including their impact on the individual's independent functioning.
(c) Specialized services for developmental disabilities needs assessment.
The county board shall evaluate and recommend whether the individual currently has a need for specialized services for developmental disabilities. The county board shall submit, via the department's web-based assessment center, the recommendation, the type of specialized services for developmental disabilities to be provided, and who will provide the specialized services for developmental disabilities. When a determination is made to admit or allow to remain in a nursing facility an individual who requires specialized services for developmental disabilities, the determination shall be supported by assurances that the specialized services for developmental disabilities will be provided while the individual resides in the nursing facility.
(7) If the individual does not meet developmental disabilities eligibility criteria, no further review by the county board is required; the county board shall submit documentation and a recommendation to the department that the individual be ruled out.
(8) The county board shall submit its recommendations in the form of a written evaluative report to the department regarding whether the individual has developmental disabilities and whether nursing facility services and specialized services for developmental disabilities are required. The report shall:
(a) Identify the name and professional title of the persons who performed the evaluations and the dates upon which the evaluations were performed;
(b) Provide a summary of the evaluated individual's medical and social history;
(c) If nursing facility services are recommended, identify the services which are required to meet the evaluated individual's needs;
(d) Identify whether specialized services for developmental disabilities are needed;
(e) Include the basis for the report's conclusions; and
(f) Include copies of the documentation gathered and reviewed in accordance with paragraph (E)(6) of this rule.
(9) The department may request additional information when necessary to make a determination.
(10) Within two business days of receipt of the county board's recommendations and documentation, the department shall determine:
(a) Whether the individual has developmental disabilities.
(b) Whether the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility based on a comprehensive analysis of all data and consideration of the most appropriate placement such that the individual's needs for treatment do not exceed the level of services that can be delivered in the nursing facility.
(c) Whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities.
(11) The department shall issue a determination in the form of a written report in accordance with paragraph (J) of this rule.
(12) One of two outcomes of the level II evaluation for developmental disabilities review is possible:
(a) The individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and therefore may be admitted to a nursing facility.
(b) The individual does not require the level of services provided by a nursing facility and therefore shall not be admitted to a nursing facility. The county board shall assist the individual and/or his or her guardian with alternative placement options, services, and resources as may be necessary to ensure the health and welfare of the individual.
(F) Referral for categorical determination
(1) The Ohio department of medicaid or its designee shall refer a request for a categorical determination made by or on behalf of an individual with developmental disabilities to the department.
(2) The department shall make a categorical determination that an individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility when:
(a) The individual is seeking admission to a nursing facility that is not to exceed a seven-day stay, pending further assessment in emergency situations requiring protective services, and such placement occurs within twenty-four hours from the date of the categorical determination or immediately following discharge from a hospital setting; or
(b) Within the next sixty days, the individual is seeking admission to a nursing facility for up to fourteen days of respite for the caregiver and plans to return to the caregiver at the end of the nursing facility stay.
(3) The department shall issue a determination in the form of a written report in accordance with paragraph (J) of this rule which:
(a) Identifies the name and professional title of the persons making the categorical determination and the date on which the determination was made;
(b) Documents the type of categorical determination made and describes the nature of any further screening that is required;
(c) Identifies, to the extent possible based on the available data, nursing facility services, including mental health or specialized psychiatric rehabilitative services, that may be needed; and
(d) Includes the basis for the report's conclusions.
(4) An individual who, on the basis of the categorical determination, requires the services provided by a nursing facility, shall not receive specialized services for developmental disabilities.
(G) Level II evaluation for developmental disabilities for individuals being directly admitted to a nursing facility from a psychiatric hospital
(1) The department or its designee shall complete a written evaluative report regarding:
(a) Whether the individual has developmental disabilities;
(b) Whether the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility based on a comprehensive analysis of all data and consideration of the most appropriate placement such that the individual's needs for treatment do not exceed the level of services that can be delivered in a nursing facility; and
(c) Whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities.
(2) The department shall issue a determination in the form of a written report in accordance with paragraph (J) of this rule.
(H) Resident review for developmental disabilities
(1) The nursing facility shall submit the resident review request to the department in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.2 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Upon receipt of the resident review request, the department shall notify the county board.
(3) Within seven business days of notification by the department, the county board shall gather data, complete an evaluation, and submit its recommendations and documentation to the department in accordance with the process set forth in paragraphs (E)(2) to (E)(8) of this rule.
(4) Within two business days of receipt of the county board's recommendations and documentation, the department shall determine whether the individual has developmental disabilities, whether the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility, and whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities in accordance with the process set forth in paragraphs (E)(9) to (E)(11) of this rule.
(5) Possible outcomes of the resident review for developmental disabilities include:
(a) A nursing facility resident with developmental disabilities who is determined to require the level of services provided by a nursing facility may continue to reside in the nursing facility.
(b) A nursing facility resident with developmental disabilities who has resided in a nursing facility for thirty months or longer who is determined not to require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but does require specialized services for developmental disabilities, may choose to continue to reside in the nursing facility or receive covered services in an alternative setting. The department shall inform the resident of the institutional and non-institutional alternatives covered in the state plan for medical assistance. If the resident chooses to leave the nursing facility, the department shall clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the state plan for medical assistance, including its effect on readmission to the nursing facility. Wherever the resident chooses to reside, the county board shall meet the resident's needs for specialized services for developmental disabilities as identified in the individual's service plan.
(c) A nursing facility resident with developmental disabilities who has resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty months who is determined not to require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but does require specialized services for developmental disabilities shall be discharged to an appropriate setting where the county board shall meet the resident's needs for specialized services for developmental disabilities as identified in the individual's service plan. The county board, in conjunction with the nursing facility, shall arrange for a safe and orderly discharge to an appropriate setting.
(d) A nursing facility resident with developmental disabilities who has resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty months who is determined not to require the level of services provided by a nursing facility shall be discharged. The county board, in conjunction with the nursing facility, shall arrange for a safe and orderly discharge to an appropriate setting.
(I) Coordination with the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services
The department shall coordinate with the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services on determinations for individuals who are subject to both level II evaluation for developmental disabilities or resident review for developmental disabilities and level II evaluation for serious mental illness or resident review for serious mental illness.
(J) Notification of determination of level II evaluation for developmental disabilities or resident review for developmental disabilities
(1) The department shall prepare a written report which includes:
(a) The determination as to whether the individual has developmental disabilities;
(b) The determination as to whether the individual requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility;
(c) The determination as to whether the individual requires specialized services for developmental disabilities that shall be provided or arranged for by the county board resulting in continuous active treatment to address needs in each of the life areas for which functional limitations are identified by the county board;
(d) The placement and/or service options that are available to the individual consistent with these determinations;
(e) Discharge arrangements, if applicable; and
(f) The right to appeal, as outlined in paragraph (L) of this rule.
(2) The department shall provide a copy of its written report to:
(a) The evaluated individual and when applicable, his or her guardian;
(b) The individual's attending physician;
(c) The admitting or retaining nursing facility for inclusion in the individual's medical record;
(d) The discharging hospital if the individual is seeking nursing facility admission from a hospital;
(e) The county board where the individual resides and when applicable, the county board where the nursing facility is located; and
(f) In the case of a resident review adverse determination, the Ohio department of medicaid.
(3) The department shall document all determinations in the individual's file which shall be maintained at the department.
(K) Hospital discharge exemption
(1) Upon notification from the Ohio department of medicaid or its designee of a nursing facility admission based on a hospital discharge exemption, the department shall begin to monitor the admission in accordance with rule 5160-3-15.1 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The department shall notify the county board in the individual's home county and when applicable, the county board where the nursing facility is located.
(3) The department may contact the nursing facility prior to the thirtieth day of the individual's stay to assess the need for a resident review.
(4) If the nursing facility indicates that the individual may need more than a thirty-day stay, the department shall request that the nursing facility initiate the resident review process.
(L) Appeals
(1) The individual or the individual's guardian may appeal adverse determinations made by the department within ninety calendar days of the date of determination by filing an appeal with the Ohio department of medicaid in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The department shall conduct an informal reconsideration of the case when notified of appeal or at the request of the individual or guardian.
(3) If the individual is subject to both level II evaluation for developmental disabilities or resident review for developmental disabilities and level II evaluation for serious mental illness or resident review for serious mental illness, the informal reconsideration and appeal shall be conducted jointly by the department and the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services.
History
- Effective: November 19, 2020
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-43-03
(A) The program administrator shall provide a consultation to an individual satisfying one or more of the following categories, unless paragraph (B) of this rule exempts the individual:
(1) An individual who applies, or indicates an intention to apply, for admission to a nursing facility.
(2) A nursing facility resident who was admitted under a categorical determination under rule 5160-3-15.1, 5122-21-03, or 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code, but has since been found to need a stay in a nursing facility that will exceed the time limits in those rules.
(3) An individual who contacts the program administrator to seek information about options available to meet long-term care needs.
(4) Any individual that ODA or the program administrator identifies as being likely to benefit from a consultation.
(B) The program administrator is not required to provide a consultation to an individual if any of the following is the case:
(1) The program administrator has attempted to provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's representative refuses to cooperate.
(2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility under a contract for continuing care, as defined in section 173.13 of the Revised Code.
(3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care in conjunction with one or more facilities providing a less-intensive level of services, including a residential care facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code; a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code providing accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; or an independent living arrangement.
(4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for the aged that is exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.
(5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 5165.07, 5165.511, or 5165.512 of the Revised Code.
(6) The individual is exempt from the requirement for a face-to-face level-of-care determination under rule 5160-3-14 of the Administrative Code.
(7) The individual is being admitted to a nursing facility directly from a hospital and the program administrator expects the individual to have a stay of thirty days or less based upon factors such as medical condition, probable need for long-term care services, history of hospitalizations, availability of informal supports, and awareness of options available to determine the appropriateness of the consultation.
(8) The program administrator determines that the individual has care needs clearly exceeding the services available to the individual in an alternative setting to the nursing facility based upon the availability of existing formal and informal support systems, the availability of potential formal and informal support systems, the functional abilities and limitations of the individual, the individual's diagnosis, the individual's prognosis, and the individual's plan of treatment, placing special emphasis on end-of-life treatment, because such a treatment is most likely an indicator that the individual will not benefit from a consultation.
(9) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility under a categorical determination or hospital discharge exemption under rule 5160-3-15 of the Administrative Code.
(10) The individual received a consultation from the program administrator within the previous one hundred twenty days.
(C) The source of payment for an individual's care in a nursing facility is not a factor in determining whether the program administrator may provide a consultation to an individual who resides in a nursing facility.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:47 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-43.1
(A) As used in this rule:
(1) "Annual facility average case mix score" is the score used to calculate the facility's cost per case-mix unit.
(2) "Assessment reference date (ARD)" is the last day of the observation (or "look back") period that the MDS 3.0 assessment covers for the resident.
(3) "Case mix report" is a report generated by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and distributed to the provider on the status of all MDS 3.0 assessment data that pertains to the calculation of a quarterly, semiannual, or annual facility average case mix score.
(4) "Comprehensive assessment" means an assessment that includes completion of the appropriate MDS 3.0 assessment type listed in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule.
(5) "Critical elements" are data items from a resident's MDS 3.0 that ODM verifies prior to determining a resident's resource utilization group (RUG) classification.
(6) "Critical errors" are errors in the MDS 3.0 critical elements that prevent ODM from determining the resident's RUG classification.
(7) "Default group" is the case mix group assigned to residents with MDS 3.0 records with inconsistent date fields, missing, incomplete, out of range, or inaccurate data, including inaccurate resident identifiers, any of which precludes grouping the record into non-default RUG groups.
(8) "Encoded," when used with reference to a record, means that the record has been recorded in electronic format. The record must be encoded in accordance with MDS 3.0 data submission specifications version 1.15.0.
(9) "Filing date" is the deadline for submission of the NF's MDS 3.0 assessment data that will be used to calculate the preliminary facility quarterly average case mix score. The filing date is the fifteenth calendar day following the reporting period end date (RPED).
(10) "MDS 3.0" is the uniform resident assessment instrument specified for use in Ohio pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 483.20 (October 1, 2014) for implementing standardized resident assessments and for facilitating care management in nursing facilities. The MDS 3.0 provides the core data elements used to group residents into case mix categories. It also includes Ohio-specific data elements, designated as section S. A copy of the section S requirements is available at http://medicaid.ohio.gov/PROVIDERS/ProviderTypes/LongTerm CareFacilities.aspx.
(11) "Medicare required assessment" means the MDS 3.0 that is required only for facilities participating in the medicare prospective payment system.
(12) "Other medicare required assessment (OMRA)" is an unscheduled MDS 3.0 prospective payment system (PPS) assessment required to be completed during a resident's medicare "Part A" SNF covered stay based on the start or cessation of rehabilitation services.
(13) "PPS assessment" is the MDS 3.0 that skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) use to assess the clinical condition for each medicare resident receiving "Part A" SNF level care for reimbursement under the SNF PPS.
(14) "Quarterly facility average total case mix score" is the facility average case mix score based on both medicaid and non-medicaid resident data submitted for one reporting quarter and calculated pursuant to paragraph (B)(1) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(15) "Quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score" is the facility average case mix score based on only medicaid resident data submitted for one reporting quarter and calculated pursuant to paragraph (B)(2) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(16) "Quarterly review assessment" means an assessment that is normally conducted no less than once every three months using the MDS 3.0.
(17) "Record" means a resident's encoded MDS 3.0 assessment as described in paragraphs (B)(1) to (B)(4) of this rule.
(18) "Relative resource weight" is the measure of the relative costliness of caring for residents in one case mix group versus another, indicating the relative amount and cost of staff time required on average for defined worker classifications to care for residents in a single case mix group. The methodology for calculating relative resource weights is described in paragraph (E) of rule 5160-3-43.2 of the Administrative Code.
(19) "Reporting period end date" (RPED) is the last day of each calendar quarter.
(20) "Reporting quarter" is the calendar quarter in which the MDS 3.0 is completed, as indicated by the assessment reference date in MDS 3.0 section A, item A2300, except as specified in paragraphs (C)(7) and (C)(8) of this rule.
(21) "Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)" is the MDS 3.0 used by NFs in Ohio to comply with regulations in 42 C.F.R. 483.20.
(22) "Resident case mix score" is the relative resource weight for the RUG group to which the resident is assigned based on data elements from the resident's MDS 3.0 assessment.
(23) "Resident identifier code" is an alternative resident identifier if the resident does not have a social security number. The resident identifier code shall be reported in MDS 3.0 section S, item S0150. The following method must be used to construct the identifier code:
(a) In the first three boxes, enter the first three letters of the resident's last name.
(b) In the next six boxes, enter the six digits of the resident's date of birth.
(c) Omit the century in the birth date.
(24) "RUG" is the resource utilization groups system of classifying NF residents described in paragraph (B) of rule 5160-3-43.2 of the Administrative Code. Resource utilization groups are clusters of NF residents defined by resident characteristics that correlate with resource use.
(a) For rates paid for services provided before July 1, 2016, the RUG version used in Ohio is version III (RUG III).
(b) For rates paid for services provided July 1, 2016 and thereafter, the RUG version used in Ohio shall be version IV (RUG IV).
(25) "Semiannual facility average medicaid case mix score" is the average of a facility's two quarterly facility average medicaid case mix scores. It is used to establish the direct care rate and is calculated pursuant to paragraph (E) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(B) For the purpose of assigning a RUG classification for determining medicaid payment rates for NFs, ODM shall utilize the data from the MDS 3.0. Each NF shall assess all residents of medicaid-certified beds using the appropriate MDS 3.0. When the assessment coincides with medicare assessment time frames, one assessment shall be used to satisfy both assessments. Admission assessments must be combined with either the medicare five day or medicare fourteen day assessment. For a resident who is not a new admission to the facility, the quarterly, annual, and significant change in status assessments must be combined with any medicare assessment if the assessment reference date (ARD) is within the assigned medicare observation period. When combining the assessments, the most stringent requirement for MDS completion must be met. ODM may not utilize the data in the other medicare required assessments (OMRAs) for calculating case mix scores or determining medicaid payment rates.
(1) Comprehensive assessments, medicare-required assessments, quarterly review assessments, and significant corrections of quarterly assessments must be conducted in accordance with the requirements and frequency schedule found at 42 C.F.R. 483.20.
(2) For a comprehensive assessment, NFs must use the MDS 3.0, including section S. The comprehensive assessment is completed as specified in the MDS 3.0 RAI manual. NFs must use the quarterly MDS 3.0, including section S, for the quarterly review assessment or a significant correction to a prior quarterly assessment. The nursing home PPS assessment must be used for all medicare required assessments.
(3) NFs must use the MDS 3.0 discharge item set for any residents who transfer or are discharged, and the MDS 3.0 tracking record for any residents entering or reentering or who died in the facility in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 483.20.
(4) NFs must use the MDS correction request in section X of the MDS 3.0 for modification or inactivation of MDS records that have been accepted into the CMS database.
(C) All NFs must submit to the CMS database encoded, accurate, and complete MDS 3.0 data for all residents of medicaid certified NF beds, regardless of pay source or anticipated length of stay.
(1) MDS 3.0 data completed in accordance with paragraphs (B)(1) to (B)(4) of this rule must be encoded in accordance with MDS 3.0 data submission specifications version 1.15.0.
(2) MDS 3.0 data must be encoded. The data may be submitted at any time during the reporting quarter that is permitted by instructions in the MDS 3.0 RAI manual. Except as provided in paragraph (D) of this rule, all records used in determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score must be submitted by the filing date.
(3) If a NF submits MDS 3.0 data needed for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score after the forty-fifth day after the RPED, ODM may assign a quarterly facility average total case mix score as set forth in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as set forth in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(4) MDS 3.0 data submitted by a provider that can not be timely extracted by ODM from the CMS data server may result in assignment of a quarterly facility average total case mix score as set forth in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as set forth in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(5) The annual facility average case mix score, quarterly facility average total case mix score, and quarterly and semiannual facility average medicaid case mix scores will be calculated using the MDS 3.0 record in effect on the RPED for:
(a) Residents who were admitted to the medicaid certified NF prior to the RPED and continue to be physically present in the NF on the RPED; and
(b) Residents who were admitted to the medicaid certified NF on the RPED; and
(c) Residents who were temporarily absent on the RPED but are considered residents and for whom a return is anticipated from hospital stays, visits with friends or relatives, or participation in therapeutic programs outside the facility.
(6) Records for residents who were permanently discharged from the NF, transferred to another NF, or expired prior to or on the RPED will not be used for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score.
(7) For a resident admitted within fourteen days prior to the RPED, and whose initial assessment is not due until after the RPED, both of the following shall apply:
(a) The NF shall submit the appropriate initial assessment as specified in 42 C.F.R. 483.20 and in the MDS 3.0 RAI manual.
(b) The initial assessment, if completed and submitted timely in accordance with paragraphs (C)(1) and (C)(2) of this rule, shall be used for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and may be used for determining the quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score in the quarter the resident entered the facility even if the assessment reference date is after the RPED provided the record is identified as a medicaid record pursuant to the calculation methodology in rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(8) For a resident who had at least one MDS 3.0 assessment completed before being transferred to a hospital, then reenters the NF within fourteen days prior to the RPED, and has experienced a significant change in status that requires a comprehensive assessment upon reentry, the following shall apply:
(a) The NF shall submit a significant change assessment within fourteen days of reentry, as indicated by the MDS 3.0 assessment reference date (MDS 3.0, item A2300).
(b) The significant change assessment shall be used for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and may be used for determining the quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score for the quarter in which the resident reentered the facility even if the assessment reference date is after the RPED provided the record is identified as a medicaid record pursuant to the calculation methodology in rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Corrections to MDS 3.0 data must be made in accordance with the requirements in the MDS 3.0 RAI manual.
(1) For use in determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score, the facility must transmit the corrections to the CMS database no later than forty-five days after the RPED.
(2) For use in determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score, all significant correction assessments must contain an assessment reference date within the reporting quarter.
(3) The provider shall submit an accurate, encoded MDS 3.0 record for each resident in a medicaid certified bed on the RPED.
(a) The provider shall transmit MDS assessments that were completed timely but omitted from the previous transmissions and ODM shall use the resident case mix scores from the assessments for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score, and may use them for determining the quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score if the assessments are transmitted no later than forty-five days after the RPED provided the record is identified as a medicaid record pursuant to the calculation methodology in rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code. If the assessments are not transmitted within forty-five days after the RPED, ODM may assign a default group for those records.
(b) The provider shall notify ODM within forty-five days of the RPED of any records for residents in medicaid certified beds on the RPED that were not completed timely and were not transmitted to the CMS database. ODM may assign default scores to those records.
(c) The provider has forty-five days after the RPED to transmit the appropriate discharge assessment to the CMS database if more residents are determined to be in the facility on the RPED than the number of medicaid certified beds in the facility on that same date. If the facility does not correct the error within forty-five days after the RPED, ODM may assign a quarterly facility average total case mix score as specified in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as specified in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(d) The provider shall notify ODM within forty-five days of the RPED of any residents who were reported to be residents of the facility on the RPED, but who had actually been discharged prior to the RPED. If the provider fails to correct the error within forty-five days after the RPED, ODM may assign a quarterly facility average total case mix score as specified in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as specified in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(e) The provider has forty-five days after the RPED to submit appropriate modifications or discharge assessments to rectify any discrepancy between the records selected for determining the quarterly facility average total case mix score and the facility census on the RPED. If the facility does not correct the error(s) within forty-five days after the RPED, ODM may assign a quarterly facility average total case mix score as specified in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as specified in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
(4) If the provider's number of records assigned to the default group in accordance with paragraphs (D)(3)(a) and (D)(3)(b) of this rule is greater than ten per cent, ODM may assign a quarterly facility average total case mix score as specified in paragraph (C)(3) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code and a quarterly facility average medicaid case mix score as specified in paragraph (D)(4) of rule 5160-3-43.3 of the Administrative Code.
History
- Effective: March 1, 2016
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-15
(A) The purpose of this rule is to set forth the definitions for terms contained in rules 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Definitions:
(1) "Adverse determination" means a determination made in accordance with rules 5160-3-15.1, 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code, that an individual does not require the level of services provided by a nursing facility or that the individual does or does not require specialized services.
(2) "Attending Physician" means the physician to whom a person, or the family of a person, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment or care of the person or, if the person or the person's family has not assigned that responsibility, the physician who has accepted that responsibility.
(3) "Categorical determination" means a preadmission level II determination which may be made for an individual without a face to face assessment for an individual diagnosed with a serious mental illness (SMI) and/or developmental disability (DD) as defined in paragraphs (B)(6) and (B)(28) of this rule when the individual's circumstances fall within one of the following two categories:
(a) The individual requires an 'emergency nursing facility stay', as defined in paragraph (B)(7) of this rule;
(b) The individual is seeking admission to a nursing facility for a 'respite nursing facility stay' as defined in paragraph (B)(26) of this rule.
(4) "Community" for PASRR purposes means a new admission from a setting other than a nursing facility, Ohio hospital or a unit of a hospital that is not operated by or licensed by the Ohio department of mental health and addiction services (OhioMHAS).
(5) "Current diagnoses" means a written medical determination by the individual's attending physician, whose scope of practice includes diagnosis, listing those diagnosed conditions which currently impact the individual's health and functional abilities. To be considered current, the written documentation of the diagnoses must reflect the diagnoses assigned by the individual's attending physician within one hundred eighty calendar days of submission for the preadmission screening review certifying that the listed diagnoses are an accurate reflection of the individual's current condition.
(6) "Developmental disability (DD)." An individual is considered to have a DD when he or she meets the conditions described in rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Emergency nursing facility stay" refers to the temporary admission of an individual to a nursing facility pending further assessment in emergency situations requiring protective services as defined in rule 5101:2-20-01 of the Administrative Code, with placement in a nursing facility not to exceed seven days.
(8) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(9) "Hospital discharge exemption," also known as hospital exemption means an exemption from the preadmission screening as defined in paragraph (B)(21) of this rule, when an individual meets the hospital discharge exemption criteria in rule 5160-3-15.1 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Indications of developmental disabilities (DD)." An individual shall be considered to have indications of developmental disabilities when the individual meets the criteria specified in rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code or the individual receives services from a county board of DD.
(11) "Indications of serious mental illness (SMI)." An individual shall be considered to have indications of an SMI when the individual meets the criteria specified in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(12) "Individual," for the purposes of this rule, means a person, regardless of payment source, who is seeking admission, readmission or transfer to a medicaid certified nursing facility, or who resides in a medicaid certified nursing facility or facility in the process of becoming medicaid certified as a nursing facility.
(13) "Level I" or "level I screening" refers to the initial screening that must be given to all individuals seeking new admission as defined in paragraph (B)(17) of this rule to a medicaid-certified nursing facility, regardless of payor source, for the purpose of identifying individuals who may have or are suspected to have indications of a DD as defined in paragraph (B)(10) of this rule and/or a SMI as defined in paragraph (B)(11) of this rule.
(14) "Level II entities" refers to the state level II authorities which is the OhioMHAS and the Ohio department of developmental disabilities (DODD).
(15) "Level II" or "level II evaluation" refers to the in-depth evaluation of an individual that has been identified as having indications or suspected of having indications of a DD and/or a SMI as defined in paragraphs (B)(10) and (B)(11) of this rule by the level I screening outcome. The level II entity must confirm or disconfirm the existence of a DD and/or a SMI and make a written determination of the following:
(a) The individual's need or continued need for nursing facility services as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule; and
(b) If the nursing facility is or continues to be the most appropriate setting to meet the individual's long-term care needs; and
(c) Identification and recommendation for specialized services as defined in paragraphs (B)(30) and/or (B)(31) of this rule, if any, that would be needed for the individual during the individual's nursing facility stay.
(16) "Long-term resident" means an individual who has continuously resided in a nursing facility or a consecutive series of nursing facilities and/or medicare skilled nursing facilities for at least thirty months prior to the first resident review determination in which the individual was found not to require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but to require specialized services as defined in paragraphs (B)(30) and (B)(31) of this rule. The thirty months may include temporary absences for hospitalization, therapeutic leave, or visits with family or friends as defined in rule 5160-3-16.4 of the Administrative Code.
(17) "New admission" means the admission to an Ohio medicaid certified nursing facility of an individual:
(a) Who was not a resident of any nursing facility immediately preceding:
(i) The current nursing facility admission; or
(ii) A hospital stay for which the individual is to be admitted directly to a nursing facility;
(b) Seeking admission or admitted to a nursing facility from another state, regardless of prior residence; or
(c) Is transferred or readmitted from a nursing facility following an:
(i) Adverse level II or a resident review determination; or
(ii) Overruled appeal of an adverse level II determination.
(d) For PASRR purposes only and effective on the date the facility submits its application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of medicaid, individuals seeking admission to, or who are currently residing in, a facility that is in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification by Ohio department of health, and
(e) With the exception of those circumstances specified in paragraphs (B)(17)(a) to (B)(17)(c) of this rule, nursing facility transfers and readmissions as defined in paragraphs (B)(20) and (B)(24) of this rule are not considered to be new admissions for the purposes of this rule.
(18) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code. A long term care facility that has submitted an application packet for medicaid certification to the Ohio department of medicaid is considered to be in the process of obtaining its initial medicaid certification by the Ohio department of health and shall be treated as a nursing facility for the purposes of this rule.
(19) "Nursing facility level of service" for the purposes of PASRR means a determination made by the DODD and/or OhioMHAS in accordance with rules 5123-14-01 and 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code as required by section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect July 1, 2019 that the individual's need for treatment does not exceed the level of services which can be delivered by the nursing facility to which the individual is seeking admission or is currently admitted to either through nursing facility services alone or, where necessary, through nursing facility services supplemented by specialized services provided by or arranged for by the state.
(20) "Nursing facility transfer." A nursing facility transfer occurs when an individual is transferred from any Ohio medicaid certified nursing facility to another Ohio medicaid certified nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital stay.
(21) "Preadmission screening" refers to the level I screening as defined in paragraph (B)(13) of this rule and when applicable the completion of the level II evaluation as defined in paragraph (B)(15) of this rule that results in a PASRR determination from the DODD and/or OhioMHAS administered prior to the individuals admission to the nursing facility.
(22) "PASRR" means the preadmission screening and resident review of individuals for the purposes of identifying individuals with serious mental illness as defined in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code and/or a developmental disability as defined in rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code and required by the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C 1396r(e)(7).
(23) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or osteopathy who is licensed to practice medicine.
(24) "Readmission" means the individual is readmitted to the same nursing facility from a hospital to which he or she was sent for the purpose of receiving care.
(25) "Resident review " is a post admission level II evaluation as defined in paragraph (B)(15) of this rule that results in a determination for nursing facility residents which must be implemented upon a significant change in condition as defined in paragraph (B)(29) of this rule and in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the Social Security Act, as in effect on July 1, 2019, which must be implemented in accordance with rules 5160-3-15.2, 5122-21-03 and 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
(26) "Respite nursing facility stay" means the admission of an individual to a nursing facility for a maximum of fourteen days in order to provide respite to in-home caregivers to whom the individual is expected to return following the respite stay.
(27) "Ruled out" means a determination made by the DODD and/or the OhioMHAS that the individual is not subject to further review. An individual may be ruled out at any time during the PASRR assessment when it is determined that the individual:
(a) Does not have a DD and/or SMI; or
(b) Has a primary diagnosis of dementia (including alzheimer's disease or a related disorder); or
(c) Has a non-primary diagnosis of dementia without a primary diagnosis that is a SMI, and does not have a diagnosis of a DD or a related condition.
(28) "Serious mental illness" means an individual meets the conditions described in rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code.
(29) "Significant change of condition" means any major decline or improvement in the individual's physical or mental condition, as described in 42 C.F.R. 483.20, as in effect on July 1, 2019 and when at least one of the following criteria is met:
(a) There is a change in the individual's current diagnosis(es), mental health treatment, functional capacity, or behavior such that, as a result of the change, the individual who did not previously have indications of a SMI, or who did not previously have indications of a DD, now has such indications; or
(b) The change is such that it may impact the mental health treatment or placement options of an individual previously identified as having SMI and/or may result in a change in the specialized services needs of an individual previously identified as having a DD.
(30) "Specialized services for serious mental illness" means those services specified by the level II or the resident review determination for an individual with a SMI which are arranged by OhioMHAS in accordance with rule 5122-21-03 of the Administrative Code and may be provided under the behavioral health services as described in rules 5160-8-05 and 5160-27-02 of the Administrative Code, which when combined with services by the nursing facility, results in the continuous and aggressive implementation of an individualized plan of care in accordance with 42 CFR 483.120, as in effect July 1, 2019.
(31) 'Specialized services for developmental disabilities' means the services or supports specified by the level II or the resident review determination for an individual with a DD which is provided or arranged for by the county board of DD in accordance with rule 5123-14-01 of the Administrative Code.
History
- Effective: December 30, 2019
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-43-04 Long-term care consultation program: deadlines.
(A) The program administrator shall complete every consultation no later than ten days after it receives a request for the consultation, unless an exception under paragraph (B) of this rule applies.
(B) Exceptions to the deadline in paragraph (A) of this rule:
(1) If the deadline in paragraph (A) of this rule falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday listed in section 1.14 for the Revised Code, the deadline is the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday rather than the deadline in paragraph (A) of this rule.
(2) If an individual or the individual's representative requests a consultation after the deadline in paragraph (A) of this rule, the program administrator shall provide the consultation at a time that is mutually agreed to between the individual, or the individual's representative, and the program administrator and retain a record on the reason why the program administrator was not able to provide the consultation before the deadline.
(3) If the program administrator cannot complete the consultation before the deadline in paragraph (A) of this rule, the program administrator shall provide the long-term care consultation as soon as is practicable and retain a record on the reason why the program administrator was not able to provide the consultation before the deadline.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 8:47 AM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-43-05 Long-term care consultation program: staff certification.
(A) Section 173.42 of the Revised Code permits a person to provide a consultation only if ODA certifies the person.
(B) Qualifications for certification: ODA may certify a person to provide consultations only if the person meets all of the following qualifications, unless paragraph (C) of this rule applies:
(1) The person is an employee of the program administrator.
(2) The person meets at least one of the following qualifications:
(a) The person has a current, valid license to practice as a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN) under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, including an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
(b) The person has a current, valid license under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a licensed independent social worker (LISW), licensed social worker (LSW), an LISW or LSW from a member state with an unencumbered multistate license under section 4757.52 of the Revised Code, or a current, valid license to practice in a related profession upon approval by ODA.
(c) The person has a current, valid registration as a social worker trainee, as defined in rule 4757-3-01 of the Administrative Code.
(d) The person has a bachelor of arts degree or a bachelor of science degree and also possesses at least one year of experience in one or both of the following:
(i) Providing individuals with information about options available to meet long-term care needs or providing individuals with related information such as that which is provided through information and referral, information and assistance.
(ii) Managed care experience or other such healthcare experience related to individuals' long-term care needs.
(e) The person has at least three years of experience in one or both of the following:
(i) Providing individuals with information about options available to meet long-term care needs or providing individuals with related information such as that which is provided through information and referral, information and assistance.
(ii) Managed care experience or other such healthcare experience related to individuals' long-term care needs.
(3) The person is not an employee of a provider of long-term services and supports.
(4) The person is not disqualified for a paid direct-care position under Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Consultants moving to Ohio from other states: Section 173.422 of the Revised Code establishes a requirement for ODA to certify an applicant from the uniformed services or another state according to Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code if the applicant meets all the following conditions:
(1) The applicant is an employee of the program administrator.
(2) The applicant is not disqualified from a paid direct-care position under Chapter 173-9 of the Administrative Code or section 173.38 of the Revised Code.
(3) The applicant meets the qualifications in section 4796.03, 4796.04, or 4796,05 of the Revised Code.
(D) General standards regarding certification:
(1) ODA shall notify the program administrator of the date that it certifies a person to provide long-term care consultations.
(2) If, at any time, a certified person no longer qualifies for certification under paragraph (B) or (C) this rule, the person shall not provide another long-term care consultation until the person qualifies under this rule.
(3) Training:
(a) The program administrator shall train and orient each certified person on the following topics:
(i) Local availability of publicly-financed and privately-financed long-term care options, programs, services, and benefits.
(ii) Factors to consider when choosing among available options.
(iii) Opportunities and methods for individuals to maximize independence and self-reliance.
(iv) The availability of health care or financial benefits through the United States department of veterans affairs.
(v) How to refer an individual to a congressionally-chartered veterans service organization or the county veterans service office.
(b) Each certified person shall successfully complete fifteen clock hours of professional development every two years after the date ODA certified the person on topics relevant to the duties involved in providing a consultation. This requirement does not apply to any person who qualified to be a consultant under paragraph (B)(2)(a) or (B)(2)(b) of this rule.
(4) For each certified person, the program administrator shall retain records demonstrating compliance with this rule.
Last updated October 1, 2024 at 9:42 AM
History
- Effective: October 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 4757-3-01
The following meanings shall apply to all rules promulgated by the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapy board, unless in a specific paragraph under one of the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board rules, the word or term is explicitly defined or used in different manner.
(A) The terms "practice of professional counseling," "clinical counseling principles, methods, or procedures," "social work," "accredited educational institution," and "mental and emotional disorders" shall for the purposes of board rules have the same meanings as set forth in section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) The terms "renewal," "renewed," "license," and "licensee" shall for the purposes of board rules have the same meanings as set forth in section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Agency" means an organization, which has a clearly defined mission statement with goals and objectives that include the provision of counseling, social work, and/or marriage and family therapy services, and which is recognized by a unit of government or others authorized to legitimize its functions. In addition, it shall have clearly defined lines of authority, a formal decision-making process, and differentiated staff roles with written job descriptions. Agency settings include private non-profit organizations, public organizations, and others approved by the board, that are engaged in the practice of social work, counseling, and/or marriage and family therapy. Settings in which social work, counseling, and/or marriage and family therapy is practiced as a private practitioner, as a member of a partnership, or as a member of a group practice are not included.
(D) "Applicant" means an individual who has:
(1) Filed with the executive director of the board a completed application for licensure as a licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed professional counselor, independent marriage and family therapist, marriage and family therapist, independent social worker, social worker, or for registration of title as a social work assistant, or for registration as a trainee, on forms prescribed by the board; and
(2) Paid the appropriate fee, if applicable.
(E) "Application" means an online application or a written application, in a form prescribed by the board, filed with the executive director of the board, wherein the applicant has provided all the information required for processing the licensure application.
(F) "Art therapy" means the practice of professional art therapy as defined in division (K) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code for a fee, salary, or other consideration.
(G) "Board" means the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board. When the board is cited that may be the full board or one of the appropriate professional standards committees.
(H) "Board office" means the business office of the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board.
(I) "Book" means a non-fiction, non-self published work of scholarship published in a bound or electronic format.
(J) "Civil service employee" means an individual employed by the state, the counties, cities, city health districts, general health districts, and city school districts thereof, as defined in division (A) of section 124.01 the Revised Code.
(K) "Counseling" means the practice of professional counseling as defined in division (A) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code for a fee salary, or other consideration.
(L) "Coursework" means a college or university course at an accredited educational institution in which the applicant was enrolled for credit.
(1) "Graduate coursework" means any coursework taken for a grade that meets the requirements of a post-baccalaureate degree and in which the applicant was enrolled after receiving their baccalaureate degree.
(2) "Undergraduate coursework" means any coursework taken for a grade which is recognized by the granting institution as undergraduate coursework in which the applicant received a passing grade.
(M) "Employee," "employed," "employment," and "experience" all refer to work for a fee or salary, not including practicum and/or internship experiences taken as part of an educational program, which falls within the scope of practice of the license for which the applicant is applying.
(N) "Ethics continuing education" means a continuing education program that covers ethical requirements (including cultural competency) as defined in Chapter 4757-5 and Chapter 4757-6 of the Administrative Code.
(O) "Inactive-Escrow" means a non-practice license status whereby by the license may at some point in the future be reinstated as active.
(P) "License fee" means the fee(s) established by the board for the processing of applications and/or the issuance of licenses as specified in rule 4757-1-05 of the Administrative Code.
(Q) "Master's degree in social work" means a degree granted from an educational institution accredited by the council on social work education or an educational institution in candidacy for accreditation by the council.
(R) "Music therapy" means the practice of professional music therapy or providing music therapy services as defined in division (M) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code for a fee, salary, or other consideration.
(S) "Private practice" and "private practitioner" mean an individual who independently, in partnership, or in corporation practices counseling, social work, or marriage and family therapy as defined in section 4757.01 of the Revised Code and sets up his/her own condition of exchange with those clients, and identifies himself/herself in any manner as a counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapist in offering such services. Licensed professional counselors and marriage and family therapists shall do so under supervision as required by sections 4757.21 and 4757.30 of the Revised Code. Social workers may not engage in private practice per division (C) of section 4757.26 of the Revised Code.
(T) "Scope of practice" means the services, methods, and techniques, in which and the areas for which, an individual is licensed or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code and under agency 4757 of the Administrative Code (agency 4757 of the Administrative Code is reserved for the counselor, social worker and marriage and family therapist board).
(U) "Social work" means the application of specialized knowledge of human development and behavior and social, economic, and cultural systems in directly assisting individuals, families, and groups to improve or restore their capacity for social functioning, including counseling, the use of psychosocial interventions, and social psychotherapy for a fee, salary, or other consideration.
(1) "Psychosocial interventions" means the application of social work that involves individual, dyadic, family, or group interventions that utilize treatment modalities such as a family systems therapy, client centered advocacy, environmental modifications, community organization and/or organizational change. These modalities are implemented in crisis, short-term, and long-term therapeutic interventions directed at reducing, increasing, enhancing, maintaining, or changing target behaviors, areas of functioning, or environmental structures or processes.
(2) "Counseling", within the practice of social work, means a method used by social workers to assist individuals, couples, families, and groups in learning how to solve problems and make decisions about personal, health, social, educational, vocational, financial, and other interpersonal concerns.
(3) "Social psychotherapy" means the application of social work toward the goal of enhancement and maintenance of psychosocial functioning of individuals, families, and small groups. It includes interventions directed to interpersonal interactions, intra-psychic dynamics, and life-support and management issues. It also includes the professional application of social work theory and methods to the treatment and prevention of psychosocial dysfunction, disability, or impairment, including mental and emotional disorders. Social psychotherapy consists of assessment; diagnosis; treatment, including psychotherapy and counseling; consultation; and evaluation.
(4) "Social services" means those activities which improve and maintain an individual's functioning in institutions, at home, or in the community and which do not require the specialized knowledge of social work, counseling, psychosocial interventions, or social psychotherapy. For individuals performing only social services licensure is not required pursuant to Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.
(5) "Social Functioning" means living up to the expectations that are made of an individual by that person's own self, by the immediate social environment, and by society at large. These expectations, or functions, include meeting one's own basic needs and the needs of one's dependents and making positive contributions to society. Human needs include physical aspects (food, shelter, safety, health care, and protection), personal fulfillment (education, recreation, values, aesthetics, religion, and accomplishment), emotional needs (a sense of belonging, mutual caring, and companionship), and an adequate self-concept (self-confidence, self-esteem, and identity).
(V) For the purpose of the counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board rules and the licenses granted under them, the board adopts the following titles and meanings:
(1) "Licensed Professional Counselor" means a counselor licensed by the board to practice professional counseling as defined in division (A) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Licensed Professional Clinical Counselor" means a counselor licensed by the board to practice professional counseling and the unsupervised diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional disorders and conditions as defined in division (A) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) "Independent Social Worker" means a social worker licensed by the board to practice social work as defined in division (C) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Social Worker" means a social worker licensed by the board to practice social work as defined in division (C) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(5) "Registered Social Work Assistant" means an individual issued a certificate of registration by the board in accordance with division (C) of section 4757.29 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Independent Marriage and Family Therapist" means a marriage and family therapist licensed by the board to practice marriage and family therapy as defined in division (G) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(7) "Marriage and Family Therapist" means a marriage and family therapist licensed by the board to practice marriage and family therapy as defined in division (G) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Licensed Professional Art Therapist" means an art therpist licensed by the board to practice art therapy as defined in division (J) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(9) "Licensed Professional Music Therapist" mean a music therapist licensed by the board to practice music therapy as defined in division (L) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Licensed Professional Counselor with training supervision designation" means a counselor who has been licensed by the board to practice professional counseling as defined in division (A) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code and been awarded a training supervision designation per paragraph (E) of rule 4757-17-01 of the Administrative Code.
(11) "Licensed Professional Clinical Counselor with training supervision designation" means a counselor licensed by the board to practice professional counseling and the unsupervised diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional disorders and conditions as defined in division (A) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code and been awarded a training supervision designation per paragraph (E) of rule 4757-17-01 of the Administrative Code.
(12) "Independent Social Worker with training supervision designation" means a social worker licensed by the board to practice social work as defined in division (C) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code and been awarded a training supervision designation per paragraph (D) of rule 4757-23-01 of the Administrative Code.
(13) "Independent Marriage and Family Therapist with training supervision designation" means an independent marriage and family therapist licensed by the board to practice marriage and family therapy as defined in division (H) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code and been awarded training supervision designation per paragraph (F) of rule 4757-29-01 of the Administrative Code.
(W) "Counseling experience" means the applicant's primary employment responsibility was in counseling, supervision of a counseling program, or direct involvement in the administration or policy division of a counseling program.
(X) "Counselor trainee" means an individual who is a graduate student seeking voluntary registration per section 4757.10 of the Revised Code and has filed a training agreement with the board per rule 4757-13-09 of the Administrative Code and who is currently enrolled in either a practicum or internship in a counselor education program as defined in paragraph (A)(4) of rule 4757-13-01 of the Administrative Code.
(Y) "Doctoral internship" means a doctoral internship which is taken in a counselor education program which is approved by the counselor professional standards committee or at a counselor education program which meets the criteria of a committee approved program.
(Z) "Impaired or impairment" means the presence of the disorder of alcoholism, substance abuse, mental illness or other debilitating conditions.
(AA) "Impaired treatment program" means a plan of care and rehabilitation services provided by organizations or persons authorized by the board to provide such services.
(BB) "Impairment program" means a program for the prevention, detection, intervention, rehabilitation, and monitoring of impaired counselors, social workers or marriage and family therapists.
(CC) "Practice of marriage and family therapy" means the practice of marriage and family therapy as defined in division (H) of section 4757.01 of the Revised Code, for a fee, salary or other consideration.
(DD) "Client" as used in agency 4757 of the Administrative Code, means a patient or consumer of services or that person's legal guardian, or any other receiver of mental health services.
(EE) "Social worker trainee" means an individual who is a graduate student seeking voluntary registration per section 4757.10 of the Revised Code and rule 4757-19-05 of the Administrative Code and is currently enrolled in a master's level practicum, internship or field work course in a social work education program accredited by the "Council on Social Work Education" (CSWE) or an educational institution in candidacy for accreditation by the council.
(FF) "Independent Contractor" means an individual who meets the internal revenue service (IRS) definition as an independent contractor in (IRS) publication 15-A, which can be found at http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-pdf/p15a.pdf.
(GG) "Peer Supervision" means the joint or mutual discussion of issues in supervision by supervising counselors for the purpose of improving the quality of supervision.
(HH) "First-hand knowledge" means the direct knowledge of a supervisee's work through audio tape and/or video tape and/or live supervision.
(II) "Teletherapy" means counseling, social work or marriage and family therapy in any form offered, rendered, or supported by electronic or digitally-assisted approaches, to include when the counselor, social worker or marriage and family therapist and the client are not located in the same place during delivery of services or when electronic systems or digitally-assisted systems are used to support in-person face to face therapy.
(JJ) "Marriage and Family Therapist trainee" means an individual who is a graduate student seeking voluntary registration per section 4757.10 of the Revised Code, and has filed a training agreement with the board per rule 4757-25-08 of the Administrative Code and is currently enrolled in either a practicum or internship in a marriage and family therapy education program as defined in paragraph (A) of rule 4757-25-01 of the Administrative Code.
(KK) "Late completion of continuing education" for counselor, social worker, or marriage and family therapy licensure renewal required under section 4757.33 of the Revised Code and by rules 4757-9-01, 4757-9-02 and 4757-9-03 of the Administrative Code means an active licensee renewed their license or registration without completing the requisite continuing education hours, which they swore or affirmed in their renewal application that they had obtained.
(LL) "Accredited" or "Appropriately Accredited" means an institution accredited or holding pre-accredited status at the college level by an accreditation agency recognized by the U.S. secretary of education; or an institution accredited at the college level by an accrediting agency recognized by the council for higher education accreditation "CHEA."
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:23 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-44 Unified Waiting List
Ohio Adm.Code 173-44-04 Unified waiting list for the assisted living, PACE, and PASSPORT programs.
(A) The United States centers for medicare and medicaid services limits the number of slots available for enrollment in the medicaid-funded components of the assisted living and PASSPORT programs which may cause a waiting list. A lack of capacity in PACE may also cause a waiting list. (This rule does not apply to the state-funded components of the assisted living or PASSPORT programs.)
(B) Waiting list:
(1) If ODA's designee determines an individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, but a slot is not available for enrollment in the program, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall place the individual on the unified waiting list established under section 173.55 of the Revised Code according to the latter of the date the individual applied for the program or the date the individual met all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied.
(2) ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall offer enrollment to any individual on the unified waiting list for the assisted living, PACE, or PASSPORT programs who meets all of the eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, in compliance with the enrollment rule for the program, according to the chronological order that ODA's designee placed the individual on the waiting list, unless prohibited by rule 173-38-03, 173-50-03, or 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(a) The following rules present the eligibility requirements:
(i) Assisted living: See rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The following rules present the enrollment process:
(i) Assisted living: See rules 173-38-03 and 5160-33-04 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rules 173-42-03 and 5160-31-04 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If ODA's designee offers enrollment to an individual from the unified waiting list, but the individual declines enrollment, the individual may remain on the unified waiting list and ODA's designee shall offer enrollment to the next individual on the list according to the order this rule establishes.
(4) If a slot is available in the program to which an eligible individual applied, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall not place the individual on the unified waiting list.
(C) Definitions for this rule:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly."
"PASSPORT program" (PASSPORT) means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-38-03
(A) Initial contact: An individual may initially contact either ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program. The two agencies coordinate processing applications for enrollment as follows:
(1) If the individual makes initial contact with ODM's administrative agency, then ODM's administrative agency shall help the individual to apply and process the applications for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program. If ODM's administrative agency notifies ODA's designee that the individual meets all financial eligibility requirements, then ODA's designee shall initiate contact with the individual to conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If the individual makes initial contact with ODA's designee, then ODA's designee shall help the individual apply for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program and conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) After the individual applies for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, ODA or its designee shall notify the individual of the existence of the state-funded component of the assisted living program in Chapter 173-51 of the Administrative Code and offer the individual an opportunity to apply for enrollment in the state-funded component of the program.
(B) Denial: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code, the following responsibilities apply:
(1) If ODM's administrative agency determines the individual does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODA's designee and notify individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all non-financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODM's administrative agency and, in turn, ODM's administrative agency shall notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Enrollment: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual meets all eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program under rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code, then ODA's designee shall calculate the individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date according to paragraph (C)(1) of this rule and enroll the individual according to paragraph (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this rule.
(1) Medicaid waiver program enrollment date:
(a) The individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date is the latest of the following dates:
(i) The individual's basic medicaid effective date.
(ii) The date the individual meets all level of care requirements to participate in the medicaid waiver program.
(iii) The date the individual met all medicaid waiver program requirements listed in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) The date ODA's designee approved the individual's person-centered services plan with authorization for at least one medicaid waiver service.
(v) The date the individual began residing in an ODA-certified provider's RCF in a resident unit that complies with rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program does not pay for any service provided to an individual before ODA's designee establishes the medicaid waiver program enrollment date according to paragraph (C)(1)(a) of this rule.
(c) The individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program may differ from the basic medicaid effective date.
(2) Available slot: ODA's designee shall enroll the individual in the program without placing the individual on the unified waiting list if all the following conditions exist:
(a) A waiver slot in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is available.
(b) ODA's designee established the individual's medicaid waiver program enrollment date.
(c) The individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements for the program.
(d) The individual continues to want to enroll in the program.
(3) No available slot: If a waiver slot is not available in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, ODA's designee may enroll the eligible individual when a waiver slot becomes available by one of the following two means:
(a) Unified waiting list: ODA's designee shall place the individual on the unified waiting list according to rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code, unless the individual qualifies for the home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, as addressed in paragraph (C)(3)(b) of this rule.
(b) Home first: If an individual meets all requirements for the home first component of the assisted living program in section 173.542 of the Revised Code, ODA's designee shall enroll the individual before enrolling any individual from the unified waiting list.
(D) Reassessment: ODA's designee shall reassess each individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program no less often than one time before each anniversary date of enrollment. After ODA's designee conducts each reassessment, if the individual continues to qualify for the medicaid-funded component of the program, the individual may decide if the individual wishes to remain in the program by signing an ODA-approved enrollment agreement as a condition of continued enrollment. During an emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, ODA's designee may collect the individual's handwritten or electronic signature on the enrollment agreement on a date later than the date the individual agrees to continue in the program, but no later than the next reassessment of the individual.
(E) An authorized representative may represent an individual in the enrollment and reassessment processes.
(F) As used in this rule, "basic medicaid effective date" means the date an individual becomes eligible to receive services under the medicaid state plan. Rule 5160:1-2-03 of the Administrative Code establishes the basic medicaid effective date.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:22 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-33-03
(A) The purpose of this rule is to outline the requirements that must be met for an individual to be eligible to enroll in the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program.
(B) To be eligible for the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet all of the following:
(1) Be eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-3 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Have an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code. If the individual requires skilled nursing care beyond supervision of special diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, it must be provided in accordance with rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Be age twenty-one years old or older at the time of enrollment.
(4) Participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Have the ability to make room and board payments calculated at the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit level minus fifty dollars. Providers shall not charge or collect room and board payments from individuals in excess of the room and board payment calculated in accordance with this paragraph. In the event an individual does not have sufficient personal income:
(a) An individual may arrange for informal supports to provide a supplemental payment to the provider in order to meet room and board requirements;
(i) The supplemental payment shall represent no more than the difference between the individual's personal income and the maximum room and board payment established in paragraph (B)(5) of this rule.
(ii) The amount of the supplemental payment shall not be considered when calculating the individual's patient liability as described in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) A provider may elect to accept a reduced room and board rate.
(6) Have health and safety related needs met, as determined by the Ohio department of aging's (ODA) designee.
(C) The individual must reside in a residential care facility (RCF) licensed by the Ohio department of health. At the time of initial and continued enrollment, the individual must reside in a resident unit that meets the qualifications in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code and possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet any of the eligibility requirements identified in this rule, the individual shall be denied or disenrolled from the assisted living HCBS waiver. In such instances, the individual shall be notified of his or her hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 7, 2023 at 8:18 AM
History
- Effective: September 7, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-02
A person is eligible for PACE only if the person meets all the following requirements:
(A) The following basic requirements:
(1) The person is at least fifty-five years of age.
(2) The person resides within a PO's service area.
(3) The person has an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.
(B) The following other requirements:
(1) AGE determines, according to 42 C.F.R. 460.150(c)(2), that the person can live in a community setting without jeopardizing his or her health and safety.
(2) The person, who may be enrolled as a medicaid or a non-medicaid enrollee, is responsible for payment to the PO as follows:
(a) If a person is applying for, or enrolled in, PACE through the medicaid program, the person maintains medicaid eligibility either under the financial eligibility standard or under a needs allowance if the person has moved from an institutional setting to a non-institutional setting, and any post-eligibility treatment of income (i.e., patient liability or share of cost) ODM may require in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a person is applying for, or enrolled in, PACE as a non-medicaid enrollee, the person may remain eligible for PACE if the person pays the premiums incurred while using PACE. (For more information, see rule 173-50-05 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R. 460.150.)
(3) At the time of initial enrollment, the person meets the following:
(a) The person is not enrolled in one or more of the following (or will disenroll following enrollment in PACE):
(i) A medicaid managed-care program other than PACE.
(ii) A medicaid waiver program (e.g., PASSPORT, assisted living, Ohio home care, mycare Ohio).
(iii) A medicare or medicaid prepayment plan (other than PACE) or optional benefit, including the hospice benefit.
(iv) A nursing facility certified by medicaid while medicaid is covering the person's nursing facility expenses.
(b) The person resides in a non-institutional setting (e.g., house, apartment).
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-31-03
(A) The "Ohio department of aging (ODA)" is the agency responsible for daily operations for the pre-admission screening system providing options and resources today (PASSPORT) home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver. ODA will operate this waiver pursuant to an interagency agreement with the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) in accordance with sections 5162.35 and 173.52 of the Revised Code. ODA will establish processes and procedures to enroll individuals on the waiver that is in accordance with rule 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(B) An individual is eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program only if the individual meets all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The needed services are not readily available through another source at the level required to allow the individual to live in the community.
(3) The individual agrees to participate in PASSPORT and not be simultaneously enrolled in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program, the state-funded component of the assisted living program, another medicaid home and community-based program, the residential state supplement (RSS) program, or the program of all inclusive care for the elderly (PACE) while enrolled in PASSPORT.
(4) The individual's health related needs can be safely met in a home and community-based setting as determined by ODA or its designee.
(5) The individual agrees to participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(6) The individual:
(a) Has a need for and agrees to receive at least one waiver service monthly that is otherwise unavailable through another source (including, but not limited to, private pay, community resources and the medicaid state plan) in an amount sufficient to meet the individual's assessed needs; or
(b) Has a need for:
(i) Continuous nursing services for more than four hours in length,
(ii) At least one waiver service annually, and
(iii) Monthly monitoring of the individual's health and welfare through a combination of telephonic and in-person contacts with the case manager and agrees to cooperate with the monthly monitoring.
(7) The individual resides in a setting that possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code and that is not a hospital, nursing facility (NF), intermediate care facility for individuals with an intellectual disability (ICF-IID), or another licensed or certified facility, any facility covered by section 1616(e) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1382(e) (January 1, 2025) residential care facility or another group living arrangement subject to state licensure or certification.
(8) The individual is age sixty years or older at the time of enrollment.
(9) The individual is determined to meet the criteria for an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code and, in the absence of PASSPORT, requires NF services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.40 (as in effect on October 1, 2024).
(C) To be enrolled and maintain enrollment in PASSPORT, the individual will meet all of the following criteria:
(1) The individual is determined eligible for PASSPORT in accordance with paragraph (B) of this rule.
(2) The services in the person-centered services plan are approved by one of the medical practitioners in paragraphs (C)(2)(a) to (C)(2)(c) of this rule, acting within their scope of practice. Approval may be verbal or written and is to be obtained prior to initial enrollment. Written approval may be satisfied via electronic signature.
(a) A licensed physician;
(b) A licensed certified nurse practitioner;
(c) A licensed physician assistant.
(3) The individual cost limit does not exceed fourteen thousand and seven hundred dollars per month for waiver services.
(a) At the time of enrollment, the initial cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan does not exceed the cost limit.
(b) The ongoing cost of waiver services in the person-centered services plan may not exceed the cost limit unless otherwise approved by ODA.
(4) There is an available PASSPORT slot that does not exceed the CMS-authorized limit for individuals enrolled for the waiver program year.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet the criteria in paragraph (B) or paragraph (C) of this rule, the individual will be denied enrollment or disenrolled from PASSPORT. In such instances, the individual is notified of their hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 22, 2025 at 7:44 AM
History
- Effective: September 22, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-33-04
(A) The purpose of this rule is to outline the requirement that must be met for an individual to enroll in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living waiver program.
(B) To be eligible for enrollment, an individual must:
(1) Have been determined to meet the eligibility requirements set forth in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code; and
(2) Upon initial and continued enrollment, reside in an approved living unit in accordance with paragraph (C) of rule 173-38-03 of the Administrative Code, located in a licensed residential care facility (RCF) certified by the Ohio department of aging (ODA) that possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(C) If the individual has been determined eligible and the medicaid component of the assisted living waiver program has not reached the centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS) authorized limit of participants for the current year, the individual shall be enrolled in accordance with the assisted living waiver program's home first component, if applicable, and rule 173-38-03 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Pursuant to Chapters 5160:1-3 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, if an individual is determined eligible for medicaid by the county department of job and family services, the individual shall not enroll in the assisted living waiver program until ODA's designee establishes a waiver program enrollment date and authorizes the provision of waiver services by an ODA certified assisted living provider. The waiver program enrollment date shall in no way restrict retroactive eligibility for non-assisted living waiver services available to individuals through the medicaid state plan.
(E) Any applicant for the assisted living waiver program is entitled to notice and hearing rights as set forth in section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
History
- Effective: October 17, 2020
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-03
(A) Oversight:
(1) AGE manages the enrollment for PACE.
(2) AGE determines if a slot is available in PACE.
(3) AGE may restrict enrollment based on funding for PACE.
(4) AGE may increase or decrease the maximum number of PACE slots.
(B) Intake process:
(1) A person may apply for PACE through either ODM's administrative agency or a PO. The two agencies coordinate intake with AGE.
(2) The PO is responsible for completing its intake duties under 42 C.F.R. 460.152 and notifying AGE of any applicant and its determination under 42 C.F.R. 460.152(a)(4). The PO may help the applicant apply for medicaid, unless the applicant is already enrolled in medicaid.
(3) ODM's administrative agency is responsible for determining whether the applicant meets all financial eligibility requirements for medicaid in Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, notifying AGE, the PO, and the applicant (or the applicant's representative) of its determination, and, if the applicant does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, notifying the applicant (or the applicant's authorized representative) of the denial and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(4) A PO may enroll an applicant whose coverage status is "medicaid pending" (i.e., in the process of being determined for PACE medicaid eligibility until the issuance of the notice of action) following the eligibility determination:
(a) If the applicant is eligible for PACE medicaid, ODM is responsible for paying the applicable monthly premium to the PO beginning on the date the applicant was eligible for PACE medicaid.
(b) If the applicant is ineligible for PACE medicaid, or eligible with a share of cost, the PO assumes full financial responsibility for the period of pending PACE medicaid eligibility. If the applicant was already enrolled as a PACE participant, the PO cannot retroactively collect any monthly premium or other amount due under the post eligibility treatment of income process (also referred to as share of cost or patient liability).
(c) An applicant who is denied PACE medicaid eligibility may continue to be enrolled in PACE if the applicant is willing to pay the premium that would have been covered by medicaid. The applicant has the option to voluntarily disenroll pursuant to rule 173-50-04 of the Administrative Code if they do not wish to assume payment responsibility for the premium amount.
(d) The PO is responsible for updating the enrollment agreement with the premium amount and patient liability, if applicable, and satisfying the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 460.156(c) before the first payment is due.
(5) AGE is responsible for the level-of-care assessment under 42 C.F.R. 460.152(a)(3) and rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code. AGE, in its discretion, may delegate this responsibility.
(C) Enrollment eligibility:
(1) If AGE determines that an applicant meets all eligibility requirements in rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code, then the following apply:
(a) AGE notifies the PO of its determination.
(b) The PO is responsible for notifying the applicant of the opportunity to proceed with the process of enrolling into PACE, providing the applicant with the enrollment agreement under 42 C.F.R. 460.154, and completing the enrollment procedures in 42 C.F.R. 460.156 if the applicant signs the enrollment agreement.
(c) 42 C.F.R. 460.158 determines the effective date of the applicant's enrollment into PACE as the first day of the month following the date the PO receives the signed enrollment agreement.
(2) If AGE determines that an applicant does not meet basic eligibility requirements in rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R, 460.150(b)(1) to (b)(3), then the following apply:
(a) AGE notifies the PO of its determination.
(b) AGE notifies the applicant (or the authorized representative) of the determination of ineligibility.
(c) If the applicant is ineligible because AGE determines they do not meet the level of care requirement in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, then AGE provides appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Denial: If the PO determines that an applicant is not able to live safely in the community at the time of enrollment, then the PO shall notify CMS and AGE of its determination; and provide the applicant with written notification of the denial which includes the reason for the denial and information on appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code; and refer the applicant to alternative services as appropriate.
(E) No available medicaid slot: If a slot is not available in PACE, the PO shall enroll the applicant when a slot becomes available (if the individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements) by one of the following two means:
(1) Unified waiting list: If the applicant meets the non-financial eligibility requirements for enrollment into PACE, but a slot in the program is not available, the PO shall place the applicant on the unified waiting list under rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Home first: If the applicant meets all requirements for the home first component of PACE in section 173.501 of the Revised Code, the PO shall enroll the applicant in PACE before enrolling any applicant from the unified waiting list in PACE.
(F) Continued eligibility: AGE is responsible for the initial level of care assessment and the annual reassessments under 42 C.F.R.460.152(a)(3) and 460.160. AGE, at its discretion, may delegate this responsibility.
(1) Waiver of annual requirement:
(a) AGE may permanently waive the annual recertification requirement for a participant if it determines that there is no reasonable expectation of improvement or significant change in the participant's condition because of the severity of a chronic condition or the degree of impairment of functional capacity.
(b) The PO must retain in the participant's medical record the documentation of the reason for waiving the annual recertification requirement.
(2) Deemed eligibility: If AGE determines that a participant no longer meets intermediate or skilled level of care requirements, the participant may be deemed to continue to be eligible for the PACE program until the next annual reevaluation, if, in the absence of continued coverage under this program, the participant reasonably would be expected to meet the nursing facility level of care requirement within the next six months.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:04 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-42-03
(A) Initial contact: An individual may contact either ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The two agencies coordinate processing applications for enrollment as follows:
(1) If the individual makes initial contact with ODM's administrative agency, then ODM's administrative agency shall help the individual apply and process the applications for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program. If ODM's administrative agency notifies ODA's designee that the individual meets all financial eligibility requirements, then ODA's designee shall initiate contact with the individual to conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If the individual makes initial contact with ODA's designee, then ODA's designee shall help the individual apply for medicaid (unless already enrolled in medicaid) and the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program and conduct an assessment by telephone, video conference, or in person to determine if the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) After the individual applies for the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, ODA or its designee shall notify the individual of the existence of the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program in Chapter 173-40 of the Administrative Code and offer the individual an opportunity to apply for enrollment in the state-funded component of the program.
(B) Denial: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code, then the following responsibilities apply:
(1) If ODM's administrative agency determines the individual does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify ODA's designee and notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) If ODA's designee determines the individual does not meet all non-financial eligibility requirements, it shall notify the individual of the denied application and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Enrollment: If ODM's administrative agency or ODA's designee determines the individual meets all eligibility requirements for the program under rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code, then ODA's designee shall notify the individual that the individual meets all eligibility requirements and enroll the individual according to paragraph (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this rule.
(1) Available slot: ODA's designee shall enroll the individual in the program without placing the individual on the unified waiting list, if all the following conditions exist:
(a) A waiver slot in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program is available.
(b) The individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements for the program.
(c) The individual continues to want to enroll in the program.
(2) No available slot: If a waiver slot is not available in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, ODA's designee may enroll the individual when a waiver slot becomes available by one of the following two means:
(a) Unified waiting list: If an individual meets all the non-financial eligibility requirements, but a slot is not available in the PASSPORT program, ODA's designee shall place the individual on the unified waiting list according to rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code, unless the individual qualifies for the home first component of the PASSPORT program, as addressed in paragraph (C)(2)(b) of this rule.
(b) Home first: If an individual meets all requirements for the home first component of the PASSPORT program in section 173.521 of the Revised Code, ODA's designee shall enroll the individual before enrolling any individual from the unified waiting list.
(D) Reassessment: ODA's designee shall reassess each individual enrolled in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program no less often than one time before each anniversary date of enrollment. After ODA's designee conducts each reassessment, if the individual continues to qualify for the medicaid-funded component of the program, the individual may decide if the individual wishes to remain in the program by signing an ODA-approved enrollment agreement as a condition of continued enrollment. During an emergency declared by the governor or a federal public health emergency, ODA's designee may collect the individual's handwritten or electronic signature on the enrollment agreement on a date later than the date the individual agrees to continue in the program, but no later than the next reassessment of the individual.
(E) An authorized representative may represent an individual in the enrollment and reassessment processes.
Last updated August 21, 2026 at 1:11 PM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-45 Long Term Care Consumer Guide
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-01 Long-term care consumer guide: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter governs the Ohio long-term care consumer guide that AGE electronically publishes to provide the public with detailed information on Ohio's long-term care facilities, including nursing homes, residential care facilities, skilled nursing facility units of hospitals, and county homes certified to receive medicare and medicaid reimbursement. The information includes a facility's size, location, services offered, customer satisfaction data, regulatory compliance performance data, and, in the case of nursing facilities, quality measures. The guide's information allows the public to search for facilities. The guide may also include detailed information about other types of long-term care providers. The long-term care quality navigator publishes information obtained from the guide and satisfies the requirements of the guide.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"CMS" means "centers for medicare and medicaid services."
"Facility" means a nursing facility or residential care facility.
"Guide" means the "Ohio long-term care consumer guide," which was created by AGE in accordance with section 173.46 of the Revised Code, published as the long-term care quality navigator.
"Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5162.01 of the Revised Code.
"Medicare" has the same meaning as in section 5162.01 of the Revised Code.
"Nursing facility" means either of the following:
(1) A facility, or a distinct part of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility or a skilled nursing facility for purposes of the medicare or medicaid program.
(2) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code that is not certified as a nursing facility or skilled nursing facility.
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"Quality measure" means an aspect of the physical or mental conditions of the residents of a nursing facility that is derived from the resident assessment instruments submitted by nursing facilities to CMS for the purposes of the medicare and medicaid programs.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-03 Long-term care consumer guide: consumer guide content.
(A) General information: AGE shall include the following information in the guide:
(1) A description of the guide.
(2) Disclaimers stating the limitations of the data included in the guide.
(3) A recommendation for each individual who is considering an admission into a long-term care facility to visit any facility that the individual is considering.
(4) Electronic links to other information on the internet about selecting long-term care facilities and long-term care service providers, including information maintained by pertinent government agencies and private organizations.
(B) Facility-specific information: AGE shall include information in the guide to help the public compare and select long-term care providers:
(1) Each nursing facility's consumer satisfaction survey data, quality measures, and regulatory survey data.
(2) Each residential care facility's consumer satisfaction survey data and regulatory survey data.
(3) Other publicly-available information to help the public compare and select long-term care facilities.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-04 Long-term care consumer guide: search queries.
(A) Nursing facilities: The search query page allows the public to search for nursing facilities with results displaying the following:
(1) Geographic location by city, county, ZIP code, or radius.
(2) Source of payment accepted in addition to private sources.
(3) Services for nursing facility residents reported by the facilities through an AGE electronic portal, including but not limited to, the following:
(a) Alzheimer's disease/dementia care (secured or unsecured).
(b) Bariatric care.
(c) Behavioral care.
(d) Dialysis on site.
(e) Hospice care.
(f) Intensive rehabilitation services.
(g) Respiratory care, including ventilator care.
(h) Respiratory care, not including ventilator care.
(i) Short-term stay for respite.
(j) Skin and wound care.
(k) Spinal cord injury care.
(l) Traumatic brain injury care.
(B) Services for residential care facility residents: The search query page allows the public to search for residential care facilities with results displaying the following:
(1) Geographic location by city, county, ZIP code, or radius.
(2) Medicaid waiver or other payment accepted in addition to private sources.
(3) Services beyond basic personal care reported by the facilities through an AGE electronic portal, including, but not limited to, the following:
(a) Twenty-four-hour licensed nursing.
(b) Advanced skin care.
(c) Alzheimer's disease/dementia care (secured or unsecured).
(d) Assistance with self-administration of medication.
(e) Formalized wellness programs.
(f) Hospice care.
(g) Medication administration.
(h) Rehabilitative therapy (occupational, physical, speech).
(i) Short-term stay for respite.
(j) Special diets.
(k) Total incontinence care.
(l) Transfer assistance (e.g., bed to chair).
(m) Transportation (e.g., to appointments, outings).
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-05 Long-term care consumer guide: display of comparative information following the execution of a search query.
(A) Following a search query for long-term care providers, the guide shall present a list of all providers that meet the requirements specified in the search.
(B) For each provider listed, the guide shall present all comparative measures, electronic links to definitions and descriptions of the measures, and further detailed information about the measures, to the extent the information is available to AGE. For each provider, the guide shall include the following information:
(1) Measures of customer satisfaction, such as family and resident satisfaction survey reports.
(2) The date of the facility's most recent ODH survey, if applicable.
(3) The survey data provided pursuant to rule 173-45-08 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Other comparative measures derived from data specified in this chapter.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-08
(A) Data to incorporate: The guide shall reference and shall link consumers to resources for viewing surveys and regulatory compliance status.
(B) Links: AGE shall include the following links in the guide:
(1) A link that allows the public to view an explanation submitted to AGE by a facility whose ownership or management has changed since ODH's last survey of the significance of that change to its current survey results.
(2) A link that allows the public to view a current survey report, if available to AGE, and any plan of correction a nursing facility has filed with ODH that ODH has provided to AGE or that the facilities include in the guide.
(3) A link that allows the public to view the report of the most recent licensure inspection conducted by ODH for any facility that is licensed by ODH, but not certified for either medicare or medicaid, if the report is available to AGE.
(4) A link that provides facility visitation guidelines and suggestions.
(C) Updates: AGE shall update, on a weekly basis, the data derived from ODH's surveys of nursing facilities and residential care facilities in Ohio, including licensure inspection reports for facilities not certified by medicare or medicaid, to the extent the updated information is available to AGE, and except as otherwise provided in this rule.
(D) Data retention: AGE shall retain four years of regulatory data for each facility in the guide.
(E) Disclaimer: AGE shall display the following disclaimer in the guide along with the display of data derived from surveys accompanied by ODH: "Surveys of facilities are conducted at periodic intervals. Conditions at a facility can change significantly between surveys and consumers considering admission are encouraged to visit any facility they are considering."
(F) Definitions: As used in this rule, "deficiency," "immediate jeopardy," "standard survey," and "substandard care" have the same meanings as in section 5165.60 of the Revised Code.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-06 Long-term care consumer guide: facility page.
(A) Facility page content: The guide includes an individual facility page for each facility that presents the following specific comparative information, if available:
(1) The facility's name; the facility's telephone number, mailing address, county in which the facility is located, email address, website address, photograph of the facility, and electronic link to a mapping feature that allows an individual to pinpoint the facility's location.
(2) The name of the facility's owner and operator (if different from the owner), and the telephone number and mailing address of the facility's owner and operator (if different from the owner).
(3) If a nursing facility, the facility's certification status regarding medicare and medicaid.
(4) The number of beds in the facility; the number of single-occupancy and multiple-occupancy rooms in the facility; and, if a nursing facility, the number of beds in the facility that are certified for medicare or medicaid.
(5) Any specialized services available through the facility, as provided in rule 173-45-06.1 of the Administrative Code.
(6) The sources of payment the facility accepts and is eligible to receive.
(7) Any religious or fraternal affiliation.
(8) The facility's policies on smoking, alcohol, pets, do-not-resuscitate orders, and advanced directives on nutrition, hydration, and life-sustaining care.
(9) Specific information concerning staffing at the facility, as described in rule 173-45-06.2 of the Administrative Code.
(10) The facility's private pay rate with a link to facility-provided information that describes what that rate includes.
(11) The facility's occupancy rate with a link to facility-provided information describing specific bed availability.
(B) Updating content:
(1) Each facility shall provide the information under paragraph (A) of this rule to AGE, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
(2) AGE shall provide each facility with access to an electronic portal by which the facility may update the informationon the facility page. An electronic time stamp method shall reflect the date of the most recent update.
(3) AGE may update a facility page with publicly-available information about the facility (e.g., bed count, website address, payment sources, etc.).
(4) AGE shall prohibit the facility from updating information on the facility page if the facility-provided information conflicts with information obtained from a state or federal government agency. If there is a need to update information that is reflected in a database or report from a state or federal government agency, the facility shall make the government agency that owns the database or report aware of the necessary update.
(C) Disclaimer: AGE shall include a disclaimer on the facility page that explains that the information appearing on each facility's facility page is provided and updated by the facility described on the page, and that the accuracy of the information appearing on a facility page is not routinely verified by AGE.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-06.1
(A) Facility-provided information: The guide shall describe the services provided by, or in affiliation with, each facility listed in the guide.
(1) Services for nursing facility residents: A nursing facility may use the electronic portal to indicate whether it offers any of the following specialized services:
(a) Memory care (secured): A nursing facility may indicate "memory care (secured)" if it specializes in providing specialized care for residents with Alzheimer's disease/dementia such as environmental features; dining and activities designed and delivered for those with dementia; care planning and delivery and staffing supports appropriate for memory impairments; staff trained in symptoms, symptom management, interventions, person-centered care, and emotional support.
(b) Memory care (unsecured): A nursing facility may indicate "memory care (unsecured)" if it specializes in providing specialized care for residents with Alzheimer's disease/dementia such as environmental features; dining and activities designed and delivered for those with dementia; care planning and delivery and staffing supports appropriate for memory impairments; staff trained in symptoms, symptom management, interventions, person-centered care, and emotional support.
(c) Bariatric care: A nursing facility may indicate "bariatric care" if it specializes in bariatric care that includes dietetic and counseling services; equipment, including wheelchairs, beds, commodes, and lifts; exercise and therapy services to treat residents' obesity.
(d) Behavioral health care, non-dementia related: A nursing facility may indicate "behavioral health care, non-dementia related" if it provides for, or contracts for, mental health supports for those who need mental health care and have a mental illness such as schizophrenia and need nursing home level of care.
(e) Dialysis on site:
(i) A nursing facility may indicate "dialysis on site" if it specializes in providing dialysis to residents of the nursing facility on site with minimal travel on the nursing facility's campus.
(ii) A nursing facility may indicate if it specializes in peritoneal dialysis.
(f) Hospice care:
(i) A facility may indicate "hospice" if it specializes in providing hospice care, whether the facility provides the hospice care or contracts with a hospice provider to provide the hospice care.
(ii) A facility may indicate if it offers additional end-of-life care if the facility describes the end-of-life care that it offers.
(g) Intensive rehabilitation services:
(i) A nursing facility may indicate "intensive rehabilitation services" if it specializes in providing services by occupational therapists, physical therapists, and speech therapists to assist in recovery from an accident, surgery, stroke, or other medical incident and if the service is provided by or coordinated by occupational therapists, physical therapists, or speech therapists.
(ii) A nursing facility may indicate if its therapists who provide its intensive rehabilitation services are available seven days per week.
(iii) A nursing facility may indicate if it consistently assigns residents to the same therapist.
(h) Respiratory care, including ventilator care:
(i) A nursing facility may indicate "respiratory care, including ventilator care" if it specializes in providing chronic ventilator care, tracheal suctioning, and ventilator weaning. "Respiratory care, including ventilator care" may also include use of respirators/ventilators, oxygen, intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB), or other inhalation therapy, pulmonary care, humidifiers, and other methods to treat conditions of the respiratory tract.
(ii) A nursing facility may indicate if it has a respiratory therapist on staff.
(i) Respiratory care, not including ventilator care:
(i) A nursing facility may indicate "respiratory care, not including ventilator care" if it specializes in providing tracheal weaning and tracheal suctioning. "Respiratory care, not including ventilator care" may also include use of respirators, oxygen, IPPB, or other inhalation therapy, pulmonary care, humidifiers, and other methods to treat conditions of the respiratory tract.
(ii) A nursing facility may indicate if it has a respiratory therapist on staff.
(j) Short-term stay for respite: A nursing facility may indicate "short-term stay for respite" if it specializes in providing respite services on short-term bases to individuals who are unable to care for themselves on short-term bases because of absences, needs, or relief of those persons who normally provide care to the individuals.
(k) Skin and wound care:
(i) A nursing facility may indicate "skin and wound care" if it specializes in care for clinically complex or multiple wounds. The care may include negative pressure ("wound vac"), debridement, and care by wound specialists on staff or under contract.
(ii) A nursing facility may indicate if it has wound-management staff certified by the american board of wound management.
(l) Spinal cord injury care: A nursing facility may indicate "spinal cord injury care" if it provides a special program for those with spinal cord injuries, including physical, speech, occupational, and vocational therapy; skin integrity management; pain management; and environmental accessibility.
(m) Traumatic brain injury care: A nursing facility may indicate "traumatic brain injury care" if it specializes in evaluating and treating brain injuries by providing care that includes physical, speech, occupational, and vocational therapy; behavioral and cognitive rehabilitation; pain management; and substance-abuse treatment.
(2) Services for residential care facility residents: A residential care facility may use the electronic portal to indicate that it offers any of the following specialized services beyond personal care:
(a) Twenty-four hour licensed nursing.
(b) Advanced skin care.
(c) Memory care (secured).
(d) Memory care (unsecured).
(e) Assistance with self-administration of medication.
(f) Formalized wellness programs, which are structured initiatives or programs that a provider offers to targets an area of wellness such as memory care, activity programming, or environmental approaches to address healthier living.
(g) Hospice care.
(h) Medication administration.
(i) Rehabilitative therapy (occupational, physical, speech).
(j) Short-term stay for respite.
(k) Special diets.
(l) Total incontinence care.
(m) Transfer assistance (e.g., bed to chair).
(n) Transportation (e.g., to appointments, outings).
(3) Services for nursing facility non-residents: A nursing facility may indicate whether it provides any of the following specialized services to non-residents:
(a) Adult day care.
(b) Assisted living on site.
(c) Home-delivered meals.
(d) Home health care.
(e) Hospice services.
(f) Independent living housing on site.
(g) Outpatient therapy.
(h) Short-term stay for respite.
(i) Transportation (e.g., from homes to appointments).
(j) Any other community service the facility provides to non-residents that it specifically identifies.
(4) Services for residential care facility non-residents: A residential care facility may indicate whether it provides any of the following specialized services to non-residents:
(a) Adult day care.
(b) Home health care.
(c) Hospice care.
(d) Independent living housing on site.
(e) Outpatient therapies (occupational, physical, speech).
(f) Short-term stay for respite.
(g) Skilled nursing facility on site.
(h) Transportation (e.g., from homes to appointments).
(i) Any other community service the facility provides to non-residents that it specifically identifies.
(B) Portal, attestations, and disclaimer:
(1) Portal: For the facility services specified in paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) of this rule, AGE shall permit the facilities to use an electronic portal to indicate if a facility provides specific services, and if the facility provides the services within a specific unit of the facility.
(2) Attestations:
(a) A facility shall attest that it provides the specific service in the manner described, as certified/attested/confirmed by [insert name, title] on [insert date]. The facility shall make this attestation as part of the update procedures in the portal.
(b) On request from a consumer, an ombudsman, or a surveyor, a facility shall provide records to demonstrate how any specialized service that it attested that it provides meets the description of the specialized service under paragraph (A) of this rule. If the facility does not demonstrate how it provides a specialized service, AGE may remove the specialized service from the facility's listing in the guide.
(3) Disclaimer: AGE shall publish this disclaimer in the guide: "This form is intended for any consumer, ombudsman, or other interested person to use for comparing services offered at Ohio facilities. The state does not offer any guarantee that the described services are available to residents because they are listed here. Residents and interested persons may use this information to compare facilities' services and capabilities. This information is not intended to take the place of visiting the facility, talking with residents, family members, or meeting one-on-one with facility staff."
(C) Updating content: AGE shall obtain information regarding the services listed in paragraph (A) of this rule from the facilities themselves and may also obtain information from publicly-available sources, in accordance with paragraph (B) of rule 173-45-06 of the Administrative Code. Each facility may supplement the information required under paragraphs (A)(1) and (A)(2) of this rule to ensure an accurate description of services provided through the special care unit.
(D) Definition: As used in this rule, "affiliation" means a connection between a facility and a provider that are operated by the same entity, or that have entered into a contract whereby the provider provides services on the property of the facility or in close proximity to the facility.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-06.2
(A) Nursing facilities: The facility page shall do the following for each nursing facility that provides the relevant information to AGE:
(1) The facility page shall indicate if the nursing facility makes permanent staff-to-unit/resident assignments.
(2) The facility page shall display staff-retention data.
(B) Residential care facilities: The facility page shall do the following for each residential care facility that provides the relevant information to AGE:
(1) List the number of licensed nurses, direct care staff, and other staff typically on duty on day, evening, and night shifts, displayed separately for weekdays and weekends.
(2) Display a narrative description of the facility's staffing information.
(C) Updating content:
(1) AGE shall provide each facility with an opportunity to submit the information that paragraphs (A) and (B) of this rule require. AGE shall collect the information through an electronic portal in accordance with paragraph (B) of rule 173-45-06 of the Administrative Code. AGE shall use an electronic time stamp method to reflect the date of the facility's most recent update.
(2) AGE shall recalculate the statewide averages and ranges that paragraph (A) of this rule requires at least quarterly.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-09 Long-term care consumer guide: fees, invoices, and penalties.
(A) Fees: AGE shall collect the following annual consumer guide fees to conduct the satisfaction surveys under section 173.47 of the Revised Code:
(1) From each nursing facility, AGE shall collect six hundred fifty dollars.
(2) From each residential care facility, AGE shall collect three hundred fifty dollars.
(B) Invoices: Annually, AGE shall provide each facility with an invoice requesting payment of the consumer guide fee. The invoice shall include the following information:
(1) The time period covered by the invoice.
(2) The deadline for receipt of payment, which shall be thirty days after the date of the invoice.
(3) The available methods of payment, including the invoice portal on www.aging.gov.
(4) The consequences of late payment and non-payment.
(C) Penalties:
(1) Division (A)(3) of section 173.48 of the Revised Code requires a facility that fails, within ninety days after the deadline for receipt of payment, to pay the consumer guide fee to be assessed at two times the original invoiced amount.
(2) For purposes of section 131.02 of the Revised Code, AGE shall certify to the attorney general any payment not received by AGE within ninety days after the deadline for receipt of payment.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-45-10 Long-term care consumer guide: consumer satisfaction surveys.
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Customer satisfaction survey" (survey) means the customer satisfaction survey under section 173.47 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Domain" means a subset of a survey question identified by the survey administrator as an area of interest to long-term care facility consumers.
(3) "Survey administrator" means a designee of AGE responsible for implementing a customer satisfaction survey.
(B) Survey information: The guide shall include the following information that is derived each year from an annual customer satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility conducted by AGE or a survey administrator pursuant to section 173.47 of the Revised Code:
(1) A description of the survey and of the calculation methods used.
(2) Item scores for each facility, which are calculated by averaging the numerical response for each item on all returned surveys pertaining to a particular facility. Each survey administrator shall do the following:
(a) Determine an item score by assigning a number in the range of zero to one hundred.
(b) Exclude a response from the calculation of an item score whenever the respondent did not respond to an item or when the respondent believes the item is not applicable, which is indicated by responses such as "I don't know" or "This does not apply to me".
(c) Exclude a returned survey if fewer than ten per cent of the survey items are completed or if the survey was incomplete due to a resident's inability to respond to the survey questions.
(3) Statewide item scores for all items of the survey, calculated by averaging all item scores for all facilities for which enough surveys were returned to be within a ten per cent margin of error.
(4) Domain scores for each facility, which are calculated by averaging the facility item scores in a domain for all returned surveys on which the consumer omitted no more than two items in that domain.
(5) Statewide domain scores, which are calculated as the average of all facility domain scores.
(6) Facility response rate for a satisfaction survey of a sample of consumers conducted by mail, which is calculated by dividing the number of surveys returned by the number of surveys issued to consumers. The number of surveys issued to facility consumers should reflect both of the following:
(a) A generally accepted response rate for similar surveys.
(b) The most recent available estimate of the occupancy of that facility.
(7) A facility response rate for a satisfaction survey of a whole population of a facility's consumers is calculated by dividing the number of surveys returned by the number of consumers surveyed.
(8) A statewide response rate, which is calculated as the average of all facility response rates.
(9) An overall facility satisfaction score, which is calculated by averaging all item scores on all returned surveys pertaining to a particular facility. If the survey administrator determines that there are not enough returned surveys from that facility to be within a ten per cent margin of error, then no overall satisfaction survey score will be displayed.
(10) A statewide satisfaction score, which is calculated by averaging all overall facility satisfaction scores for facilities for which enough surveys were returned to be within a ten per cent margin of error.
(11) The total number of surveys returned statewide.
(12) Statewide high and low item scores, which are obtained by identifying the highest and lowest item score among all facilities that have enough returned surveys to be within a ten per cent margin of error.
(13) Statewide high and low domain scores, which are obtained by identifying the highest and lowest domain score among all facilities that have enough returned surveys to be within a ten per cent margin of error.
(C) Confidentiality: To protect the privacy of the survey's respondents, the long-term care consumer guide shall not report the results from any facility for which no more than two surveys were returned.
(D) Invalid surveys: An invalid survey includes a survey that is completed by a person other than a consumer (e.g., completed by a member of the facility's staff) or involves surveying the wrong population (e.g., surveying the resident instead of the family). If AGE's review of any survey indicates that the survey is invalid, AGE may take one or more of the following actions:
(1) Remove invalid scores from the calculation of the overall satisfaction scores.
(2) Remove the facility's scores from the long-term care consumer guide and any published reports of the survey results.
(3) Refer the facility with invalid scores to the appropriate investigatory agency.
(E) Margin of error: The number of completed surveys considered necessary for a facility to not exceed a ten per cent margin of error is based on the size of the facility and shall be governed by table 1 to this rule.
Table 1
| NUMBER OF RESIDENTS OF A FACILITY | NUMBER OF RESIDENT SURVEYS NEEDED TO NOT EXCEED A 10% MARGIN OF ERROR | | --- | --- | | 3-5 | All | | 6-10 | 5 | | 11-12 | 6 | | 13 | 7 | | 14-15 | 8 | | 16-18 | 10 | | 19-23 | 11 | | 24 | 12 | | 25-26 | 13 | | 27-28 | 14 | | 29-31 | 15 | | 32-63 | 16 | | 34-35 | 17 | | 36-37 | 18 | | 38-45 | 19 | | 46 | 20 | | 47-55 | 21 | | 56 | 22 | | 57-67 | 23 | | 68-80 | 24 | | 81-86 | 25 | | 87-91 | 26 | | 92-111 | 27 | | 112-134 | 28 | | 135-155 | 29 | | 156-177 | 30 | | 178-238 | 31 | | 239-312 | 32 | | 313 or more | 33 |
(F) Quality assurance: Any survey administrator conducting a customer satisfaction survey on behalf of AGE shall take quality-assurance measures such as inter-rater reliability testing.
Last updated November 13, 2025 at 7:42 AM
History
- Effective: November 13, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-50 PACE Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-01 PACE: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates PACE, which is a managed-care program that provides its participants with all of their necessary health care, medical care, and ancillary services in acute, sub-acute, institutional, and community settings. Examples of PACE services are primary and specialty care, an adult day service, personal care, inpatient hospital stays, prescription drugs, occupational therapy, physical therapy, and nursing facility care.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"AGE's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-36-01 of the Administrative Code.
"CMS" means "the centers for medicare and medicaid services."
"IDT" means "inter-disciplinary team."
"ODM" means "the Ohio department of medicaid."
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly," which was established under 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4 (August 5, 1997).
"PACE organization" (PO) means an entity that provides services to participants under a PACE program agreement with CMS and AGE.
"Participant" means a person who receives services through PACE.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-36-01
(A) "Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) "Capitated payment" means the monthly payment paid to the program of all inclusive care for the elderly PACE organization by the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) for medical care and services provided to medicaid recipients enrolled in PACE.
(C) "Individual" is the applicant for or recipient of a medical assistance program such as medicaid.
(D) "Involuntary disenrollment" means the disenrollment of a participant from PACE at the request of the PACE organization or a county department of job and family services.
(E) "PACE" means the 'program of all-inclusive care for the elderly' as set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 460 as in effect on October 1, 2019.
(F) "PACE center" means a facility operated by a PACE organization where primary care or other related services offered by PACE are provided to participants.
(G) "PACE organization" means an entity that has a medicaid provider agreement and also has in effect a PACE agreement with the centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS) and the Ohio department of aging (ODA).
(H) "PACE agreement" means an agreement between a PACE organization, CMS, and ODA.
(I) "Participant" means a person enrolled in and receiving services through PACE.
(J) "Private pay participant" means an individual who does not meet the medicaid eligibility criteria but chooses to participate in PACE and is responsible for payment of the PACE organization's private pay premium.
(K) "Service area" means the geographic area in which a PACE organization is approved by CMS and ODA to provide services to PACE participants.
(L) "State administering agency" means the state agency responsible for administering the PACE agreement. Pursuant to section 173.50 of the Revised Code ODA shall serve as the state administering agency for PACE in Ohio.
(M) "Voluntary disenrollment" means the disenrollment of a participant from PACE at the request of the participant or the participant's authorized representative.
History
- Effective: January 1, 2020
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-1-01
(A) This rule contains definitions generally used in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(B) Definitions.
(1) "Abuse" means any action by an individual or entity that results in unnecessary costs to the medical assistance program in accordance with 42 C.F.R 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(2) "Administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and/or an agent of ODM authorized to determine eligibility for a medical assistance program.
(3) "Advance notice of adverse action" means a written notice of the administrative agency's intent to discontinue or suspend medical assistance, reduce the level of benefits or covered services, or increase the amount of an individual's premium or patient liability, sent no less than fifteen calendar days prior to the date of the proposed action in accordance with rules 5101:6-2-04 and 5101:6-2-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Applicant" means an individual who is seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself through an application submission or a transfer from another agency or insurance affordability program in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.4 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(5) "Approve" or "approval" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(6) "Assets" means all income and resources of the individual and of the individual's spouse. This includes any income or resources the individual or the individual's spouse is entitled to, but does not receive, because of an action taken to avoid receipt of the asset by:
(a) The individual or the individual's spouse; or
(b) A person, including a court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place of, or on behalf of, the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(c) Any person, including any court or administrative body, acting at the direction, or upon the request, of the individual or the individual's spouse.
(7) "Assignment" means an individual eligible for medical assistance has transferred his or her right, or the rights of any other individual for whom he or she can legally make an assignment, to collect and retain third-party and/or medical support payments to ODM up to the amount of medical services paid under the medicaid program.
(8) "Authorized representative" means a person, who is at least eighteen years of age, or a legal entity who stands in place of the individual. Actions or failures of an authorized representative will be accepted as the action or failure of the individual. When an individual has designated an authorized representative, all references to the individual's responsibilities include the authorized representative in accordance with rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Base eligibility" means the individual meets all of the eligibility requirements for at least one category of medical assistance described in Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, or 5160:1-5 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Caretaker relative" means a relative of a dependent child by blood, adoption, or marriage with whom the child is living, who assumes primary responsibility for the child's care (as may, but is not required to, be indicated by claiming the child as a tax dependent for federal income tax purposes), and who is one of the following:
(a) The child's father, mother, brother, sister, stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, or stepsister; or
(b) The child's grandfather, grandmother, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece, including such relatives with the prefix great, great-great, grand, or great-grand; or
(c) The child's first cousin or first cousin once removed; or
(d) The spouse of such parent or relative, even after the marriage is terminated by death or divorce.
(11) "Case record" means electronic or paper documents and information used to determine, redetermine, or renew an individual's eligibility for medical assistance.
(12) "Creditable insurance" or "creditable coverage" means health insurance coverage as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-3(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(a) This includes:
(i) A group health plan; or
(ii) Health insurance coverage; or
(iii) Medicare part A, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395c to 1395i-5 (as in effect October 1, 2022) or part B, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395j to 1395w-6 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(iv) Coverage under medicaid, as set forth in Title XIX of the Social Security Act, other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under the pediatric vaccine program set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1396s (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(v) Armed forces health insurance as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization; or
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool; or
(viii) A federal employee health plan offered under 5 U.S.C. 8901 to 8992 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(ix) A public health plan; or
(x) A peace corps volunteer health benefit plan under section 22 U.S.C. 2504 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(b) Creditable insurance does not include:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance; or
(ii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; or
(iii) Workers' compensation or similar insurance; or
(iv) Automobile medical payment insurance; or
(v) Credit insurance which pays off existing debts in the event of death, disability, or unemployment; or
(vi) Coverage for employment onsite medical clinics; or
(vii) Other similar insurance coverage under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits; or
(viii) Limited-scope dental or vision benefits; or
(ix) Benefits for long-term care, nursing facility care, home health care, or community-based care; or
(x) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; or
(xi) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if purchased separately; or
(xii) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1395ss (as in effect October 1, 2022), coverage supplemental to the coverage provided to military or former military personnel under 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022), and similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan; or
(xiii) Coverage through a medical cost-sharing program, including a health care cost-sharing ministry.
(13) "Deduction" means a verifiable amount the individual pays for an expense. Garnishments or liens placed against earned or unearned income of an individual are not considered a deduction, regardless of the reason for the garnishment or lien.
(14) "Deny" or "denial" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is not eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(15) "Dependent child" means a person younger than age eighteen living with a parent or caretaker relative.
(16) "Discontinue" or "discontinuance" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is no longer eligible, or has failed to cooperate with verification of eligibility, for one or more categories of medical assistance currently being received by that individual, resulting in a written notice of the administrative agency's intention to end coverage under that category and providing notice of hearing rights in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.917 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(17) "Disregard" means the amount subtracted from gross, non-excluded income in the medical assistance budget calculation.
(18) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic and treatment" (EPSDT) means screening, vision, dental, and hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d (as in effect October 1, 2022) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services, whether or not such services are covered under the medicaid state plan. Healthchek is Ohio's EPSDT program.
(19) "Earned income" means income in cash or in-kind received as payment for services performed as an employee or as a self-employed individual. Earned income includes but is not limited to wages, salary, or commissions from which state or federal income taxes are paid or withheld.
(20) "Electronic equivalent" means an electronic version of an Ohio department of job family services (ODJFS) or ODM form or application which has not been modified in any way, other than format, prior to completion and submission of that form to the administrative agency. The administrative agency is not required to accept forms that are altered.
(21) "Electronic protected health information" (ePHI) means any protected health information (PHI) that is maintained or transmitted in electronic form, regardless of the format.
(22) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Encumbrance" means a claim, lien, charge, or liability attached to and binding on an identified piece of real or personal property.
(24) "Equity value" means the fair market value of a resource minus any encumbrance.
(25) "Erroneous payment" means a medicaid reimbursement made for an individual who was ineligible at the time services were received, regardless of the presence of fraud or abuse.
(26) "Excluded income" means income that state or federal law prohibits from consideration in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(27) "Fair market value" means, unless otherwise stated, the going price, at the time of the transfer or contract of sale, for which real or personal property can reasonably be expected to sell on the open market in the relevant geographic area. The appraised value of real property is determined by the county auditor and may be used to establish fair market value.
(28) "Family size" means the number of persons counted as members of an individual's medicaid household.
(29) "Federal adoption assistance" (AA) means the Title IV-E subsidy program as defined by the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (Pub. L. No. 96-272).
(30) "Federal benefit rate" (FBR) means the supplemental security income (SSI) current payment standard published annually by the social security administration (SSA).
(31) "Federal foster care maintenance" (FCM) means the Title IV-E program, as described in rule 5101:2-47-01 of the Administrative Code.
(32) "Federal kinship guardianship assistance program" (KGAP) means the Title IV-E program to provide payments to relatives, as defined in section 5101.141 of the Revised Code, who have assumed legal custody or guardianship of eligible children whom they have cared for as foster parents for a minimum of six consecutive months and for whom there is a valid KGAP or KGAP C21 agreement.
(33) "Federal means-tested public benefit" means a benefit in which eligibility for the benefit or the amount of the benefit, or both, is determined on the basis of income or resources of the individual seeking the benefit. Medicaid, cash assistance, and food assistance are federal means-tested public benefits, but certain other benefits listed in 8 U.S.C. 1613(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022) are not considered means-tested.
(34) "Federal poverty level" (FPL) means a measure of income determined annually by the department of health and human services (HHS). The FPL is designed to provide a baseline for determining financial eligibility for federal programs and benefits.
(35) "Good cause" means circumstances that reasonably prevent an individual from cooperating with the administrative agency in the eligibility determination process. Factors relevant to good cause include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, riots or civil unrest, death or serious illness of the individual or a member of his/her immediate family, or the physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations of the individual.
(36) "Gross income" means income prior to any deductions or disregards, with the exception of self-employment gross countable income.
(37) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996" (HIPAA) means a federal law to protect patient privacy, to protect security of electronic medical records, to prescribe methods and formats for exchange of electronic medical information, and to uniformly identify providers.
(38) "Immigrant" means a person who comes to the United States (U.S.) with plans to live in the country permanently. This term includes, but is not limited to, an individual who is a refugee, asylee, parolee, or other entrant regardless of whether he or she is residing in the U.S. legally.
(39) "Income" means cash, in-kind income as defined in paragraph (B)(43) of this rule, or something of value which is received, available, and attributable to an individual. Income includes the receipt of any item which can be applied, either directly or by sale or conversion, to meet the needs of an individual.
(40) "Income and eligibility verification system" (IEVS) means the electronic system that shares income and asset information among the social security administration (SSA), internal revenue service (IRS), state wage information collection agency (SWICA), agencies administering unemployment compensation (UC) benefits, and the administrative agency.
(41) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance.
(42) "Individually identifiable health information" means information that is a subset of health information that includes demographic information collected from an individual and:
(a) Is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and
(b) Relates to the past, present, or future physical condition or mental health condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual and either:
(i) Identifies the individual; or
(ii) There is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
(43) "In-kind income" means any benefit received other than cash such as food, shelter, or something that can be used to get food or shelter.
(44) "Institution for mental diseases" (IMD) means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than sixteen beds which primarily provides diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, including medical attention, nursing care, and related services.
(a) A facility is an IMD, whether or not it is licensed as such, if it is operated primarily for the care and treatment of individuals with mental diseases.
(b) An institution for persons with cognitive impairments or other developmental disabilities is not an IMD.
(45) "Lawfully residing" means a qualified non-citizen immigration status granted to an individual allowing him or her to live and/or work in the United States.
(46) "Legal custodian" means a person who has legal rights to have physical care and control of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(47) "Legal guardian" means any person, association, or corporation appointed by a probate court to exercise care and management of an individual, his or her estate, or both, as defined in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(48) "Limited English proficiency" (LEP) means the inability of any person or group of persons to speak, read, write, or understand the English language at a level that allows them to meaningfully communicate with the administrative agency.
(49) "Liquid resource" means cash or property immediately convertible to cash.
(50) "Lump-sum" means a non-recurring payment received in a single amount, as opposed to smaller payments over time.
(51) "Managed care organization" (MCO) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(52) "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities" (MBIWD) as set forth in rule 5160:1-5-03 of the Administrative Code, is a category of medical assistance that enables workers with disabilities to earn income and have resources, not to exceed the limits established by the state, without the risk of losing health care coverage.
(53) "Medicaid eligibility fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in an unauthorized benefit to himself, herself, or some other person in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022). It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or state law.
(54) "Medicaid household" means a group of individuals, defined in relationship to one specific medical assistance applicant or recipient, who impact the applicant's or recipient's family size, household income, or both.
(55) "Medical assistance" includes all programs administered by the state medicaid administrative agency.
(56) "Medical support" means an order by a court to provide medical coverage.
(57) "Medical verification of pregnancy" means a written statement signed by a licensed medical professional verifying pregnancy and includes the expected date of delivery and, if more than one, the expected number of fetuses.
(58) "Minor child" means a person younger than age eighteen.
(59) "Modified adjusted gross income" (MAGI or MAGI-based income) means the income methodology used for determining medical assistance eligibility for children through age eighteen, parents, caretaker relatives, pregnant women, and adults age nineteen through sixty-four.
(60) "Non-applicant" means a person who is not seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself but is included in an applicant's or recipient's medicaid household to determine eligibility for such applicant or recipient.
(61) "Non-citizen emergency medical assistance" (NCEMA) as established in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code, means time-limited coverage of an emergency medical condition for certain individuals who do not meet the citizenship or satisfactory immigration status requirements.
(62) "Non-cooperation" or "failure to cooperate" means failure by an individual to present required verification, or to explain why it is not possible to present the verification, after being notified the verification was required for eligibility determination.
(63) "Non-excluded income" means income (earned or unearned) that is used in the eligibility determination for medical assistance.
(64) "Outstationing" means the federal requirement as described in 42 C.F.R. 435.904 (as in effect October 1, 2022) that administrative agencies provide opportunities for low-income pregnant women and children to apply for medical assistance at locations other than the local county department of job and family services.
(65) "Parent" means a natural, adoptive, or step-parent.
(66) "Personal property" means any property that is not real property, as defined in paragraph (B)(75) of this rule. Personal property includes, but is not limited to, such things as cash, jewelry, household goods, tools, life insurance policies, automobiles, and promissory notes.
(67) "Postpartum period" means the maximum permitted period of coverage as described in 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(68) "Pre-termination review" (PTR) means a review of eligibility criteria completed prior to each discontinuance of medical assistance, to determine whether an individual is eligible for any other category of medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.916(f)(1) (as in effect October 1, 2022). Home and community-based services (HCBS), as defined in rule 5160:1-6-01.1 of the Administrative Code, the specialized recovery services (SRS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-07 of the Administrative Code, or both will be explored as part of the PTR process when:
(a) The individual or his or her authorized representative has requested HCBS or SRS; or
(b) The individual's case record contains information indicating that he or she may be eligible for or in need of HCBS or SRS. Receipt of SSI, social security disability insurance (SSDI), or any other income type resulting from an individual's disability is not sufficient, by itself, to demonstrate potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS. There must be additional factors in the case record that indicate the individual's potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS.
(69) "Private child placing agency" (PCPA) means any association that is certified to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for foster care or adoption, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(70) "Protected health information" (PHI) means individually identifiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic media, or transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.
(71) "Public children services agency" (PCSA) means an entity that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function for a county, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(72) "Public institution" means an institution, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.1010 (as in effect October 1, 2022), that is the responsibility of a governmental unit or over which a governmental unit exercises administrative control, such as a state or federal prison, local jail, detention facility, or other penal setting. Public institution does not include a medical institution, an intermediate care facility, a publicly operated community residence that serves no more than sixteen residents, or a child care institution.
(73) "Qualified entity" means the source of eligibility determinations for the presumptive eligibility program and is limited to the following:
(a) A county department of job and family services (CDJFS); or
(b) A hospital, the Ohio department of rehabilitation and correction (DRC), or the Ohio department of youth services (DYS); or
(c) A federally qualified health center (FQHC) or an FQHC look-alike that meets the requirements described in Chapter 5160-28 of the Administrative Code; or
(d) A local health department, a special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) clinic, or other entity as designated by the director.
(74) "Recipient" means an individual who has been determined eligible and is currently receiving medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(75) "Real property" means land, including buildings or immovable objects attached permanently to the land.
(76) "Refugee" means a person who flees his or her country due to persecution or a well-founded fear of persecution because of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a social group and is admitted to the United States under Section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1157 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(77) "Redetermination" means acting upon new or changed information received after an individual's eligibility has been determined but prior to the regularly scheduled annual renewal.
(a) The administrative agency shall only redetermine eligibility using the new or changed information. All other factors of eligibility not affected by the new or changed information are presumed unchanged.
(b) The original renewal date is not changed when eligibility has been redetermined, unless the administrative agency has sufficient information regarding all eligibility factors to renew eligibility without requesting additional information from the individual.
(78) "Renew" or "renewal" means a review of eligibility factors to determine whether the individual continues to meet all of the criteria of a medical assistance category. A renewal is performed annually.
(79) "Reporting" means notifying the administrative agency of any changes that may affect an individual's eligibility for medical assistance. Reporting changes and providing verifications is the responsibility of any individual, person, or entity who has a legal or financial responsibility for, or who stands in the place of, an individual, including:
(a) The individual; and
(b) The individual's spouse, including a community spouse; and
(c) The individual's parent, legal custodian, legal guardian, or caretaker relative; and
(d) The individual's authorized representative.
(80) "Residence" means the place the individual considers his or her established or principal home and to which, if absent, he or she intends to return.
(81) "Residential care facility" (RCF) means a home that provides either of the following as described in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code:
(a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; or
(b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(82) "Resources" means cash, funds held within a financial institution, investments, personal property, and real property an individual and/or the individual's spouse has an ownership interest in, has the legal ability to access in order to convert to cash, and is not legally prohibited from using for support and maintenance.
(83) "Safeguarding" means security measures taken to ensure that the information of individuals applying for or receiving medical assistance is protected against unauthorized inspection, disclosure, or use. Safeguarding also refers to the restriction on the use, or disclosure, of individual information including federal tax information (FTI), any protected health information (PHI), or other confidential information used in the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code.
(84) "Self-attestation" or "self-declaration" means a statement of factual information made by an individual.
(85) "Self-Employment gross countable income" means the income from a business minus the expenses directly related to producing the goods or services, and without which the goods or services could not be produced.
(a) When the individual has filed taxes for the previous year, use all tax forms that were filed with the internal revenue service (IRS) to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income.
(b) When the individual has not filed taxes for the previous year, the following may be used to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income:
(i) Business records including receipts for the costs of doing business; or
(ii) Estimate of anticipated income and expenses.
(86) "Spouse" means a person who is legally married to another under Ohio law.
(87) "State adoption assistance" means the state-only adoption subsidy program as described in rule 5101:2-44-03 of the Administrative Code.
(88) "State foster care maintenance" means an entitlement for financial assistance for state-only foster care services as described in Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(89) "Support Services" means non-medical services offered or provided by the administrative agency to assist the individual and may include arranging or providing transportation, making medical appointments, accompanying the individual to medical appointments, and making referrals to community and other social services to be coordinated with the individual's medicaid-contracted managed care organization (MCO), where applicable.
(90) "Suspend" or "suspended" means the temporary discontinuance of eligibility.
(91) "Temporary absence" means that an individual is considered not to have changed residence and intends to return.
(a) An individual is considered to be temporarily absent with no time limit when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The location of the absent individual is known; and
(ii) There is a definite plan for the return of the absent individual to the residence; and
(iii) The absent individual lived in the residence immediately prior to the absence, except for individuals described in paragraph (C)(1)(h) of rule 5160:1-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Child(ren) removed by the PCSA are considered temporarily absent as long as the reunification requirements specified in the reunification plan are met.
(92) "Terminate" or "terminated" has the same meaning as "discontinue" or "discontinuance" as defined in paragraph (B)(16) of this rule.
(93) "Unearned income" means all income that is not earned income as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule.
(94) "United States (U.S.)" and "state(s)" mean all fifty U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, Swain's Island, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(95) "United States citizen or national" means any individual who is:
(a) A citizen or national through birth or collective naturalization as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part I (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(b) A naturalized citizen or national as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part II (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(96) "Verification" means a document, statement, electronic validation, or other type of information provided by an individual or by a third party to confirm statements made by the individual regarding any requirement for eligibility for medical assistance. A verification document or written statement may be an original, photocopy, facsimile (fax), or electronic version of the original, unless otherwise stated.
Last updated June 27, 2025 at 12:22 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-02 PACE: participant eligibility.
A person is eligible for PACE only if the person meets all the following requirements:
(A) The following basic requirements:
(1) The person is at least fifty-five years of age.
(2) The person resides within a PO's service area.
(3) The person has an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code.
(B) The following other requirements:
(1) AGE determines, according to 42 C.F.R. 460.150(c)(2), that the person can live in a community setting without jeopardizing his or her health and safety.
(2) The person, who may be enrolled as a medicaid or a non-medicaid enrollee, is responsible for payment to the PO as follows:
(a) If a person is applying for, or enrolled in, PACE through the medicaid program, the person maintains medicaid eligibility either under the financial eligibility standard or under a needs allowance if the person has moved from an institutional setting to a non-institutional setting, and any post-eligibility treatment of income (i.e., patient liability or share of cost) ODM may require in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) If a person is applying for, or enrolled in, PACE as a non-medicaid enrollee, the person may remain eligible for PACE if the person pays the premiums incurred while using PACE. (For more information, see rule 173-50-05 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R. 460.150.)
(3) At the time of initial enrollment, the person meets the following:
(a) The person is not enrolled in one or more of the following (or will disenroll following enrollment in PACE):
(i) A medicaid managed-care program other than PACE.
(ii) A medicaid waiver program (e.g., PASSPORT, assisted living, Ohio home care, mycare Ohio).
(iii) A medicare or medicaid prepayment plan (other than PACE) or optional benefit, including the hospice benefit.
(iv) A nursing facility certified by medicaid while medicaid is covering the person's nursing facility expenses.
(b) The person resides in a non-institutional setting (e.g., house, apartment).
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-3-08
(A) The criteria for the intermediate level of care is met when:
(1) The individual's needs for long-term services and supports (LTSS) exceed the criteria for the protective level of care, as described in paragraph (A)(3) of rule 5160-3-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) The individual's LTSS needs are less than the criteria for the skilled level of care, as described in paragraph (C) of this rule;
(3) The individual's LTSS needs do not meet the criteria for the developmental disabilities level of care or meets one of the following:
(a) The individual has been evaluated through an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM)-approved assessment tool and determined to have medical condition(s) or related need(s) necessitating an immediate need for support as determined by (ODM), or
(b) The individual receives a non-adverse level II pre-admission screening and resident review (PASRR) determination indicating the need for NF services.
(4) The individual needs a minimum of one of the following:
(a) Assistance with the completion of a minimum of two activities of daily living (ADL), as defined in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code and as described in paragraph (B) of this rule;
(b) Assistance with the completion of a minimum of one ADL as described in paragraph (B) of this rule, and assistance with medication administration;
(c) A minimum of one skilled nursing service or skilled rehabilitation service;
(d) Twenty-four hour support in order to prevent harm due to a cognitive impairment, as diagnosed by a physician or other licensed health professional acting within his or her applicable scope of practice, as defined by law; or
(e) If the individual is age seventeen years or younger, the age-appropriate need for assistance with items described in paragraphs (A)(4)(a) and (A)(4)(b) of this rule will be assessed in accordance with the ODM-approved assessment guide.
(B) For the purposes of meeting the criteria described in paragraph (A)(4) of this rule, an individual age eighteen years or older who needs assistance with an ADL needs:
(1) Assistance with mobility in at least one of the following three components:
(a) Bed mobility;
(b) Locomotion; or
(c) Transfer.
(2) Assistance with bathing.
(3) Assistance with grooming in all of the following three components:
(a) Oral hygiene;
(b) Hair care; and
(c) Nail care.
(4) Assistance with toileting in at least one of the following four components:
(a) Using a commode, bedpan, or urinal;
(b) Changing incontinence supplies or feminine hygiene products;
(c) Cleansing self; or
(d) Managing an ostomy or catheter.
(5) Assistance with dressing in at least one of the following two components:
(a) Putting on and taking off an item of clothing or prosthesis; or
(b) Fastening and unfastening an item of clothing or prosthesis.
(6) Assistance with eating.
(C) The criteria for the skilled level of care is met when:
(1) The individual's LTSS needs exceed the criteria for the protective level of care, as described in paragraph (A)(3) of rule 5160-3-06 of the Administrative Code;
(2) The individual's LTSS needs exceed the criteria for the intermediate level of care as described in paragraph (A)(4) of this rule;
(3) The individual's LTSS needs exceed the criteria for the developmental disabilities level of care;
(4) The individual needs a minimum of one of the following:
(a) One skilled nursing service within the day on no less than seven days per week; or
(b) One skilled rehabilitation service within the day on no less than five days per week; and
(5) The individual has an unstable medical condition.
(D) When an individual has been previously determined to meet the criteria for the intermediate or skilled level of care and has been enrolled in a NF-based home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver and has maintained enrollment, failure to meet the criteria in paragraph (A)(3) of this rule will not be a sufficient reason alone to deny level of care at the annual reassessment.
(E) When an individual meets the criteria for a skilled level of care, as described in paragraph (C) of this rule, the individual may request placement in an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities (ICF-IID) that provides services to individuals who have a skilled level of care. When an individual with a skilled level of care requests placement in an ICF-IID they will need to meet the criteria for the developmental disabilities level of care.
Last updated July 1, 2025 at 8:05 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-6-07.1
(A) This rule describes the process for calculating an individual's post-eligibility treatment of income (PETI), commonly referred to as patient liability or share of cost, when the individual is not living in a medical institution. This rule only applies to an individual who is both eligible for medical assistance under the special income level (SIL) as described in rule 5160:1-6-03.1 of the Administrative Code and who is receiving HCBS waiver or PACE services.
(B) The administrative agency will reduce its payment to the HCBS waiver or PACE providers for services provided to the individual by the amount of the individual's patient liability calculated in accordance with this rule.
(C) The individual must pay the patient liability amount to his or her providers identified by the HCBS waiver or PACE administrative agency.
(D) Providers are to collect the full patient liability amount or up to the cost of care, whichever is less.
(E) Patient liability must be recalculated when there is a change in circumstances that affects the patient liability amount.
(F) Patient liability can be established for retroactive eligibility as described in paragraph (L) of rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code and will follow the same process as described in paragraph (K) of this rule.
(G) Once eligibility has been established, patient liability cannot be increased for past months.
(H) A patient liability calculated for a child younger than age nineteen shall not increase during the child's continuous eligibility period as described in rule 5160:1-2-14 of the Administrative Code. Any decrease in a child's patient liability results in a new maximum amount, which will not increase for the remainder of the child's continuous eligibility period.
(I) Providers are required to refund to the individual any overpayments of patient liability paid by the individual, such as when retroactive patient liability adjustments are made.
(J) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Assisted living waiver maintenance needs allowance (ALMNA)" is an amount equal to the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit rate (FBR).
(2) "Special individual maintenance needs allowance (SIMNA)" is sixty-five per cent of the special income level.
(K) For purposes of this rule, patient liability is calculated in the following order:
(1) Total the individual's gross monthly earned and unearned income, including SSI payments. In the case of an institutionalized spouse, include any income attributed to the institutionalized spouse in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Exclude the following payments from the individual's gross monthly income:
(a) Payments to victims of Nazi persecution.
(b) Austrian social insurance payments based, in whole or in part, on wage credits received under the provisions of the Austrian General Social Insurance Act, paragraphs 500 through 506 (as in effect October 1, 2024). These payments need to be documented and identifiable separate from countable insurance.
(c) Payments from the Dutch government under the Netherlands' Benefit Act for victims of persecution from 1940-1945 (Dutch acronym, WUV) (Pub. L. No. 103-286).
(d) Restitution payments under the Civil Liberties Act of 1988, to U.S. citizens of Japanese ancestry and permanent resident Japanese non-citizens who were interned during World War II, or their survivors, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4215 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(e) Restitution payments under the Aleutian and Pribilof Island Restitution Act, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4236 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(f) Agent Orange settlement fund payments received on or after January 1, 1989, as a result of the Agent Orange Compensation Exclusion Act (Pub. L. No. 101-201).
(g) Department of defense payments to certain persons captured and interned in North Vietnam, in accordance with the Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-78).
(h) Radiation exposure compensation trust fund payments, in accordance with the Radiation Exposure Compensation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 101-426).
(i) Veterans affairs payments made to or on behalf of:
(i) Certain Vietnam veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(ii) Certain Korea service veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(iii) The natural children, regardless of age or marital status, with certain birth defects born to a woman who served in Vietnam.
(j) Veterans administration pensions, including payments for aid and attendance, up to the amount of ninety dollars per month, paid to veterans or their surviving spouse, if any, who are residing in a nursing facility or are receiving HCBS waiver services. This exclusion applies to:
(i) A veteran without a spouse or dependent minor or disabled child; and
(ii) A veteran's surviving spouse without a dependent minor or disabled child.
(k) Payments made to Native Americans as listed in section IV of 20 C.F.R. 416 Subpart K Appendix (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(l) SSI benefits received under authority of sections 1611(e)(1)(E) and (G) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024) for institutionalized individuals during the first three full months of institutionalization. The administrative agency must not retroactively redetermine patient liability determinations, made under the continued benefit provision, if the individual's actual stay exceeds the expected stay of ninety days or less.
(m) Residential state supplement (RSS) payments to institutionalized individuals, in accordance with rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code.
(n) Payments from a state fund for victims of crime.
(o) Payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class action settlement in the case of "Factor VIII or IX concentrate blood products litigation," MDL986, no. 93-C-7452 (N.D. Ill), per section 4735 of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Pub. L. No. 105-33).
(p) Payments from the Ricky Ray Hemophilia Fund Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-369) or payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class settlement in the case of Susan Walker v. Bayer Corporation, 96-C-5024 (N.D. III).
(q) Payments made to individuals under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000 (Pub. L. No. 106-398).
(r) Assistance (other than wages or salaries) under the Older Americans Act of 1965 under 92 Stat. 1515, 42 U.S.C. 3020a Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(s) Student financial assistance received under the Higher Education Act (HEA) of 1965 (as in effect October 1, 2024) or bureau of Indian affairs is excluded from income, regardless of use:
(i) Pell grants;
(ii) Student services incentives;
(iii) Academic achievement incentive scholarships;
(iv) Federal supplemental education opportunity grants;
(v) Federal educational loans (Stafford loans, William D. Ford federal direct and direct PLUS loans, etc.);
(vi) Upward bound;
(vii) Gear up (gaining early awareness and readiness for undergraduate programs);
(viii) State educational assistance programs funded by the leveraging educational assistance programs; and
(ix) Work-study programs.
(t) Matching funds that are deposited into individual development accounts (IDAs), either demonstration project or TANF-funded, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 604 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(u) Accounts under the Stephen Beck, Jr., Achieving a Better Life Experience (ABLE) Act of 2014 (Pub. L. No. 113-295). The following are not considered income to the account holder:
(i) Contributions to an ABLE account by another individual or third party.
(ii) Interest earned on an ABLE account.
(iii) Distributions from an ABLE account.
(v) Federal and state foster care payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E for a child currently living in the household.
(w) Federal or state adoption assistance payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E.
(x) Payments received under the kinship guardianship assistance program (KGAP), state KGAP, or kinship guardianship assistance program connections to twenty-one (KGAP C21).
(y) Child care assistance under the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 113-186).
(z) Assistance or services received through the domestic volunteer service under 42 U.S.C. 66 per 42 U.S.C. 5044(f) (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(aa) Payments made for supporting services or reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses to volunteers participating in corporation for national and community service (CNCS, formerly ACTION) programs in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 1382a (as in effect October 1, 2024):
(i) AmeriCorps VISTA program;
(ii) Special and demonstration volunteer program;
(iii) Retired senior volunteer program (RSVP);
(iv) Foster grandparents program; and
(v) Senior companion program.
(bb) Assistance or services received through federal food and nutrition programs:
(i) Supplemental nutrition assistance program (SNAP);
(ii) The value of foods donated by the U.S. department of agriculture commodity supplemental food program;
(iii) The value of supplemental food assistance received under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (Pub. L. No. 89-642) and the special food service program for children under the National School Lunch Act (Pub. L. No. 90-302);
(iv) The special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC); and
(v) Nutrition program benefits provided for the elderly under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(cc) Assistance received under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (Pub. L. No. 100-707) and assistance provided under any federal statute because of a presidentially-declared disaster.
(dd) Assistance, with respect to the dwelling unit occupied by such individual (or such individual and spouse), under the United States Housing Act of 1937 (Pub. L. No. 75-412), the National Housing Act (Pub. L. No. 73-479), section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-117), title V of the Housing Act of 1949 (Pub. L. No. 81-171), or section 202(h) of the Housing Act of 1959 (Pub. L. No. 86-372).
(ee) Home energy assistance provided on the basis of need, in accordance with 20 C.F.R. 416.1157 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(ff) Relocation assistance provided under title II of the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisitions Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L. No. 91-646) provided to individuals displaced by or through any federal, federally-assisted, state, state-assisted, local, or locally-assisted government project in the acquisition of real property.
(gg) The first two thousand dollars per calendar year received as compensation for participation in clinical trials that meet the criteria detailed in section 1612(b) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(3) Subtract the applicable personal needs allowance (PNA) as follows:
(a) For individuals receiving services under an HCBS waiver, other than the assisted living waiver, the PNA is the SIMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(b) For individuals receiving services under the assisted living waiver or in an assisted living facility receiving services under the mycare waiver, the PNA is the ALMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(c) For individuals receiving PACE services and residing in the community, the PNA is the SIMNA. Individuals receiving PACE services and residing in an assisted living facility are considered to be residing in the community.
(4) When the individual has a community spouse, subtract the monthly income allowance (MIA) for the community spouse.
(a) The MIA of the community spouse is calculated as follows:
(i) Determine the excess shelter allowance (ESA):
(a) Total and round down to the nearest dollar the community spouse's expenses for the principal place of residence, as defined in rule 5160:1-3-05.13 of the Administrative Code, including any rent or mortgage payment (including principal and interest), current property taxes, insurance, and any required maintenance charge for a condominium or cooperative; then
(b) When the community spouse is responsible for payment towards the cost of gas, electric, coal, wood, oil, water, sewage, or telephone service for the residence, add in the standard utility allowance; then
(c) Subtract the ESA standard.
(d) The remainder is the ESA.
(ii) Add the calculated ESA to the minimum monthly maintenance needs allowance (MMMNA) standard to determine the MMMNA. Except in accordance with a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, the MMMNA must not exceed the MMMNA cap which is updated annually.
(iii) Subtract the community spouse's gross monthly income from the lesser of the MMMNA, calculated in paragraph (K)(4)(a)(ii) of this rule, or the MMMNA cap. When a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code results in a MMMNA that is greater than the MMMNA cap, use the amount established in the hearing decision. The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the MIA.
(b) When there is court ordered support that is greater than the MIA calculated above, the court ordered amount is used as the MIA.
(c) When the community spouse's income is still below the MMMNA after all of the institutionalized spouse's income is allocated to the community spouse, the community spouse resource allowance can be increased in accordance with rules 5160:1-6-04 and 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, to generate additional income for the community spouse.
(5) When the individual has dependent family members, subtract either the family allowance (FA) or the family maintenance needs allowance (FMNA). The FA does not apply when there is an FMNA.
(a) Subtract an FA when the institutionalized individual has family members residing with his or her spouse in the community. The FA is calculated as follows:
(i) For each family member, multiply the MMMNA standard by one-third; then
(ii) Subtract that family member's gross monthly income; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the allowance amount for that family member.
(v) The allowances for each family member are added together to determine the FA.
(b) Subtract an FMNA when the institutionalized individual has dependent family members who resided with the institutionalized individual immediately before the individual was admitted to a medical institution. The FMNA does not apply when there is a spouse in the community. The FMNA is calculated as follows:
(i) The FMNA standard is the Ohio works first (OWF) payment standard for the same number of applicable dependent family members.
(ii) Subtract the combined monthly income of the dependent family members from the FMNA standard; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the FMNA.
(6) The following types of health care costs shall be subtracted from the institutionalized individual's patient liability. Any requests for subtraction of these costs must include documentation that clearly shows the type of medical expense, the amount the individual is responsible for paying, and the date the service or item was provided to the individual.
(a) Health insurance premiums (including medicaid and medicare premiums) and coinsurance, insurance deductibles and copayments, that are incurred by:
(i) The institutionalized individual;
(ii) The institutionalized individual's spouse; or
(iii) The institutionalized individual's minor or disabled child.
(b) The cost of any of the institutionalized individual's incurred expenses for medical care, recognized under Ohio law, but not covered by medicaid and not subject to third-party payment. The medical expenses, and any request to subtract such expenses from the patient liability, must meet the following criteria:
(i) The service was medically necessary as determined by the administrative agency.
(ii) Expenses for medical care were not incurred while serving a restricted medicaid coverage period (RMCP) per rule 5160:1-6-06.5 of the Administrative Code. Expenses that were incurred while serving an RMCP shall not count as unpaid past expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iii) Unpaid patient liability shall not count as unpaid past medical expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iv) The request for the subtraction of incurred expenses for medical care can only be initiated by either the institutionalized individual or person or entity who has the legal ability to act on the individual's behalf, including the institutionalized individual's authorized representative. A request for a deduction cannot be initiated by a medical services provider or supplier, unless such provider or supplier is also the institutionalized individual's authorized representative.
(v) Unpaid medical expenses that were incurred in the past may be subtracted from the patient liability as long as the services meet the criteria described in paragraph (K)(6)(b) of this rule.
(7) Subtract the payment in an amount up to fifteen dollars per month, or the amount approved by the administrative agency, to administer a qualified income trust (QIT) account in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-03.2 of the Administrative Code.
(8) The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the individual's monthly patient liability, for a full month of HCBS or PACE services.
(9) The individual's patient liability will be prorated when the individual is enrolled in an HCBS waiver or PACE program for less than a full month. Prorated patient liability amounts are calculated as follows:
(a) Determine the per diem patient liability amount by dividing the patient liability for a full month of institutionalization by the number of days in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined.
(b) Determine the actual number of days of institutionalization in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined, including the first date of institutionalization in the month. The date of discharge or the date of death is not included in this calculation.
(c) Multiply the actual number of days of institutionalization by the per diem patient liability amount and round this number down to the nearest dollar. This is the individual's prorated patient liability.
(L) The individual will receive written notification of the amount of patient liability for which he or she is responsible. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with the patient liability amount.
(M) When applicable, the individual will receive written notification of the MIA, FA, or FMNA that were calculated in accordance with this rule. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with those amounts.
Last updated December 6, 2025 at 3:03 PM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-05
(A) A participant is subject to involuntary disenrollment from PACE for an reason outlined in 42 C.F.R. 460.164(b).
(B) Process to involuntarily disenroll a PACE participant:
(1) If a PO requests permission to disenroll a participant under this rule, it shall submit the request to AGE along with documentation reflecting grounds for involuntary disenrollment and the PO's efforts to remedy the situation.
(2) ODA shall approve or deny the request based upon the requirements in paragraph (A) of this rule and notify the PO of the decision.
(3) If AGE does not approve the request, the PO shall continue to provide necessary services to the participant.
(4) If AGE approves the request, the PO is subject to the involuntary disenrollment process in 42 C.F.R. 460.164, 460.166, and 460.172.
(5) A participant's involuntary disenrollment is effective on the first day of the next month that begins thirty days after the day the PO sends notice of the disenrollment to the participant.
(6) After AGE approves an involuntary disenrollment, AGE sends the participant a notice of denial and hearing rights under division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(a) If the participant requests a hearing within fifteen days after AGE approves the involuntary disenrollment, AGE places the disenrollment on hold until a state hearing has been conducted.
(b) If the decision of the state hearing is that AGE made a correct decision to disenroll, then AGE enters the decision into the AGE- and ODM-approved eligibility systems.
(c) If the decision of the state hearing is that AGE made an incorrect decision to disenroll, the participant remains enrolled in PACE.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-03 PACE: application, assessment, enrollment, plan of care, reassessment, and continued enrollment.
(A) Oversight:
(1) AGE manages the enrollment for PACE.
(2) AGE determines if a slot is available in PACE.
(3) AGE may restrict enrollment based on funding for PACE.
(4) AGE may increase or decrease the maximum number of PACE slots.
(B) Intake process:
(1) A person may apply for PACE through either ODM's administrative agency or a PO. The two agencies coordinate intake with AGE.
(2) The PO is responsible for completing its intake duties under 42 C.F.R. 460.152 and notifying AGE of any applicant and its determination under 42 C.F.R. 460.152(a)(4). The PO may help the applicant apply for medicaid, unless the applicant is already enrolled in medicaid.
(3) ODM's administrative agency is responsible for determining whether the applicant meets all financial eligibility requirements for medicaid in Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, notifying AGE, the PO, and the applicant (or the applicant's representative) of its determination, and, if the applicant does not meet all financial eligibility requirements, notifying the applicant (or the applicant's authorized representative) of the denial and appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(4) A PO may enroll an applicant whose coverage status is "medicaid pending" (i.e., in the process of being determined for PACE medicaid eligibility until the issuance of the notice of action) following the eligibility determination:
(a) If the applicant is eligible for PACE medicaid, ODM is responsible for paying the applicable monthly premium to the PO beginning on the date the applicant was eligible for PACE medicaid.
(b) If the applicant is ineligible for PACE medicaid, or eligible with a share of cost, the PO assumes full financial responsibility for the period of pending PACE medicaid eligibility. If the applicant was already enrolled as a PACE participant, the PO cannot retroactively collect any monthly premium or other amount due under the post eligibility treatment of income process (also referred to as share of cost or patient liability).
(c) An applicant who is denied PACE medicaid eligibility may continue to be enrolled in PACE if the applicant is willing to pay the premium that would have been covered by medicaid. The applicant has the option to voluntarily disenroll pursuant to rule 173-50-04 of the Administrative Code if they do not wish to assume payment responsibility for the premium amount.
(d) The PO is responsible for updating the enrollment agreement with the premium amount and patient liability, if applicable, and satisfying the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 460.156(c) before the first payment is due.
(5) AGE is responsible for the level-of-care assessment under 42 C.F.R. 460.152(a)(3) and rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code. AGE, in its discretion, may delegate this responsibility.
(C) Enrollment eligibility:
(1) If AGE determines that an applicant meets all eligibility requirements in rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code, then the following apply:
(a) AGE notifies the PO of its determination.
(b) The PO is responsible for notifying the applicant of the opportunity to proceed with the process of enrolling into PACE, providing the applicant with the enrollment agreement under 42 C.F.R. 460.154, and completing the enrollment procedures in 42 C.F.R. 460.156 if the applicant signs the enrollment agreement.
(c) 42 C.F.R. 460.158 determines the effective date of the applicant's enrollment into PACE as the first day of the month following the date the PO receives the signed enrollment agreement.
(2) If AGE determines that an applicant does not meet basic eligibility requirements in rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code and 42 C.F.R, 460.150(b)(1) to (b)(3), then the following apply:
(a) AGE notifies the PO of its determination.
(b) AGE notifies the applicant (or the authorized representative) of the determination of ineligibility.
(c) If the applicant is ineligible because AGE determines they do not meet the level of care requirement in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code, then AGE provides appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Denial: If the PO determines that an applicant is not able to live safely in the community at the time of enrollment, then the PO shall notify CMS and AGE of its determination; and provide the applicant with written notification of the denial which includes the reason for the denial and information on appeal rights under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code and division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code; and refer the applicant to alternative services as appropriate.
(E) No available medicaid slot: If a slot is not available in PACE, the PO shall enroll the applicant when a slot becomes available (if the individual continues to meet the eligibility requirements) by one of the following two means:
(1) Unified waiting list: If the applicant meets the non-financial eligibility requirements for enrollment into PACE, but a slot in the program is not available, the PO shall place the applicant on the unified waiting list under rule 173-44-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Home first: If the applicant meets all requirements for the home first component of PACE in section 173.501 of the Revised Code, the PO shall enroll the applicant in PACE before enrolling any applicant from the unified waiting list in PACE.
(F) Continued eligibility: AGE is responsible for the initial level of care assessment and the annual reassessments under 42 C.F.R.460.152(a)(3) and 460.160. AGE, at its discretion, may delegate this responsibility.
(1) Waiver of annual requirement:
(a) AGE may permanently waive the annual recertification requirement for a participant if it determines that there is no reasonable expectation of improvement or significant change in the participant's condition because of the severity of a chronic condition or the degree of impairment of functional capacity.
(b) The PO must retain in the participant's medical record the documentation of the reason for waiving the annual recertification requirement.
(2) Deemed eligibility: If AGE determines that a participant no longer meets intermediate or skilled level of care requirements, the participant may be deemed to continue to be eligible for the PACE program until the next annual reevaluation, if, in the absence of continued coverage under this program, the participant reasonably would be expected to meet the nursing facility level of care requirement within the next six months.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:04 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-50-04
(A) A participant may voluntarily disenroll from PACE at any time without cause.
(B) The PO shall ensure its employees or contractors do not engage in any practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of steering or encouraging disenrollment of participants due to a change in health status.
(C) Process for voluntary disenrollment:
(1) A participant who wishes to voluntarily disenroll from PACE shall initiate the voluntary disenrollment process by informing the PO verbally, electronically, or in writing.
(2) Once the PO receives the participant's request, the PO shall notify AGE in writing.
(3) A participant's voluntary disenrollment is effective on the first day of the month after the date the PO receives the participant's notice of voluntary disenrollment.
(4) After receiving a written notice of disenrollment from the PO, AGE shall enter the disenrollment in the AGE- and ODM-approved eligibility systems.
(D) After a participant initiates a voluntary disenrollment, the PO shall continue to provide PACE services as outlined in the participant's plan of care until the effective date of disenrollment.
(E) Before disenrollment, the PO shall initiate a discharge plan for each participant who is voluntarily disenrolled. In each discharge plan, it shall state how it plans to do the following:
(1) Help the participant obtain necessary transitional care through referrals to other medicaid or medicare service providers.
(2) Provide the participant's medical records to new providers no later than thirty days after disenrollment.
(F) After the participant initiates a voluntary disenrollment, the participant remains liable for any premium or patient-liability costs incurred for services rendered by the PO until the effective date of disenrollment.
Last updated June 1, 2026 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2026
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-44-04
(A) The United States centers for medicare and medicaid services limits the number of slots available for enrollment in the medicaid-funded components of the assisted living and PASSPORT programs which may cause a waiting list. A lack of capacity in PACE may also cause a waiting list. (This rule does not apply to the state-funded components of the assisted living or PASSPORT programs.)
(B) Waiting list:
(1) If ODA's designee determines an individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, but a slot is not available for enrollment in the program, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall place the individual on the unified waiting list established under section 173.55 of the Revised Code according to the latter of the date the individual applied for the program or the date the individual met all non-financial eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied.
(2) ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall offer enrollment to any individual on the unified waiting list for the assisted living, PACE, or PASSPORT programs who meets all of the eligibility requirements for the program to which the individual applied, in compliance with the enrollment rule for the program, according to the chronological order that ODA's designee placed the individual on the waiting list, unless prohibited by rule 173-38-03, 173-50-03, or 173-42-03 of the Administrative Code.
(a) The following rules present the eligibility requirements:
(i) Assisted living: See rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-02 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rule 5160-31-03 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The following rules present the enrollment process:
(i) Assisted living: See rules 173-38-03 and 5160-33-04 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) PACE: See rule 173-50-03 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) PASSPORT: See rules 173-42-03 and 5160-31-04 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If ODA's designee offers enrollment to an individual from the unified waiting list, but the individual declines enrollment, the individual may remain on the unified waiting list and ODA's designee shall offer enrollment to the next individual on the list according to the order this rule establishes.
(4) If a slot is available in the program to which an eligible individual applied, ODA's designee or the PACE organization shall not place the individual on the unified waiting list.
(C) Definitions for this rule:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means "the Ohio department of aging."
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"PACE" means "the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly."
"PASSPORT program" (PASSPORT) means the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code.
Last updated July 26, 2023 at 2:09 PM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Chapter 173-51 State-Funded Assisted Living Program
Ohio Adm.Code 173-51-01 Assisted living program (state-funded component): introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: This chapter regulates the state-funded component of the assisted living program created under section 173.543 of the Revised Code. (See Chapter 173-38 of the Administrative Code for rules on the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.)
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Assisted living program" (program) means the state-funded component of the assisted living program. This component temporarily provides eligible individuals with the assisted living service under rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code, and in some cases, community transition under rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code.
"Authorized representative" has the same meaning as in rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA's designee" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-01 of the Administrative Code.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"ODM's administrative agency" has the same meaning as "administrative agency" in rule 5160:1-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
"Person-centered services plan" means the outline of services that a case manager authorizes a provider to provide to an individual, regardless of the funding source for those services. It includes the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual or caregiver which identifies only the individual or caregiver and which the individual or caregiver offers as an attestation to enrolling into the state-funded component of the assisted living program and agreeing to the requirements of that program. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 1:27 PM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.16
(A) Definitions for this rule:
(1) "Assisted living service" means either a basic service or memory care that promotes aging in an RCF by supporting the individual's independence, choice, and privacy.
(2) "Basic service" means all of the following:
(a) A service that includes the following:
(i) Personal care under rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code, which includes hands-on assistance, supervision, and/or cuing of ADLs, and IADLs.
(ii) Nursing, including the following:
(a) The initial and subsequent health assessments under rule 3701-16-08 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Other activities included in rules 3701-16-09 and 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(iii) Coordinating three meals per day and snacks according to rule 3701-16-10 of the Administrative Code with access to food according to rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(iv) Coordinating the social, recreational, and leisure activities under rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code to promote community participation and integration, including non-medical transportation to services and resources in the community.
(b) A service that does not include the following:
(i) Housing.
(ii) Meals.
(iii) Twenty-four-hour skilled nursing care.
(iv) One-on-one supervision of an individual.
(3) "Census" means the total number of residents in an RCF on a given day and includes any resident who is temporarily absent from the RCF without being discharged.
(4) "Memory care" means a service that a provider provides in compliance with paragraph (D) of this rule to an individual that a practitioner assessed, then issued a documented diagnosis of any form of dementia.
(5) "Practitioner" means a health care provider engaging in activities authorized by the provider's license, certification, or registration.
(6) "Resident call system" has the same meaning as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(7) "Staff member" and "staff" have the same meanings as in rule 3701-16-01 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Certification types: ODA certifies each provider for either of the following:
(1) The basic service.
(2) The basic service and memory care.
(C) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service:
(1) General requirements: The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) RCF qualifications:
(a) Licensure: Only a provider who maintains a current, valid RCF license from ODH and maintains compliance with Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and Chapters 3701-13 and 3701-16 of the Administrative Code qualifies to provide this service.
(b) Public information: The provider shall display the following on its website:
(i) Whether the provider is currently certified by ODA to provide the basic service or both the basic service and memory care.
(ii) Whether the provider is currently accepting individuals who are enrolling in the assisted living program or mycare Ohio.
(c) Resident units: A resident unit qualifies for this service only if the unit meets all the following standards:
(i) Occupancy:
(a) The resident unit is a single-occupancy resident unit designated solely for the individual, except as permitted under paragraph (C)(2)(c)(i)(b) of this rule.
(b) The provider may allow an individual to share a single-occupancy resident unit only if all of the following conditions exist:
(i) The individual requests to share the individual's unit.
(ii) The individual shares the individual's unit with a person with whom the individual has an existing relationship.
(iii) ODA's designee verifies that the conditions of paragraphs (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(i) and (C)(2)(c)(i)(b)(ii) of this rule are met and authorizes sharing the unit in the individual's person-centered services plan.
(ii) Lock: The resident unit has a lock that allows the individual to control access to the resident unit at all times, unless the individual's person-centered services plan indicates otherwise.
(iii) Bathroom: The resident unit includes a bathroom with a toilet, a sink, and a shower or bathtub, all of which are in working order.
(iv) Social space: The resident unit includes identifiable space, separate from the sleeping area, that provides seating for the individual and one or more visitors for socialization.
(d) Common areas: The provider shall provide common areas accessible to the individual, including a dining area (or areas) and an activity center (or centers). A multi-purpose common area may serve as both a dining area and an activity center.
(3) Staff availability: The provider shall maintain adequate staffing levels to comply with rule 3701-16-05 of the Administrative Code in a timely manner in response to individual's unpredictable care needs, supervisory needs, emotional needs, and reasonable requests for services through the resident call system twenty-four hours per day.
(4) Minors: No staff member under eighteen years of age qualifies to do any of the following:
(a) Assist with medication administration.
(b) Provide transportation.
(c) Provide personal care without on-site supervision, in accordance with rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Initial staff qualifications: Only a staff member who successfully completes training in the following subject areas qualifies to provide this service:
(a) Principles and philosophy of assisted living.
(b) The aging process.
(c) Cuing, prompting, and other means of effective communication.
(d) Common behaviors for cognitively-impaired individuals, behaviorally-impaired individuals, or other individuals and strategies to redirect or de-escalate those behaviors.
(e) Confidentiality.
(f) The person-centered planning process in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code, which includes supporting individuals' full access to the greater community.
(g) The individual's right to assume responsibility for decisions related to the individual's care.
(6) In-service training: The provider shall ensure that each staff member providing this service successfully completes any training requirements in rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code and makes verification of successful completion of those requirements available to ODA or its designee upon request.
(7) Quarterly assessments: The provider's RN or LPN shall contact the individual at least quarterly to assess, and retain a record of, all of the following:
(a) The individual's satisfaction with the individual's activity plan and whether the activity plan continues to meet the individual's needs.
(b) Whether the individual's records demonstrate that the individual is receiving activities as ODA or its designee authorized them in the individual's person-centered service plan.
(c) Whether staff are providing personal care services to the individual in a manner that complies with rule 3701-16-09 of the Administrative Code.
(8) Subcontracting: The provider may subcontract to provide one or more, but not all, of the activities listed under paragraph (A)(2)(a) of this rule that ODA or its designee authorizes for the individual. The provider is responsible to assure that any activity provided by a sub-contractor complies with this chapter.
(D) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of the basic service and memory care:
(1) The provider is subject to the standards in paragraph (C) of this rule.
(2) The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards:
(a) The provider displays a purpose statement on its website that explains the difference between the provider's basic service and its memory care, or only a memory care purpose statement if that is the exclusive service the provider offers.
(b) The provider designates each single-occupancy resident unit in paragraph (C)(2)(c) of this rule in which it plans to provide memory care as one of the following:
(i) A resident unit in a memory care section of the RCF. The provider may add a single-occupancy resident unit to an existing memory care section even if the resident unit is not next door to the existing section.
(ii) A resident unit in an RCF that provides only memory care.
(c) A staff member who successfully completed the training requirement in paragraph (D)(3) of rule 3701-16-06 of the Administrative Code provides or arranges for at least three therapeutic, social, or recreational activities listed in rule 3701-16-11 of the Administrative Code per day with consideration given to individuals' preferences and designed to meet individuals' needs.
(d) The provider ensures safe access to outdoor space for individuals.
(e) The provider assists each individual who makes a call through the resident call system in person in fewer than ten minutes after the individual initiates the call.
(3) Staff availability: The provider qualifies for certification to provide memory care only if the provider meets all of the following standards in addition to the requirements in paragraph (C)(3) of this rule:
(a) The provider has a sufficient number of RNs or LPNs on call or on site at all times for individuals receiving memory care.
(b) The provider maintains the appropriate direct-care staff-to-resident ratio below for its memory care:
(i) If providing memory care and the basic service at the same time, a ratio for the provider's memory care that is at least twenty per cent higher than the provider's ratio for its basic service.
(ii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is readily available to the provider, then a ratio that is at least twenty per cent higher than that average ratio.
(iii) If providing only memory care and the average ratio for the basic service provided by a representative sample of providers participating in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is not readily available to the provider, then a ratio of at least one direct-care staff member for every ten individuals receiving memory care with at least one direct-care staff member on each floor of the RCF if the RCF provides memory care on multiple floors.
(4) Initial staff qualifications: A staff member qualifies to provide memory care without in-person supervision only if the staff member successfully completes training all of the following topics in addition to the topics listed under paragraph (C)(5) of this rule:
(a) Overview of dementia: symptoms, treatment approaches, and progression.
(b) Foundations of effective communication in dementia care.
(c) Common behavior challenges specific to dementia and recommended behavior management techniques.
(d) Current best practices in dementia care.
(e) Missing resident prevention and response.
(5) In-service training: A staff member continues to qualify to provide memory care only if the staff member successfully completes dementia care training when complying with paragraph (C)(6) of this rule.
(E) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program, the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the following:
(a) The unit of service as one day.
(b) The maximum-allowable rates for a unit of a unit of the basic service and a unit of memory care.
(c) Critical access rates.
(2) For the assisted living program, rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the rate-setting methodology for a unit of service.
(3) Requirements to obtain the critical access rate for certified assisted living providers:
(a) A certified provider of the service, whether the basic service or memory care, that provided the service for one or more state fiscal years qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) At least an average of fifty per cent of the residents in the RCF were enrolled in medicaid during the preceding state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information based on the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(b) A certified provider of the assisted living service, whether the basic service or memory care, that has not provided the service for one or more state fiscal years and intends to provide the service for the duration of the state fiscal year in which the provider was initially certified, qualifies for the critical access rate by meeting all of the following:
(i) The provider projects and attests that at least an average of fifty percent of the residents in the RCF will be enrolled in medicaid during the state fiscal year, whether through the assisted living program, mycare Ohio, or PACE.
(ii) The provider responds to ODA's annual June survey by providing, and attesting to the veracity of, all of the following information for the period beginning with the provider's attestation date in paragraph (E)(3)(b)(i) of this rule through the remainder of the current state fiscal year:
(a) The average daily census of the RCF.
(b) The average daily number of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(c) The average daily percentage of residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(d) The medicaid identification numbers of all residents in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who are enrolled in medicaid.
(e) For each resident in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(ii)(a) of this rule who is enrolled in mycare Ohio, the name of the mycare Ohio plan into which the resident enrolled.
(f) Any other information required in the survey.
(c) A certified provider who fails to meet all requirements under paragraph (E)(3)(a) or (E)(3)(b) of this rule at the end of the fiscal year may requalify for the critical access rate by meeting the requirement in paragraph (E)(3)(a)(i) of this rule and satisfying the requirements in paragraph (E)(3)(a) of this rule.
(d) The critical access rate is payable for a qualifying provider for a resident receiving the basic service for the duration of the state fiscal year without adjustment. This rate is not payable for a resident also receiving memory care.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-02.17
(A) "Community transition" means the service defined in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Requirements for an ODA-certified provider of community transition:
(1) The provider is subject to rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) The provider is subject to rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(3) If a conflict exists between a requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code and a requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code, the provider is subject to the requirement in rule 173-39-02 of the Administrative Code rather than the conflicting requirement in rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(C) Units and rates:
(1) For the assisted living program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the assisted living program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160-1-06.5 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-33-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
(2) For the PASSPORT program:
(a) The appendix to rule 5160-1-06.1 of the Administrative Code lists the unit of community transition as one completed job per individual per enrollment in the PASSPORT program and includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(b) The rate per job is subject to the maximum-allowable rate established in the appendix to rule 5160 1 06.1 of the Administrative Code and the per-individual-per-enrollment limit in paragraph (C)(2) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code.
(c) Rule 5160-31-07 of the Administrative Code establishes the unit rate as a rate that is negotiated between the provider and ODA's designee. The negotiated rate includes any of the expenses listed under paragraph (A)(1) of rule 5160-44-26 of the Administrative Code. The provider is ineligible to receive a payment for a unit of community transition that exceeds the negotiated rate, unless ODA's designee approves a revised rate.
Last updated March 6, 2025 at 8:03 AM
History
- Effective: May 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-1-33
(A) Designation of an authorized representative.
(1) ) An individual may designate any person or organization to serve as that individual's authorized representative. Any person serving as an authorized representative must be at least eighteen years or older.
(2) Authority for a person or organization to act on behalf of the individual accorded under state law, including but not limited to, a court order establishing legal guardianship, must be treated as a written designation by the individual of authorized representation.
(3) The designation of an authorized representative must be in writing, and must identify what duties the individual is authorizing the representative to perform.
(4) If the designated authorized representative is unwilling or unable to accept the responsibility of being an authorized representative, the authorized representative must inform the administrative agency and the individual of the refusal or withdrawal.
(B) The authorized representative:
(1) Must present proper identification, if requested by the administrative agency, prior to the disclosure of medicaid information to the authorized representative.
(2) Must agree to maintain or be legally bound to maintain the confidentiality of any information regarding the individual provided by the administrative agency.
(3) Will receive copies of notices and correspondence sent to the individual by the administrative agency.
(4) Stands in the place of the individual. Any responsibility of the individual is a responsibility of the authorized representative. Any action taken by the authorized representative or failure to act will be accepted as the action or lack of action of the individual.
(5) Shares all responsibilities set out in rule 5160:1-2-08 of the Administrative Code.
(C) The administrative agency may contact the individual to clarify or verify information provided by an authorized representative if the authorized representative provides information that seems contradictory, unclear, or unrealistic.
(D) The administrative agency may choose not to contact the authorized representative if the administrative agency believes that the authorized representative might endanger the individual in a situation of domestic violence, abuse, or neglect in accordance with 45 C.F.R. 164.502(g)(5) (as in effect October 1, 2015).
(E) If the authorized representative is a provider or staff member or volunteer of an organization, the authorized representative must affirm that he or she will adhere to the regulations in 42 C.F.R. Part 431 Subpart F (as in effect October 1, 2015), 42 C.F.R. 447.10 (as in effect October 1, 2015), 45 C.F.R. 155.260(f) (as in effect October 1, 2015), as well as other relevant state and federal laws concerning conflicts of interest and confidentiality of information.
(F) The power to act as authorized representative is valid until the individual notifies the administrative agency that the authorized representative is no longer authorized to act on his or her behalf, or the authorized representative informs the administrative agency the he or she no longer is acting in such capacity, or there is a change in the legal authority upon which the authorized representative's authority was based. Such notice should include the applicant or authorized representative's signature as appropriate.
(G) Assistance from persons or organizations who are not authorized representatives.
(1) A person or organization may accompany and assist an individual with portions of the application, verification, or redetermination process without being an individual's authorized representative.
(2) The administrative agency must not reveal confidential information or send notices or correspondence to a person or organization who is assisting an individual, unless the person or organization is designated as an authorized representative.
(3) A person or organization who is assisting an individual must provide accurate information to the administrative agency, to the best of his or her knowledge, regardless of whether the person or organization is an authorized representative.
History
- Effective: January 13, 2017
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-39-01
(A) Introduction:
(1) This chapter establishes the requirements for providers to become, and to remain, certified by AGE, compliance reviews of certified providers, and disciplinary actions that may be imposed on certified providers.
(2) Rule 5160-58-04 of the Administrative Code establishes requirements for providers of services to individuals in the mycare Ohio program to comply with many of the requirements in this chapter.
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Activity of daily living" (ADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Activity plan" means a description of interventions and the schedule for when to provide those interventions.
"ADS" has the same meaning as in rule 173-39-02.1 of the Administrative Code.
"AGE" means the Ohio department of aging.
"Agency provider" means a legally-organized entity that employs staff, with the exception of an assisted living provider.
"AGE's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "AGE," it means "AGE's designee."
"Assistance with self-administration of medication" has the same meaning as in paragraph (C) of rule 4723-13-02 of the Administrative Code when an unlicensed person provides the assistance.
"Assisted living provider" means a licensed residential care facility.
"Business day" means any day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday under section 1.14 of the Revised Code.
"Business site" includes any location at which the provider retains records or provides services. "Business site" does not include the home of an individual receiving services unless the individual employs a participant-directed provider.
"Caregiver" means a relative, friend, or significant other who voluntarily provides assistance to the individual and is responsible for the individual's care on a continuing basis.
"Case manager" means a registered or licensed person that AGE's designee employs to plan, coordinate, monitor, evaluate, and authorize services for individuals enrolled in AGE-administered programs.
"Certification" means AGE's approval of a provider to provide one or more of the services that this chapter regulates.
"Certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"CMS" means centers for medicare and medicaid services.
"Competency evaluation" includes both standardized testing (whether written or electronic) and skills testing by return demonstration to ensure an applicant or employee is able to address the care needs of the individual to be served.
"Complete application" means the application and all records necessary to comply with rule 173-39-03 of the Administrative Code, and if applicable, rule 173-39-03.1, 173-39-03.2, 173-39-03.3, or 173-39-03.4 of the Administrative Code. Although AGE cannot approve an application to become a certified assisted living provider unless the RCF is licensed, the application is a complete application if the provider indicates in its application that it applied for a RCF license and the provider provides the necessary RCF licensure information to AGE as soon as it is available.
"Current owner" means a person with an ownership interest in a certified provider whose interest in the provider is being sold or transferred.
"Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" mean a person with a current, valid license to practice dietetics under section 4759.06 of the Revised Code. "Dietitian" and "licensed dietitian" include a licensed dietitian with "compact privilege" and an "unencumbered license" from another "member state," as those terms are defined in section 4759.30 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. For a health care record, "electronic record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code. If attached to, or associated with, a health care record, "electronic signature" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code.
"Electronic visit verification" (EVV) means using an ODM-approved EVV system to verify the provision of a service pursuant to Chapter 5160-32 of the Administrative Code.
"Emergency contact person" means a person the individual or caregiver wants the provider to contact in the event of an emergency to inform the person about the nature of the emergency.
"HCBS" means home and community-based services.
"Health care record" has the same meaning as in section 3701.75 of the Revised Code. Examples of a health care record are a plan of treatment or diet order received from a licensed healthcare professional.
"HHS" means the United States department of health and human services.
"Individual" has the same meaning in rule 5160-31-02 of the Administrative Code.
"Instrumental activity of daily living" (IADL) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
"Licensed healthcare professional" includes a physician with an "expedited license," as defined in section 4731.11 of the Revised Code; or a licensed audiologist, occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, physical therapist, physical therapy assistant, or speech-language pathologist from another state with "compact privilege," as defined in section 4753.17, 4755.14, or 4755.57 of the Revised Code, or an RN or LPN with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Licensed practical nurse" (LPN) has the same meaning as in divisions (E) and (F) of section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a licensed practical nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Medicaid-provider agreement" means an agreement between ODM and the provider.
"Medicaid provider number" means a number ODM issued to a provider with whom ODM has entered into a medicaid-provider agreement.
"National provider identifier" (NPI) means a number issued to a provider by HHS.
"Non-agency provider" (i.e., "self-employed provider") means a legally-organized entity that is owned and controlled by one self-employed person who does not employ, either directly or through a contract, anyone else to provide services, and who is unsupervised. A non-agency provider is not a participant-directed provider. (See the definition of "participant-directed provider" in this rule.)
"Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the Ohio department of aging.
"ODA-certified provider" means a provider certified by AGE according to this chapter.
"ODA's designee" means an entity to which AGE delegates one or more of its administrative duties. AGE's current designees include the area agencies on aging as defined in rule 173-2-01 of the Administrative Code and "Catholic Social Services of the Miami Valley." When "its designee" occurs after "ODA," it means "ODA's designee."
"ODH" means the Ohio department of health.
"ODM" means the Ohio department of medicaid.
"Ownership interest" means direct ownership interest totaling five per cent or more in the provider, indirect ownership interest equal to five percent or more in the provider, a combination of direct and indirect ownership interest equal to five per cent or more in the provider; or an interest of five per cent or more in any mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other obligation if that interest equals at least five per cent of the value of the property or assets of the provider.
"Participant-directed provider" means a person that an individual (participant) directly employs and supervises to provide a service.
"PCA" means "personal care aide."
"Person-centered services plan" means the person-centered planning in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
"PIMS" means "PASSPORT Information Management System" or the system that replaces PIMS.
"Plan of treatment" means the orders of a licensed healthcare professional whose scope of practice includes making plans of treatment.
"Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code. AGE certifies the following categories: agency provider, assisted living provider, non-agency provider, and participant-directed provider.
"Provider agreement" means an agreement between AGE's designee and the provider.
"Region" means a distinct geographic area in which AGE's designee provides administrative functions for this chapter and the PASSPORT and assisted living programs. Each region consists of the counties assigned to similarly-numbered planning and service areas (PSAs) in rule 173-2-02 of the Administrative Code, except for "PSA2." In that PSA, Clark, Greene, and Montgomery counties comprise "Region 2" and Champaign, Darke, Logan, Miami, Preble, and Shelby counties comprise "Region CSS."
"Registered nurse" (RN) has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code and includes a registered nurse with a "multistate license" from another state with "multistate licensure privilege," as those terms are defined in section 4723.11 of the Revised Code.
"Residential care facility" (RCF) has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"Services" has the same meaning as "community-based long-term care services" in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
"Significant change" means a variation in the health, care, or needs of an individual that warrants further evaluation to determine if changes to the type, amount, or scope of services are needed. Significant changes include differences in health status, caregiver status, residence, service location, service delivery, hospitalization, and emergency department visits that result in the individual not receiving services for thirty days.
"Unique identifier" means an item belonging to a specific individual, caregiver, driver (in the case of rule 173-39-02.18 of the Administrative Code), participant-directed provider (in the case of rule 173-39-02.4 of the Administrative Code), aide (in the case of rule 173-39-02.8 of the Administrative Code), or PCA (in the case of rule 173-39-02.11 or 173-39-02.20 of the Administrative Code) that identifies only that individual, caregiver, driver, provider, aide, or PCA. Examples of a unique identifier are a handwritten or electronic signature or initials, fingerprint, mark, stamp, password, barcode, or swipe card. An individual, caregiver, driver, participant-directed provider, aide, or PCA offers their unique identifier as an attestation that the provider, or the provider's staff, completed an activity or unit of service.
"Vocational program" means a planned series, or a sequence of courses or modules, that incorporate challenging, academic education and rigorous, performance-based training to prepare participants for success in a particular health care career or occupation.
Last updated November 4, 2025 at 7:33 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-1-01
(A) This rule contains definitions generally used in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(B) Definitions.
(1) "Abuse" means any action by an individual or entity that results in unnecessary costs to the medical assistance program in accordance with 42 C.F.R 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(2) "Administrative agency" means the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) and/or an agent of ODM authorized to determine eligibility for a medical assistance program.
(3) "Advance notice of adverse action" means a written notice of the administrative agency's intent to discontinue or suspend medical assistance, reduce the level of benefits or covered services, or increase the amount of an individual's premium or patient liability, sent no less than fifteen calendar days prior to the date of the proposed action in accordance with rules 5101:6-2-04 and 5101:6-2-05 of the Administrative Code.
(4) "Applicant" means an individual who is seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself through an application submission or a transfer from another agency or insurance affordability program in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.4 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(5) "Approve" or "approval" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(6) "Assets" means all income and resources of the individual and of the individual's spouse. This includes any income or resources the individual or the individual's spouse is entitled to, but does not receive, because of an action taken to avoid receipt of the asset by:
(a) The individual or the individual's spouse; or
(b) A person, including a court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place of, or on behalf of, the individual or the individual's spouse; or
(c) Any person, including any court or administrative body, acting at the direction, or upon the request, of the individual or the individual's spouse.
(7) "Assignment" means an individual eligible for medical assistance has transferred his or her right, or the rights of any other individual for whom he or she can legally make an assignment, to collect and retain third-party and/or medical support payments to ODM up to the amount of medical services paid under the medicaid program.
(8) "Authorized representative" means a person, who is at least eighteen years of age, or a legal entity who stands in place of the individual. Actions or failures of an authorized representative will be accepted as the action or failure of the individual. When an individual has designated an authorized representative, all references to the individual's responsibilities include the authorized representative in accordance with rule 5160-1-33 of the Administrative Code.
(9) "Base eligibility" means the individual meets all of the eligibility requirements for at least one category of medical assistance described in Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, or 5160:1-5 of the Administrative Code.
(10) "Caretaker relative" means a relative of a dependent child by blood, adoption, or marriage with whom the child is living, who assumes primary responsibility for the child's care (as may, but is not required to, be indicated by claiming the child as a tax dependent for federal income tax purposes), and who is one of the following:
(a) The child's father, mother, brother, sister, stepfather, stepmother, stepbrother, or stepsister; or
(b) The child's grandfather, grandmother, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece, including such relatives with the prefix great, great-great, grand, or great-grand; or
(c) The child's first cousin or first cousin once removed; or
(d) The spouse of such parent or relative, even after the marriage is terminated by death or divorce.
(11) "Case record" means electronic or paper documents and information used to determine, redetermine, or renew an individual's eligibility for medical assistance.
(12) "Creditable insurance" or "creditable coverage" means health insurance coverage as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-3(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(a) This includes:
(i) A group health plan; or
(ii) Health insurance coverage; or
(iii) Medicare part A, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395c to 1395i-5 (as in effect October 1, 2022) or part B, as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1395j to 1395w-6 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(iv) Coverage under medicaid, as set forth in Title XIX of the Social Security Act, other than coverage consisting solely of benefits under the pediatric vaccine program set forth in 42 U.S.C. 1396s (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(v) Armed forces health insurance as set forth in 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(vi) A medical care program of the Indian health service or of a tribal organization; or
(vii) A state health benefits risk pool; or
(viii) A federal employee health plan offered under 5 U.S.C. 8901 to 8992 (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(ix) A public health plan; or
(x) A peace corps volunteer health benefit plan under section 22 U.S.C. 2504 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(b) Creditable insurance does not include:
(i) Coverage only for accident or disability income insurance; or
(ii) Liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; or
(iii) Workers' compensation or similar insurance; or
(iv) Automobile medical payment insurance; or
(v) Credit insurance which pays off existing debts in the event of death, disability, or unemployment; or
(vi) Coverage for employment onsite medical clinics; or
(vii) Other similar insurance coverage under which benefits for medical care are secondary or incidental to other insurance benefits; or
(viii) Limited-scope dental or vision benefits; or
(ix) Benefits for long-term care, nursing facility care, home health care, or community-based care; or
(x) Coverage only for a specified disease or illness; or
(xi) Hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if purchased separately; or
(xii) Medicare supplemental health insurance as defined under 42 U.S.C. 1395ss (as in effect October 1, 2022), coverage supplemental to the coverage provided to military or former military personnel under 10 U.S.C. 1071 to 1110b (as in effect October 1, 2022), and similar supplemental coverage provided to coverage under a group health plan; or
(xiii) Coverage through a medical cost-sharing program, including a health care cost-sharing ministry.
(13) "Deduction" means a verifiable amount the individual pays for an expense. Garnishments or liens placed against earned or unearned income of an individual are not considered a deduction, regardless of the reason for the garnishment or lien.
(14) "Deny" or "denial" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is not eligible for one or more categories of medical assistance applied for by the individual or on behalf of the individual by his or her authorized representative.
(15) "Dependent child" means a person younger than age eighteen living with a parent or caretaker relative.
(16) "Discontinue" or "discontinuance" means a determination by the administrative agency that an individual is no longer eligible, or has failed to cooperate with verification of eligibility, for one or more categories of medical assistance currently being received by that individual, resulting in a written notice of the administrative agency's intention to end coverage under that category and providing notice of hearing rights in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.917 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(17) "Disregard" means the amount subtracted from gross, non-excluded income in the medical assistance budget calculation.
(18) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic and treatment" (EPSDT) means screening, vision, dental, and hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic services, treatment, and other measures described in 42 U.S.C. 1396d (as in effect October 1, 2022) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and conditions discovered by the screening services, whether or not such services are covered under the medicaid state plan. Healthchek is Ohio's EPSDT program.
(19) "Earned income" means income in cash or in-kind received as payment for services performed as an employee or as a self-employed individual. Earned income includes but is not limited to wages, salary, or commissions from which state or federal income taxes are paid or withheld.
(20) "Electronic equivalent" means an electronic version of an Ohio department of job family services (ODJFS) or ODM form or application which has not been modified in any way, other than format, prior to completion and submission of that form to the administrative agency. The administrative agency is not required to accept forms that are altered.
(21) "Electronic protected health information" (ePHI) means any protected health information (PHI) that is maintained or transmitted in electronic form, regardless of the format.
(22) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to, or logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record as defined in section 1306.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Encumbrance" means a claim, lien, charge, or liability attached to and binding on an identified piece of real or personal property.
(24) "Equity value" means the fair market value of a resource minus any encumbrance.
(25) "Erroneous payment" means a medicaid reimbursement made for an individual who was ineligible at the time services were received, regardless of the presence of fraud or abuse.
(26) "Excluded income" means income that state or federal law prohibits from consideration in determining eligibility for medical assistance.
(27) "Fair market value" means, unless otherwise stated, the going price, at the time of the transfer or contract of sale, for which real or personal property can reasonably be expected to sell on the open market in the relevant geographic area. The appraised value of real property is determined by the county auditor and may be used to establish fair market value.
(28) "Family size" means the number of persons counted as members of an individual's medicaid household.
(29) "Federal adoption assistance" (AA) means the Title IV-E subsidy program as defined by the Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980 (Pub. L. No. 96-272).
(30) "Federal benefit rate" (FBR) means the supplemental security income (SSI) current payment standard published annually by the social security administration (SSA).
(31) "Federal foster care maintenance" (FCM) means the Title IV-E program, as described in rule 5101:2-47-01 of the Administrative Code.
(32) "Federal kinship guardianship assistance program" (KGAP) means the Title IV-E program to provide payments to relatives, as defined in section 5101.141 of the Revised Code, who have assumed legal custody or guardianship of eligible children whom they have cared for as foster parents for a minimum of six consecutive months and for whom there is a valid KGAP or KGAP C21 agreement.
(33) "Federal means-tested public benefit" means a benefit in which eligibility for the benefit or the amount of the benefit, or both, is determined on the basis of income or resources of the individual seeking the benefit. Medicaid, cash assistance, and food assistance are federal means-tested public benefits, but certain other benefits listed in 8 U.S.C. 1613(c) (as in effect October 1, 2022) are not considered means-tested.
(34) "Federal poverty level" (FPL) means a measure of income determined annually by the department of health and human services (HHS). The FPL is designed to provide a baseline for determining financial eligibility for federal programs and benefits.
(35) "Good cause" means circumstances that reasonably prevent an individual from cooperating with the administrative agency in the eligibility determination process. Factors relevant to good cause include, but are not limited to, natural disasters, riots or civil unrest, death or serious illness of the individual or a member of his/her immediate family, or the physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations of the individual.
(36) "Gross income" means income prior to any deductions or disregards, with the exception of self-employment gross countable income.
(37) "Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996" (HIPAA) means a federal law to protect patient privacy, to protect security of electronic medical records, to prescribe methods and formats for exchange of electronic medical information, and to uniformly identify providers.
(38) "Immigrant" means a person who comes to the United States (U.S.) with plans to live in the country permanently. This term includes, but is not limited to, an individual who is a refugee, asylee, parolee, or other entrant regardless of whether he or she is residing in the U.S. legally.
(39) "Income" means cash, in-kind income as defined in paragraph (B)(43) of this rule, or something of value which is received, available, and attributable to an individual. Income includes the receipt of any item which can be applied, either directly or by sale or conversion, to meet the needs of an individual.
(40) "Income and eligibility verification system" (IEVS) means the electronic system that shares income and asset information among the social security administration (SSA), internal revenue service (IRS), state wage information collection agency (SWICA), agencies administering unemployment compensation (UC) benefits, and the administrative agency.
(41) "Individual" means a person applying for or receiving medical assistance.
(42) "Individually identifiable health information" means information that is a subset of health information that includes demographic information collected from an individual and:
(a) Is created or received by a health care provider, health plan, employer, or health care clearinghouse; and
(b) Relates to the past, present, or future physical condition or mental health condition of an individual, the provision of health care to an individual, or the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to an individual and either:
(i) Identifies the individual; or
(ii) There is a reasonable basis to believe the information can be used to identify the individual.
(43) "In-kind income" means any benefit received other than cash such as food, shelter, or something that can be used to get food or shelter.
(44) "Institution for mental diseases" (IMD) means a hospital, nursing facility, or other institution of more than sixteen beds which primarily provides diagnosis, treatment, or care of persons with mental diseases, including medical attention, nursing care, and related services.
(a) A facility is an IMD, whether or not it is licensed as such, if it is operated primarily for the care and treatment of individuals with mental diseases.
(b) An institution for persons with cognitive impairments or other developmental disabilities is not an IMD.
(45) "Lawfully residing" means a qualified non-citizen immigration status granted to an individual allowing him or her to live and/or work in the United States.
(46) "Legal custodian" means a person who has legal rights to have physical care and control of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.
(47) "Legal guardian" means any person, association, or corporation appointed by a probate court to exercise care and management of an individual, his or her estate, or both, as defined in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code.
(48) "Limited English proficiency" (LEP) means the inability of any person or group of persons to speak, read, write, or understand the English language at a level that allows them to meaningfully communicate with the administrative agency.
(49) "Liquid resource" means cash or property immediately convertible to cash.
(50) "Lump-sum" means a non-recurring payment received in a single amount, as opposed to smaller payments over time.
(51) "Managed care organization" (MCO) has the same meaning as in rule 5160-26-01 of the Administrative Code.
(52) "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities" (MBIWD) as set forth in rule 5160:1-5-03 of the Administrative Code, is a category of medical assistance that enables workers with disabilities to earn income and have resources, not to exceed the limits established by the state, without the risk of losing health care coverage.
(53) "Medicaid eligibility fraud" means an intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception could result in an unauthorized benefit to himself, herself, or some other person in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.2 (as in effect October 1, 2022). It includes any act that constitutes fraud under applicable federal or state law.
(54) "Medicaid household" means a group of individuals, defined in relationship to one specific medical assistance applicant or recipient, who impact the applicant's or recipient's family size, household income, or both.
(55) "Medical assistance" includes all programs administered by the state medicaid administrative agency.
(56) "Medical support" means an order by a court to provide medical coverage.
(57) "Medical verification of pregnancy" means a written statement signed by a licensed medical professional verifying pregnancy and includes the expected date of delivery and, if more than one, the expected number of fetuses.
(58) "Minor child" means a person younger than age eighteen.
(59) "Modified adjusted gross income" (MAGI or MAGI-based income) means the income methodology used for determining medical assistance eligibility for children through age eighteen, parents, caretaker relatives, pregnant women, and adults age nineteen through sixty-four.
(60) "Non-applicant" means a person who is not seeking an eligibility determination for himself or herself but is included in an applicant's or recipient's medicaid household to determine eligibility for such applicant or recipient.
(61) "Non-citizen emergency medical assistance" (NCEMA) as established in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code, means time-limited coverage of an emergency medical condition for certain individuals who do not meet the citizenship or satisfactory immigration status requirements.
(62) "Non-cooperation" or "failure to cooperate" means failure by an individual to present required verification, or to explain why it is not possible to present the verification, after being notified the verification was required for eligibility determination.
(63) "Non-excluded income" means income (earned or unearned) that is used in the eligibility determination for medical assistance.
(64) "Outstationing" means the federal requirement as described in 42 C.F.R. 435.904 (as in effect October 1, 2022) that administrative agencies provide opportunities for low-income pregnant women and children to apply for medical assistance at locations other than the local county department of job and family services.
(65) "Parent" means a natural, adoptive, or step-parent.
(66) "Personal property" means any property that is not real property, as defined in paragraph (B)(75) of this rule. Personal property includes, but is not limited to, such things as cash, jewelry, household goods, tools, life insurance policies, automobiles, and promissory notes.
(67) "Postpartum period" means the maximum permitted period of coverage as described in 42 U.S.C. 1396a(e) (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(68) "Pre-termination review" (PTR) means a review of eligibility criteria completed prior to each discontinuance of medical assistance, to determine whether an individual is eligible for any other category of medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.916(f)(1) (as in effect October 1, 2022). Home and community-based services (HCBS), as defined in rule 5160:1-6-01.1 of the Administrative Code, the specialized recovery services (SRS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-07 of the Administrative Code, or both will be explored as part of the PTR process when:
(a) The individual or his or her authorized representative has requested HCBS or SRS; or
(b) The individual's case record contains information indicating that he or she may be eligible for or in need of HCBS or SRS. Receipt of SSI, social security disability insurance (SSDI), or any other income type resulting from an individual's disability is not sufficient, by itself, to demonstrate potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS. There must be additional factors in the case record that indicate the individual's potential eligibility for or need of HCBS or SRS.
(69) "Private child placing agency" (PCPA) means any association that is certified to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for foster care or adoption, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(70) "Protected health information" (PHI) means individually identifiable health information that is transmitted by electronic media, maintained in electronic media, or transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.
(71) "Public children services agency" (PCSA) means an entity that has assumed the powers and duties of the children services function for a county, as defined in rule 5101:2-1-01 of the Administrative Code.
(72) "Public institution" means an institution, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.1010 (as in effect October 1, 2022), that is the responsibility of a governmental unit or over which a governmental unit exercises administrative control, such as a state or federal prison, local jail, detention facility, or other penal setting. Public institution does not include a medical institution, an intermediate care facility, a publicly operated community residence that serves no more than sixteen residents, or a child care institution.
(73) "Qualified entity" means the source of eligibility determinations for the presumptive eligibility program and is limited to the following:
(a) A county department of job and family services (CDJFS); or
(b) A hospital, the Ohio department of rehabilitation and correction (DRC), or the Ohio department of youth services (DYS); or
(c) A federally qualified health center (FQHC) or an FQHC look-alike that meets the requirements described in Chapter 5160-28 of the Administrative Code; or
(d) A local health department, a special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC) clinic, or other entity as designated by the director.
(74) "Recipient" means an individual who has been determined eligible and is currently receiving medical assistance in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(75) "Real property" means land, including buildings or immovable objects attached permanently to the land.
(76) "Refugee" means a person who flees his or her country due to persecution or a well-founded fear of persecution because of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a social group and is admitted to the United States under Section 207 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1157 (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(77) "Redetermination" means acting upon new or changed information received after an individual's eligibility has been determined but prior to the regularly scheduled annual renewal.
(a) The administrative agency shall only redetermine eligibility using the new or changed information. All other factors of eligibility not affected by the new or changed information are presumed unchanged.
(b) The original renewal date is not changed when eligibility has been redetermined, unless the administrative agency has sufficient information regarding all eligibility factors to renew eligibility without requesting additional information from the individual.
(78) "Renew" or "renewal" means a review of eligibility factors to determine whether the individual continues to meet all of the criteria of a medical assistance category. A renewal is performed annually.
(79) "Reporting" means notifying the administrative agency of any changes that may affect an individual's eligibility for medical assistance. Reporting changes and providing verifications is the responsibility of any individual, person, or entity who has a legal or financial responsibility for, or who stands in the place of, an individual, including:
(a) The individual; and
(b) The individual's spouse, including a community spouse; and
(c) The individual's parent, legal custodian, legal guardian, or caretaker relative; and
(d) The individual's authorized representative.
(80) "Residence" means the place the individual considers his or her established or principal home and to which, if absent, he or she intends to return.
(81) "Residential care facility" (RCF) means a home that provides either of the following as described in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code:
(a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated individuals and supervision and personal care services for three or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment; or
(b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, supervision and personal care services for at least three of those individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.
(82) "Resources" means cash, funds held within a financial institution, investments, personal property, and real property an individual and/or the individual's spouse has an ownership interest in, has the legal ability to access in order to convert to cash, and is not legally prohibited from using for support and maintenance.
(83) "Safeguarding" means security measures taken to ensure that the information of individuals applying for or receiving medical assistance is protected against unauthorized inspection, disclosure, or use. Safeguarding also refers to the restriction on the use, or disclosure, of individual information including federal tax information (FTI), any protected health information (PHI), or other confidential information used in the administration of the medicaid program in accordance with rule 5160-1-32 of the Administrative Code.
(84) "Self-attestation" or "self-declaration" means a statement of factual information made by an individual.
(85) "Self-Employment gross countable income" means the income from a business minus the expenses directly related to producing the goods or services, and without which the goods or services could not be produced.
(a) When the individual has filed taxes for the previous year, use all tax forms that were filed with the internal revenue service (IRS) to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income.
(b) When the individual has not filed taxes for the previous year, the following may be used to determine his or her self-employment gross countable income:
(i) Business records including receipts for the costs of doing business; or
(ii) Estimate of anticipated income and expenses.
(86) "Spouse" means a person who is legally married to another under Ohio law.
(87) "State adoption assistance" means the state-only adoption subsidy program as described in rule 5101:2-44-03 of the Administrative Code.
(88) "State foster care maintenance" means an entitlement for financial assistance for state-only foster care services as described in Chapter 5101:2-7 of the Administrative Code.
(89) "Support Services" means non-medical services offered or provided by the administrative agency to assist the individual and may include arranging or providing transportation, making medical appointments, accompanying the individual to medical appointments, and making referrals to community and other social services to be coordinated with the individual's medicaid-contracted managed care organization (MCO), where applicable.
(90) "Suspend" or "suspended" means the temporary discontinuance of eligibility.
(91) "Temporary absence" means that an individual is considered not to have changed residence and intends to return.
(a) An individual is considered to be temporarily absent with no time limit when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The location of the absent individual is known; and
(ii) There is a definite plan for the return of the absent individual to the residence; and
(iii) The absent individual lived in the residence immediately prior to the absence, except for individuals described in paragraph (C)(1)(h) of rule 5160:1-4-02 of the Administrative Code.
(b) Child(ren) removed by the PCSA are considered temporarily absent as long as the reunification requirements specified in the reunification plan are met.
(92) "Terminate" or "terminated" has the same meaning as "discontinue" or "discontinuance" as defined in paragraph (B)(16) of this rule.
(93) "Unearned income" means all income that is not earned income as defined in paragraph (B)(19) of this rule.
(94) "United States (U.S.)" and "state(s)" mean all fifty U.S. states, the District of Columbia, and the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, Swain's Island, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
(95) "United States citizen or national" means any individual who is:
(a) A citizen or national through birth or collective naturalization as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part I (as in effect October 1, 2022); or
(b) A naturalized citizen or national as set forth in 8 U.S.C. Chapter 12, Subchapter III, Part II (as in effect October 1, 2022).
(96) "Verification" means a document, statement, electronic validation, or other type of information provided by an individual or by a third party to confirm statements made by the individual regarding any requirement for eligibility for medical assistance. A verification document or written statement may be an original, photocopy, facsimile (fax), or electronic version of the original, unless otherwise stated.
Last updated June 27, 2025 at 12:22 AM
History
- Effective: January 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-44-02
(A) Person-centered planning process.
Individuals receiving home and community-based services (HCBS) through either an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) or Ohio department of aging (ODA) -administered waiver program authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) or the Ohio medicaid state plan authorized under section 1915(i) of the Social Security Act (as in effect on January 1, 2024) will lead the person-centered planning process where possible. The individual's authorized representative should have a participatory role, as needed, and as defined by the individual, unless Ohio law confers decision-making authority to the legal representative. All references to individuals include the role of the individual's authorized representative. In addition to being led by the individual receiving services and supports, the person-centered planning process will:
(1) Include a team of people chosen by the individual.
(2) Provide necessary information and support to ensure that the individual directs the process to the maximum extent possible and is enabled to make informed choices and decisions.
(3) Be timely and occur at times and locations of convenience to the individual.
(4) Reflect cultural considerations of the individual. The process will be conducted by providing information in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited English proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect October 1, 2023).
(5) Include strategies for solving conflict or disagreement within the process, including clear conflict of interest guidelines for all planning participants.
(6) Ensure that providers of HCBS for the individual, or those who have an interest in or are employed by a provider of HCBS for the individual will not provide case management, provider oversight, or develop the person-centered services plan.
(7) Offer informed choices to the individual regarding the services and supports he or she receives and from whom.
(8) Include a method for the individual to request updates to the person-centered services plan as needed. The individual may request a person-centered services plan review at any time.
(B) Person-centered services plan.
(1) The person-centered services plan describes the person-centered goals, objectives and interventions selected by the individual and team to support him or her in his or her community of choice. The person-centered services plan addresses the assessed needs of the individual by identifying medically-necessary services, natural supports, medical and professional staff, and community resources. The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify the setting in which the individual resides is chosen by the individual and document the alternative home and community-based settings that were considered by the individual.
(b) Reflect the individual's strengths.
(c) Reflect the individual's preferences.
(d) Reflect clinical and support needs as identified through the assessment process.
(e) Include the individual's identified goals and desired outcomes.
(f) Identify the services and supports (paid and unpaid) that will assist the individual to achieve identified goals, and the providers of those services and supports, including natural supports and those services the individual elects to self-direct. This includes all services and supports provided through private insurance, medicare, medicaid state plan, and waiver services.
(g) Address any risk factors and measures in place to minimize them, when needed.
(h) Include back-up plans that meet the needs of the individual.
(i) Reflect that the setting chosen by the individual is integrated in, and supports the full access of individuals receiving medicaid HCBS to the greater community, including opportunities to seek employment and work in competitive integrated settings, engage in community life, control personal resources and receive services in the community to the same degree of access as people not receiving medicaid HCBS.
(2) The person-centered services plan will document that any modification of the additional conditions for provider-owned or controlled residential settings set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code is supported by a specific assessed need and justified in the person-centered services plan. In these cases, the person-centered services plan will:
(a) Identify a specific and individualized assessed need;
(b) Document the positive interventions and supports used prior to any modifications to the person-centered services plan;
(c) Document less intrusive methods of meeting the need that have been attempted but were unsuccessful;
(d) Include a clear description of the condition that is directly proportionate to the specific assessed need;
(e) Include a regular collection and review of data to measure the ongoing effectiveness of the modification;
(f) Include established time limits for periodic reviews to determine if the modification is still necessary or can be terminated;
(g) Include informed consent of the individual; and
(h) Include an assurance that interventions and supports will not cause any harm to the individual.
(3) The person-centered services plan will:
(a) Be understandable to the individual receiving services and supports, and the people important in supporting him or her. At a minimum, it will be written in plain language and in a manner that is accessible to persons with disabilities and persons who are limited english proficient, consistent with 42 CFR 435.905(b) (as in effect on October 1, 2023).
(b) Identify the person and/or entity responsible for monitoring the plan.
(c) Be finalized and agreed to, with the informed consent of the individual in writing, and signed by all people and providers responsible for its implementation. Acceptable signatures include, but are not limited to a handwritten signature, initials, a stamp or mark, or an electronic signature. Any accommodations to the individual's or authorized representative's signature will be documented on the plan.
(d) Be distributed to the individual and other people involved in the plan.
(e) Prevent the provision of unnecessary or inappropriate services and supports.
(f) Be reviewed and revised upon reassessment of functional need as required by 42 CFR 441.365(e) (as in effect on October 1, 2023), at least every twelve months, when the individual experiences a significant change, or at the request of the individual.
(C) Documentation standards.
(1) Documentation standards apply to entities delegated to perform assessments and care coordination activities for nursing facility-based waiver programs. Assessments and care coordination activities include in-person visits, telephone conversations, or email exchanges.
(2) Documentation for each assessment and care coordination activity will include the following:
(a) Individual's name.
(b) Name and relationship to the individual for all that participate.
(c) Date of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(d) Location of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(e) Type of assessment or care coordination activity.
(f) Detailed description of the assessment or care coordination activity, including the reason for the activity, actions completed, outcome and next steps.
(3) Documentation of all assessments and care coordination activities will be:
(a) Written in a manner that is objective, accurate, and understandable to the individual as described in paragraph (B)(3)(a) of this rule.
(b) Completed within three business days of the assessment or care coordination activity.
(c) Accessible to ODM in the system designated by ODM.
Last updated July 2, 2024 at 10:51 AM
History
- Effective: July 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-51-02 Assisted living program (state-funded component): eligibility requirements.
(A) Only an individual meeting all of the following qualifications is eligible for the state-funded component of the assisted living program:
(1) Consultation: The individual participated in a long-term care consultation under section 173.42 of the Revised Code and Chapter 173-43 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Financial requirements:
(a) The individual contacted either ODA's designee or ODM's administrative agency to apply for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, but the application is still pending because ODM's administrative agency has not yet made a final determination on the individual's financial eligibility. If ODM's administrative agency already determined the individual was eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, the individual would enroll into the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program. If ODM's administrative agency already determined the individual was not financially eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, the individual would also not be eligible to participate in the state-funded component of the assisted living program.
(b) The individual agreed that, if the individual enrolls into the state-funded component of the assisted living program, and ODM's administrative agency determines the individual is financially eligible for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted-living program, then the individual would transfer immediately to the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.
(c) The individual is cooperative and actively assisting ODM's administrative agency in determining if the individual is financially eligible to participate in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program by timely providing ODM's administrative agency with information and copies of any records ODM's administrative agency needs to make its financial eligibility determination.
(d) ODA or its designee determined that ODM's administrative agency would most likely determine that the individual meets all financial eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program listed in rules 5160:1-2-03 and 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Non-financial requirements:
(a) ODA or its designee and the individual entered into an enrollment agreement, and the form indicated the individual chose to enroll in the state-funded component of the assisted living program, named the individual's representative (if any), and authorized ODA or its designee to release information.
(b) ODA or its designee determined the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(c) The individual agreed to reside in a resident unit of a certified RCF while receiving assisted living services under the state-funded component of the assisted living program that meets the requirements for resident units in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(4) Post-eligibility treatment of income (PETI) (i.e., patient liability or share of cost): After ODA or its designee assessed the individual's income and resources using the methodology described in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code to determine if the individual should pay any share of cost and the individual agreed to pay, and does pay, any share of cost as it becomes due.
(B) If, at any time, an individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the assisted living program no longer meets all the requirements under paragraph (A) of this rule, unless the only requirement the individual no longer meets is the PETI requirement in paragraph (A)(5) of this rule, the individual is no longer eligible for the state-funded component of the assisted living program.
(C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component of the assisted living program is not eligible to participate in the state-funded component of the assisted living program for more than ninety days, unless ODA's director approved an extended number of days.
(D) ODA's designee may allow an individual to provide verbal agreement for intent to enroll in the state-funded component of the assisted living program at the time of assessment if unable to provide a unique identifier of the individual. ODA's designee may collect the unique identifier of the individual for the agreements required in paragraphs (A)(2)(b), (A)(3)(a), (A)(3)(c), and (A)(4) of this rule no later than thirty days after the individual's original enrollment date.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 1:27 PM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-2-03
(A) This rule sets forth the process for determining whether an individual is eligible for medical assistance payments for services under a home and community-based services (HCBS) waiver, as described in rules 5123-9-01, 5160-31-03, 5160-33-03, 5160-40-01, 5160-41-17, 5160-42-01, 5160-46-02, 5160-58-02.2, and 5160-59-04 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Eligibility for an HCBS waiver. To receive services under an HCBS waiver, the individual shall:
(1) Be eligible for medical assistance, as described in Chapters 5160:1-1 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code;
(2) Be in need of HCBS under a waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code;
(3) Be enrolled in an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; and
(4) Not be simultaneously enrolled in another HCBS waiver, the residential state supplement (RSS) program described in rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code, or the program of all-inclusive care for the elderly (PACE).
(C) Request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) An individual may request an HCBS waiver by:
(a) Indicating the request on an application for medical assistance;
(b) Submitting an ODM 02399 "Request for Medicaid Home and Community-Based Services (HCBS) Waiver" to the administrative agency;
(c) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to the administrative agency; or
(d) Indicating the request verbally or in writing to an Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved long-term services and supports agency.
(2) The effective date of an HCBS waiver request is determined in accordance with rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) Processing a request for an HCBS waiver.
(1) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Submit the request within two business days using the Ohio department of medicaid (ODM) approved submission process; and
(b) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(2) Upon receipt of an HCBS waiver request when the individual is not currently in receipt of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall:
(a) Begin the application process for medical assistance, as described in rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code;
(b) Submit the request within two business days using the ODM approved submission process; and
(c) Document the following in the electronic eligibility system case record:
(i) The date the administrative agency received the request for HCBS; and
(ii) The date the administrative agency submitted the request using the ODM approved submission process.
(E) Determination of eligibility for an HCBS waiver. The administrative agency shall approve an HCBS waiver for an individual eligible for medical assistance only upon:
(1) Approval by the HCBS waiver operational agency; and
(2) Notification that the individual may be enrolled in the waiver from ODM, its designee, or an HCBS waiver operational agency, when services under the waiver are available only to a specific number of individuals.
(F) Coverage period. The HCBS waiver coverage period can have a different beginning date or ending date from the medical assistance eligibility period.
(1) HCBS cannot:
(a) Begin before an individual's medical assistance eligibility period or before an individual's retroactive medical assistance eligibility period.
(b) Extend beyond the discontinuance date of an individual's medical assistance coverage.
(c) Be provided during any period of medical assistance ineligibility.
(2) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS begins on the latest of the following dates:
(a) The date the administrative agency receives a request for an HCBS waiver from an individual;
(b) The date the individual meets all criteria for coverage of an HCBS waiver described in agency 5123 or 5160 of the Administrative Code; or
(c) The date the individual is authorized by the HCBS waiver operational agency to receive services under an HCBS waiver.
(3) Medical assistance coverage of HCBS ends when either:
(a) The administrative agency determines the individual no longer meets the conditions of eligibility, as described in rule 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code, or the criteria for coverage of HCBS; or
(b) The HCBS waiver operational agency notifies the administrative agency that it no longer authorizes the individual to receive HCBS.
(G) HCBS waiver operational agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine, in accordance with this rule and agencies 5123 and 5160 of the Administrative Code, whether the individual requesting an HCBS waiver meets the requirements of the applicable HCBS waiver program.
(2) Provide written notification to the individual of the HCBS programmatic determination.
(3) Notify the administrative agency of determinations and subsequent changes regarding approval of HCBS.
(H) Administrative agency responsibilities.
(1) Determine an individual's eligibility for an HCBS waiver in accordance with this rule. When the administrative agency determines that an individual who requests an HCBS waiver is not eligible for any category of medical assistance, the administrative agency shall deny both the medical assistance application and HCBS waiver request for that individual.
(2) Notify the applicable HCBS waiver operational agency of changes in the individual's eligibility for medical assistance coverage of services under an HCBS waiver.
Last updated November 5, 2025 at 9:07 AM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-2-10
(A) This rule describes eligibility criteria that apply to all medical assistance programs, how eligibility criteria will be verified by the administrative agency, and when an individual will be asked to provide manual verification. Eligibility conditions that are specific to a certain eligibility group are addressed in the eligibility rule for that group.
(B) To be determined eligible for medical assistance, an individual shall:
(1) Provide a social security number (SSN) in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.910 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(a) The individual's self-declaration of SSN meets this condition unless contradictory information is provided to or maintained by the administrative agency.
(b) An individual is not required to provide an SSN when the individual:
(i) Is applying for or receiving non-citizen emergency medical assistance (NCEMA), as described in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) Refuses to obtain an SSN because of well-established religious objections. Well-established religious objections exist when the individual:
(a) Is a member of a recognized religious sect or division of the sect; and
(b) Adheres to the tenets or teachings of the sect or division of the sect and for that reason is conscientiously opposed to applying for or using a national identification number.
(c) If the individual has not been issued or cannot recall his or her SSN, the administrative agency shall assist the individual with obtaining or applying for the individual's SSN.
(2) Be a resident, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 435.403 (as in effect October 1, 2024), of the state of Ohio on the date of application or requested coverage begin date.
(a) The individual's self-declaration of residency meets this condition unless contradictory information is provided to or maintained by the administrative agency.
(b) An individual remains a resident despite a temporary absence from the state when the individual intends to return when the purpose of the absence has been accomplished, unless another state has determined the individual is a resident there for purposes of medicaid eligibility.
(c) The individual shall not be eligible for and receiving medical assistance in another state or U.S. territory. An individual who has recently become an Ohio resident is not ineligible for medical assistance merely due to processing delays in terminating medical assistance in the prior state of residence.
(i) When there are delays in discontinuing medical assistance in the prior state of residence and the individual is unable to provide all needed verifications, the administrative agency shall explore presumptive coverage, as described in rule 5160:1-2-13 of the Administrative Code.
(ii) When all verifications have been provided, the administrative agency shall explore eligibility for medical assistance in accordance with Chapter 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, 5160:1-5, or 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, as applicable.
(3) Be a U.S. citizen or qualified non-citizen.
(a) An individual is not required to declare or verify citizenship or non-citizen status when the individual is applying for benefits only on behalf of another person.
(b) An individual's declaration of U.S. citizenship shall be verified as described in rule 5160:1-2-11 of the Administrative Code.
(c) An individual's declaration of qualified non-citizen status shall be verified as described in rule 5160:1-2-12 of the Administrative Code.
(d) Verification of non-citizen status is not required when the individual is applying for NCEMA, as described in rule 5160:1-5-06 of the Administrative Code.
(4) In accordance with 42 C.F.R. 435.610 (as in effect October 1, 2024) and section 5160.38 of the Revised Code, the state of Ohio shall automatically be assigned any rights to medical support and payments for medical care from any third party for:
(a) The individual; and
(b) Any medicaid-eligible individual for whom the individual is legally able to make an assignment.
(5) Cooperate with the child support enforcement agency (CSEA) in establishing the paternity of any medicaid-eligible child and in obtaining medical support and payments as described in paragraph (B)(4) of this rule, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 433.147 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(a) As part of cooperation, the individual may be required to:
(i) Appear at a state or local office to provide information or evidence relevant to the case; and
(ii) Appear as a witness at a court or other proceeding; and
(iii) Provide information, or attest to lack of information, under penalty of perjury; and
(iv) Take any reasonable steps to assist with establishing paternity and securing medical support or payments.
(b) Cooperation is required unless the individual:
(i) Is not receiving medical assistance for himself or herself;
(ii) Is a pregnant woman, including a woman who is in her postpartum period;
(iii) Has been approved for a good cause waiver as determined by the local CSEA; or
(iv) Is receiving transitional medical assistance.
(6) Cooperate with the administrative agency in identifying and providing information to assist the state with pursuing any third party who may be liable to pay for care and services. To meet this condition, the individual shall provide the name of the insurance company, billing address, subscriber identification number, group number, name of policy holder, and a list of covered individuals. In addition, the individual shall cooperate with requests:
(a) From a third-party insurance company to provide additional information that is required to authorize coverage or obtain benefits through the third-party insurance company.
(b) From a medicaid provider, managed care plan, or a managed care plan's contracted provider to provide additional information that is required for the provider or plan to obtain payments from a third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services.
(c) From a third-party insurance company, medicaid provider, managed care plan, or a managed care plan's contracted provider to forward or return to the third-party insurance company, medicaid provider, managed care plan, or managed care plan's contracted provider any payments received from the third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services when:
(i) The provider has billed the third-party insurance company for medicaid covered services provided to the individual; and
(ii) The third-party insurance company has sent payment to the individual for medicaid covered services the individual received from the provider.
(7) Meet all eligibility requirements for an eligibility category set out in an approved state plan amendment, Chapter 5160:1-2, 5160:1-3, 5160:1-4, 5160:1-5, or 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code, including:
(a) Income requirements for the eligibility category.
(i) When an individual's declared income exceeds the relevant federal poverty level (FPL) threshold, the individual's declared income will be accepted without further verification.
(ii) When an individual's declared income is reasonably compatible with data available through electronic data sources, the individual's declared income will be accepted without further verification. Income shall be considered reasonably compatible when:
(a) Both the declared income and the electronic data verification are above, at, or below the applicable income standard for the individual's family size for the eligibility category being determined; or
(b) The difference between the declared income and the electronic data verification is within an amount equal to the reasonable compatibility standard threshold for income specified in the state's MAGI-based eligibility verification plan.
(iii) When the administrative agency is unable to verify income through electronic data sources, acceptable verification documentation includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Information maintained as a regular part of business by a government entity;
(b) A current pay stub;
(c) An award letter from a certifying agency;
(d) IRS form 1099 or other tax documents;
(e) An employer statement including hourly or salary wage, hours worked per pay period, length of pay period, and any tax withholdings; or
(f) The individual's statement, if he or she declares the income verification cannot be accessed or submitted.
(b) Resource and asset requirements for the eligibility category.
(i) When an individual's declared resources are reasonably compatible with data available through electronic data sources, the individual's declared resources will be accepted without further verification. Resources shall be considered reasonably compatible when:
(a) Both the declared resources and the electronic data verification are above, at, or below the applicable resource standard for the eligibility category being determined; or
(b) The difference between the declared resources and the electronic data verification is within an amount equal to five per cent.
(ii) When the administrative agency is unable to verify the value of an individual's resources through electronic data sources, acceptable verification documentation includes, but is not limited to:
(a) Information maintained as a regular part of business by a government entity;
(b) A financial institution statement;
(c) Legal documents; or
(d) The individual's statement, if he or she declares the resource verification cannot be accessed or submitted.
Last updated March 4, 2025 at 7:52 AM
History
- Effective: March 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 5160-33-03
(A) The purpose of this rule is to outline the requirements that must be met for an individual to be eligible to enroll in the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program.
(B) To be eligible for the medicaid funded component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet all of the following:
(1) Be eligible for medicaid in accordance with Chapters 5160:1-3 to 5160:1-6 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Have an intermediate or skilled level of care in accordance with rule 5160-3-08 of the Administrative Code. If the individual requires skilled nursing care beyond supervision of special diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, it must be provided in accordance with rule 3701-16-09.1 of the Administrative Code.
(3) Be age twenty-one years old or older at the time of enrollment.
(4) Participate in the development of a person-centered services plan in accordance with the process and requirements set forth in rule 5160-44-02 of the Administrative Code.
(5) Have the ability to make room and board payments calculated at the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit level minus fifty dollars. Providers shall not charge or collect room and board payments from individuals in excess of the room and board payment calculated in accordance with this paragraph. In the event an individual does not have sufficient personal income:
(a) An individual may arrange for informal supports to provide a supplemental payment to the provider in order to meet room and board requirements;
(i) The supplemental payment shall represent no more than the difference between the individual's personal income and the maximum room and board payment established in paragraph (B)(5) of this rule.
(ii) The amount of the supplemental payment shall not be considered when calculating the individual's patient liability as described in rule 5160:1-6-07.1 of the Administrative Code.
(b) A provider may elect to accept a reduced room and board rate.
(6) Have health and safety related needs met, as determined by the Ohio department of aging's (ODA) designee.
(C) The individual must reside in a residential care facility (RCF) licensed by the Ohio department of health. At the time of initial and continued enrollment, the individual must reside in a resident unit that meets the qualifications in rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code and possesses the home and community-based setting characteristics set forth in rule 5160-44-01 of the Administrative Code.
(D) If, at any time, the individual does not meet any of the eligibility requirements identified in this rule, the individual shall be denied or disenrolled from the assisted living HCBS waiver. In such instances, the individual shall be notified of his or her hearing rights in accordance with division 5101:6 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated September 7, 2023 at 8:18 AM
History
- Effective: September 7, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 5160:1-6-07.1
(A) This rule describes the process for calculating an individual's post-eligibility treatment of income (PETI), commonly referred to as patient liability or share of cost, when the individual is not living in a medical institution. This rule only applies to an individual who is both eligible for medical assistance under the special income level (SIL) as described in rule 5160:1-6-03.1 of the Administrative Code and who is receiving HCBS waiver or PACE services.
(B) The administrative agency will reduce its payment to the HCBS waiver or PACE providers for services provided to the individual by the amount of the individual's patient liability calculated in accordance with this rule.
(C) The individual must pay the patient liability amount to his or her providers identified by the HCBS waiver or PACE administrative agency.
(D) Providers are to collect the full patient liability amount or up to the cost of care, whichever is less.
(E) Patient liability must be recalculated when there is a change in circumstances that affects the patient liability amount.
(F) Patient liability can be established for retroactive eligibility as described in paragraph (L) of rule 5160:1-2-01 of the Administrative Code and will follow the same process as described in paragraph (K) of this rule.
(G) Once eligibility has been established, patient liability cannot be increased for past months.
(H) A patient liability calculated for a child younger than age nineteen shall not increase during the child's continuous eligibility period as described in rule 5160:1-2-14 of the Administrative Code. Any decrease in a child's patient liability results in a new maximum amount, which will not increase for the remainder of the child's continuous eligibility period.
(I) Providers are required to refund to the individual any overpayments of patient liability paid by the individual, such as when retroactive patient liability adjustments are made.
(J) For purposes of this rule, the following definitions apply:
(1) "Assisted living waiver maintenance needs allowance (ALMNA)" is an amount equal to the current supplemental security income (SSI) federal benefit rate (FBR).
(2) "Special individual maintenance needs allowance (SIMNA)" is sixty-five per cent of the special income level.
(K) For purposes of this rule, patient liability is calculated in the following order:
(1) Total the individual's gross monthly earned and unearned income, including SSI payments. In the case of an institutionalized spouse, include any income attributed to the institutionalized spouse in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-04 of the Administrative Code.
(2) Exclude the following payments from the individual's gross monthly income:
(a) Payments to victims of Nazi persecution.
(b) Austrian social insurance payments based, in whole or in part, on wage credits received under the provisions of the Austrian General Social Insurance Act, paragraphs 500 through 506 (as in effect October 1, 2024). These payments need to be documented and identifiable separate from countable insurance.
(c) Payments from the Dutch government under the Netherlands' Benefit Act for victims of persecution from 1940-1945 (Dutch acronym, WUV) (Pub. L. No. 103-286).
(d) Restitution payments under the Civil Liberties Act of 1988, to U.S. citizens of Japanese ancestry and permanent resident Japanese non-citizens who were interned during World War II, or their survivors, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4215 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(e) Restitution payments under the Aleutian and Pribilof Island Restitution Act, in accordance with 50 U.S.C. 4236 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(f) Agent Orange settlement fund payments received on or after January 1, 1989, as a result of the Agent Orange Compensation Exclusion Act (Pub. L. No. 101-201).
(g) Department of defense payments to certain persons captured and interned in North Vietnam, in accordance with the Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and Related Agencies Appropriations Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-78).
(h) Radiation exposure compensation trust fund payments, in accordance with the Radiation Exposure Compensation Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 101-426).
(i) Veterans affairs payments made to or on behalf of:
(i) Certain Vietnam veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(ii) Certain Korea service veterans' natural children, regardless of age or marital status, for any disability resulting from spina bifida suffered by such children; and
(iii) The natural children, regardless of age or marital status, with certain birth defects born to a woman who served in Vietnam.
(j) Veterans administration pensions, including payments for aid and attendance, up to the amount of ninety dollars per month, paid to veterans or their surviving spouse, if any, who are residing in a nursing facility or are receiving HCBS waiver services. This exclusion applies to:
(i) A veteran without a spouse or dependent minor or disabled child; and
(ii) A veteran's surviving spouse without a dependent minor or disabled child.
(k) Payments made to Native Americans as listed in section IV of 20 C.F.R. 416 Subpart K Appendix (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(l) SSI benefits received under authority of sections 1611(e)(1)(E) and (G) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024) for institutionalized individuals during the first three full months of institutionalization. The administrative agency must not retroactively redetermine patient liability determinations, made under the continued benefit provision, if the individual's actual stay exceeds the expected stay of ninety days or less.
(m) Residential state supplement (RSS) payments to institutionalized individuals, in accordance with rule 5160:1-5-01 of the Administrative Code.
(n) Payments from a state fund for victims of crime.
(o) Payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class action settlement in the case of "Factor VIII or IX concentrate blood products litigation," MDL986, no. 93-C-7452 (N.D. Ill), per section 4735 of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 (Pub. L. No. 105-33).
(p) Payments from the Ricky Ray Hemophilia Fund Act of 1998 (Pub. L. No. 105-369) or payments made from any fund established pursuant to a class settlement in the case of Susan Walker v. Bayer Corporation, 96-C-5024 (N.D. III).
(q) Payments made to individuals under the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act of 2000 (Pub. L. No. 106-398).
(r) Assistance (other than wages or salaries) under the Older Americans Act of 1965 under 92 Stat. 1515, 42 U.S.C. 3020a Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(s) Student financial assistance received under the Higher Education Act (HEA) of 1965 (as in effect October 1, 2024) or bureau of Indian affairs is excluded from income, regardless of use:
(i) Pell grants;
(ii) Student services incentives;
(iii) Academic achievement incentive scholarships;
(iv) Federal supplemental education opportunity grants;
(v) Federal educational loans (Stafford loans, William D. Ford federal direct and direct PLUS loans, etc.);
(vi) Upward bound;
(vii) Gear up (gaining early awareness and readiness for undergraduate programs);
(viii) State educational assistance programs funded by the leveraging educational assistance programs; and
(ix) Work-study programs.
(t) Matching funds that are deposited into individual development accounts (IDAs), either demonstration project or TANF-funded, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 604 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(u) Accounts under the Stephen Beck, Jr., Achieving a Better Life Experience (ABLE) Act of 2014 (Pub. L. No. 113-295). The following are not considered income to the account holder:
(i) Contributions to an ABLE account by another individual or third party.
(ii) Interest earned on an ABLE account.
(iii) Distributions from an ABLE account.
(v) Federal and state foster care payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E for a child currently living in the household.
(w) Federal or state adoption assistance payments received under title IV-B or title IV-E.
(x) Payments received under the kinship guardianship assistance program (KGAP), state KGAP, or kinship guardianship assistance program connections to twenty-one (KGAP C21).
(y) Child care assistance under the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990 (Pub. L. No. 113-186).
(z) Assistance or services received through the domestic volunteer service under 42 U.S.C. 66 per 42 U.S.C. 5044(f) (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(aa) Payments made for supporting services or reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses to volunteers participating in corporation for national and community service (CNCS, formerly ACTION) programs in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 1382a (as in effect October 1, 2024):
(i) AmeriCorps VISTA program;
(ii) Special and demonstration volunteer program;
(iii) Retired senior volunteer program (RSVP);
(iv) Foster grandparents program; and
(v) Senior companion program.
(bb) Assistance or services received through federal food and nutrition programs:
(i) Supplemental nutrition assistance program (SNAP);
(ii) The value of foods donated by the U.S. department of agriculture commodity supplemental food program;
(iii) The value of supplemental food assistance received under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (Pub. L. No. 89-642) and the special food service program for children under the National School Lunch Act (Pub. L. No. 90-302);
(iv) The special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (WIC); and
(v) Nutrition program benefits provided for the elderly under Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-73).
(cc) Assistance received under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (Pub. L. No. 100-707) and assistance provided under any federal statute because of a presidentially-declared disaster.
(dd) Assistance, with respect to the dwelling unit occupied by such individual (or such individual and spouse), under the United States Housing Act of 1937 (Pub. L. No. 75-412), the National Housing Act (Pub. L. No. 73-479), section 101 of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965 (Pub. L. No. 89-117), title V of the Housing Act of 1949 (Pub. L. No. 81-171), or section 202(h) of the Housing Act of 1959 (Pub. L. No. 86-372).
(ee) Home energy assistance provided on the basis of need, in accordance with 20 C.F.R. 416.1157 (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(ff) Relocation assistance provided under title II of the Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisitions Policies Act of 1970 (Pub. L. No. 91-646) provided to individuals displaced by or through any federal, federally-assisted, state, state-assisted, local, or locally-assisted government project in the acquisition of real property.
(gg) The first two thousand dollars per calendar year received as compensation for participation in clinical trials that meet the criteria detailed in section 1612(b) of the Social Security Act (as in effect October 1, 2024).
(3) Subtract the applicable personal needs allowance (PNA) as follows:
(a) For individuals receiving services under an HCBS waiver, other than the assisted living waiver, the PNA is the SIMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(b) For individuals receiving services under the assisted living waiver or in an assisted living facility receiving services under the mycare waiver, the PNA is the ALMNA. When the individual has earned income, subtract up to an additional sixty-five dollars from the earned income.
(c) For individuals receiving PACE services and residing in the community, the PNA is the SIMNA. Individuals receiving PACE services and residing in an assisted living facility are considered to be residing in the community.
(4) When the individual has a community spouse, subtract the monthly income allowance (MIA) for the community spouse.
(a) The MIA of the community spouse is calculated as follows:
(i) Determine the excess shelter allowance (ESA):
(a) Total and round down to the nearest dollar the community spouse's expenses for the principal place of residence, as defined in rule 5160:1-3-05.13 of the Administrative Code, including any rent or mortgage payment (including principal and interest), current property taxes, insurance, and any required maintenance charge for a condominium or cooperative; then
(b) When the community spouse is responsible for payment towards the cost of gas, electric, coal, wood, oil, water, sewage, or telephone service for the residence, add in the standard utility allowance; then
(c) Subtract the ESA standard.
(d) The remainder is the ESA.
(ii) Add the calculated ESA to the minimum monthly maintenance needs allowance (MMMNA) standard to determine the MMMNA. Except in accordance with a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, the MMMNA must not exceed the MMMNA cap which is updated annually.
(iii) Subtract the community spouse's gross monthly income from the lesser of the MMMNA, calculated in paragraph (K)(4)(a)(ii) of this rule, or the MMMNA cap. When a hearing decision under rule 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code results in a MMMNA that is greater than the MMMNA cap, use the amount established in the hearing decision. The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the MIA.
(b) When there is court ordered support that is greater than the MIA calculated above, the court ordered amount is used as the MIA.
(c) When the community spouse's income is still below the MMMNA after all of the institutionalized spouse's income is allocated to the community spouse, the community spouse resource allowance can be increased in accordance with rules 5160:1-6-04 and 5101:6-7-02 of the Administrative Code, to generate additional income for the community spouse.
(5) When the individual has dependent family members, subtract either the family allowance (FA) or the family maintenance needs allowance (FMNA). The FA does not apply when there is an FMNA.
(a) Subtract an FA when the institutionalized individual has family members residing with his or her spouse in the community. The FA is calculated as follows:
(i) For each family member, multiply the MMMNA standard by one-third; then
(ii) Subtract that family member's gross monthly income; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the allowance amount for that family member.
(v) The allowances for each family member are added together to determine the FA.
(b) Subtract an FMNA when the institutionalized individual has dependent family members who resided with the institutionalized individual immediately before the individual was admitted to a medical institution. The FMNA does not apply when there is a spouse in the community. The FMNA is calculated as follows:
(i) The FMNA standard is the Ohio works first (OWF) payment standard for the same number of applicable dependent family members.
(ii) Subtract the combined monthly income of the dependent family members from the FMNA standard; then
(iii) Round the result down to the nearest dollar.
(iv) The remainder is the FMNA.
(6) The following types of health care costs shall be subtracted from the institutionalized individual's patient liability. Any requests for subtraction of these costs must include documentation that clearly shows the type of medical expense, the amount the individual is responsible for paying, and the date the service or item was provided to the individual.
(a) Health insurance premiums (including medicaid and medicare premiums) and coinsurance, insurance deductibles and copayments, that are incurred by:
(i) The institutionalized individual;
(ii) The institutionalized individual's spouse; or
(iii) The institutionalized individual's minor or disabled child.
(b) The cost of any of the institutionalized individual's incurred expenses for medical care, recognized under Ohio law, but not covered by medicaid and not subject to third-party payment. The medical expenses, and any request to subtract such expenses from the patient liability, must meet the following criteria:
(i) The service was medically necessary as determined by the administrative agency.
(ii) Expenses for medical care were not incurred while serving a restricted medicaid coverage period (RMCP) per rule 5160:1-6-06.5 of the Administrative Code. Expenses that were incurred while serving an RMCP shall not count as unpaid past expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iii) Unpaid patient liability shall not count as unpaid past medical expenses and shall not be subtracted from the patient liability calculation.
(iv) The request for the subtraction of incurred expenses for medical care can only be initiated by either the institutionalized individual or person or entity who has the legal ability to act on the individual's behalf, including the institutionalized individual's authorized representative. A request for a deduction cannot be initiated by a medical services provider or supplier, unless such provider or supplier is also the institutionalized individual's authorized representative.
(v) Unpaid medical expenses that were incurred in the past may be subtracted from the patient liability as long as the services meet the criteria described in paragraph (K)(6)(b) of this rule.
(7) Subtract the payment in an amount up to fifteen dollars per month, or the amount approved by the administrative agency, to administer a qualified income trust (QIT) account in accordance with rule 5160:1-6-03.2 of the Administrative Code.
(8) The remainder, rounded down to the nearest dollar, is the individual's monthly patient liability, for a full month of HCBS or PACE services.
(9) The individual's patient liability will be prorated when the individual is enrolled in an HCBS waiver or PACE program for less than a full month. Prorated patient liability amounts are calculated as follows:
(a) Determine the per diem patient liability amount by dividing the patient liability for a full month of institutionalization by the number of days in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined.
(b) Determine the actual number of days of institutionalization in the month for which the prorated payment is to be determined, including the first date of institutionalization in the month. The date of discharge or the date of death is not included in this calculation.
(c) Multiply the actual number of days of institutionalization by the per diem patient liability amount and round this number down to the nearest dollar. This is the individual's prorated patient liability.
(L) The individual will receive written notification of the amount of patient liability for which he or she is responsible. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with the patient liability amount.
(M) When applicable, the individual will receive written notification of the MIA, FA, or FMNA that were calculated in accordance with this rule. Such notice will explain how the individual can request a hearing if he or she disagrees with those amounts.
Last updated December 6, 2025 at 3:03 PM
History
- Effective: June 1, 2025
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-51-03 Assisted living program (state-funded component): disenrollment and other adverse actions.
(A) Disenrollment: ODA or its designee shall disenroll an individual enrolled in the state-funded component of the assisted living program under any one or more of the following situations:
(1) The individual no longer meets all requirements under rule 173-51-02 of the Administrative Code, unless the only requirement the individual no longer meets is the PETI requirement listed in paragraph (A)(5) of that rule, during a state of emergency declared by the governor, or during a federal public health emergency if federal financial participation pays for all of the individual's services.
(2) ODM's administrative agency determined the individual meets all medicaid financial eligibility requirements under rules 5160:1-2-03 and 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code. (If an individual meets all requirements for the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, the individual would be enrolled into the medicaid-funded component of the program and no longer remain in the state-funded component.)
(3) ODM's administrative agency determined the individual does not meet all financial eligibility requirements under rules 5160:1-2-03 and 5160:1-2-10 of the Administrative Code.
(4) The individual has been enrolled in the state-funded component of the assisted living program for the maximum enrollment period of ninety days, unless ODA's director approved an extended number of days.
(5) The individual voluntarily disenrolls from the state-funded component of the assisted living program before reaching the maximum enrollment period of ninety days, unless ODA's director approved an extended number of days.
(B) Post-disenrollment limitations: After ODA or its designee disenrolls an individual from the state-funded component of the assisted living program, the following limits apply:
(1) The individual is not eligible to re-enroll into the state-funded component of the assisted living program.
(2) The individual is not eligible to enroll the individual into the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program until ODM's administrative agency determines the individual meets all medicaid financial eligibility requirements and ODA or its designee determines the individual meets all non-financial eligibility requirements in rule 5160-33-03 of the Administrative Code.
(3) The individual is not eligible to enroll the individual into the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program.
(C) Appeals: An eligible individual may appeal a decision made under this rule pursuant to section 173.545 of the Revised Code. The individual's appeal is timely only if the request for a hearing is received by ODA within thirty days after the date in which ODA mailed the notice of opportunity for hearing.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 1:27 PM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-51-04 Assisted living program (state-funded): provider requirements.
The state-funded component of the assisted living program may pay a provider for providing a service covered under rule 173-51-05 of the Administrative Code only if the provider is certified to provide the service under Chapter 173-39 of the Administrative Code and under section 173.39 of the Revised Code.
Last updated March 1, 2023 at 8:43 AM
History
- Effective: March 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Ohio Adm.Code 173-51-05
An individual's person-centered services plan may authorize only the following two services:
(A) Assisted living service under rule 173-39-02.16 of the Administrative Code.
(B) Community transition under rule 173-39-02.17 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated February 1, 2023 at 1:27 PM
History
- Effective: February 1, 2023
- Promulgated Under: 111.15
Chapter 173-60 Nursing Home Quality Initiative
Ohio Adm.Code 173-60-01 Nursing home quality initiative: introduction and definitions.
(A) Introduction: Division (B) of section 3721.072 of the Revised Code requires every nursing home to participate in a quality improvement project at least once every two years and permits the nursing home to choose an ODA-approved quality improvement project. This chapter establishes the qualifications for ODA's approval of a quality improvement project, the approval and rescission process for quality improvement projects, and the publication of ODA-approved quality improvement projects on the "Nursing Home Quality Initiative" website (https://aging.ohio.gov/nursinghomequalityimprovement).
(B) Definitions for this chapter:
"Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.
"ODA" means the department of aging.
"ODH" means the department of health.
Last updated November 1, 2024 at 2:03 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-60-02 Nursing home quality initiative: requirements for approval.
To qualify for ODA's approval, a quality improvement project shall meet all of the following:
(A) The project shall improve the quality of a nursing home.
(B) The project shall have elements that include a plan, action aimed at improving quality, evaluation of the action, and proposed new action resulting from the evaluation.
Last updated November 1, 2024 at 2:03 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-60-03 Nursing home quality initiative: approval and rescission processes for quality improvement projects.
(A) Approval:
(1) An entity that sponsors a quality improvement project may apply for ODA's approval of its project by completing the application found by following the "submit your proposal here" link on the "Nursing Home Quality Initiative" website (https://aging.ohio.gov/nursinghomequalityimprovement), unless paragraph (B) of this rule applies.
(2) ODA shall deny a proposed project if the entity in paragraph (A)(1) of this rule does not submit a complete application.
(3) ODA, in consultation with the state long-term care ombudsman, shall review a proposed project, then decide whether to approve or deny the project.
(B) Pre-approval: ODA may approve a quality improvement project without receiving an application from an entity that sponsors that project if the project meets all the following qualifications:
(1) The project qualifies for ODA's approval under rule 173-60-02 of the Administrative Code.
(2) A nursing home voluntarily participates in the project.
(3) One of the following entities administers the project:
(a) ODA's technical assistance program (TAP) for nursing homes.
(b) ODH's provider resource and education program (PREP).
(c) The quality improvement organization (QIO) contracted with the centers for medicare and medicaid services under 42 U.S.C. 1320c-2.
(C) Rescission: If an approved quality-improvement project no longer qualifies for ODA's approval under rule 173-60-02 of the Administrative Code, then ODA shall remove it from the "Nursing Home Quality Initiative" website.
Last updated November 1, 2024 at 2:03 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
Ohio Adm.Code 173-60-04 Nursing home quality initiative: online publication of approved quality improvement projects.
On the "Nursing Home Quality Initiative" website, ODA shall publish the following:
(A) Each ODA-approved quality improvement project.
(B) A description of the evidence that participating nursing homes shall produce for ODH surveyors to demonstrate the nursing home's compliance with section 3721.072 of the Revised Code.
Last updated November 1, 2024 at 2:03 PM
History
- Effective: November 1, 2024
- Promulgated Under: 119.03
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